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ES Q1 Final

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 3hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Select from the following the most basic requirements for life to form from non-living matter:

a)

Water

b)

Nutrients

c)

Energy

d)

Oxygen

2.

An organism from Kansas may struggle to survive in an Arctic climate due to what fundamental property of life?

a)

Environmental adaptations

b)

It's too cold

c)

There isn't enough sunlight

d)

Water isn't available

3.

Organisms being well adapted to their environment is a result of what?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Evolution

c)

Environmental adaptations

d)

Artificial Selection

4.

The texture of soil depends on

a)

How much water it can retain

b)

Particle size

c)

Soil color

d)

Soil mass

5.
What type of soil would be best for a man-made pond, where the goal is to have as little leakage of water as possible?
a)
mostly clay
b)
mostly silt
c)
mostly sand
d)
equal amounts of clay, silt, and sand
6.

What is made up of equal parts of clay, sand, and silt is called

a)

foam

b)

loam

c)

soil

d)

sand

7.

Which particle is the most porous and allows for the most water to travel between them?

a)

silt

b)

sand

c)

clay

d)

loam

8.

Which of the following is not a primary nutrient required for plant growth?

a)

Calcium

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Potassium

d)

Nitrogen

9.

· What do the three numbers found on a fertilizer label represent?

a)

Guaranteed analysis; percentage of Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium found in the bag

b)

Guaranteed analysis; percentage of Calcium, Phosphorus, Potassium found in the bag

c)

Guaranteed analysis; percentage of Nitrogen, Potassium, Phosphorus found in the bag

d)

Guaranteed analysis; percentage of Iron, Manganese, Potassium found in the bag

10.

When you hear the word "potash", what element does it refer to?

a)

Phosphorus

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Potassium

d)

Iron

11.

A soil analysis shows that there is 3% sand, 30% silt and 40% clay; what can you add to the soil after it's tilled to help it hold water in the most efficient way?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Potash

12.

Which of the following can be controlled to help an organism thrive?

a)

Light

b)

pH

c)

Temperature

d)

Soil texture

e)

Moisture

13.

A plant is struggling in an acidic soil, what can you do to help it out?

a)

Increase the pH

b)

Decrease the pH

c)

Add sand to the soil

d)

Increase Nitrogen

14.

Understanding soil texture is important for what requirement of life?

a)

Water

b)

Energy

c)

Nutrients

d)

Respiration

15.

Understanding the NPK analysis of soil is important for what requirement of life?

a)

Water

b)

Energy

c)

Nutrients

d)

Phosphorus

16.

You discover that the soil is very hard to work with and is nearly as hard as a brick in the summer; this implies that is has to much of what soil particle?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Biomass

17.

What form of energy is likely to have helped produce the earliest life forms?

a)

Solar (Sunlight)

b)

Nuclear (Radioactive)

c)

Geothermal (Volcanic)

d)

Wind (Mechanical)

18.

The earliest life forms were able to undergo photosynthesis.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

If you eat a cheeseburger, the energy you get ultimately comes from what source?

a)

The cow

b)

The cheese

c)

The sun

d)

The earth

20.

Soil contains nutrients for life, all types of life, but you don't want mold which prefers soil that stays wet for long periods of time. When growing indoor plants, what can you add to soil to promote better drainage?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Sun

21.
Which layer of the earth is completely Liquid?
a)
Crust
b)
Mantle
c)
Outer Core
d)
Inner Core
22.
This layer of Earth is solid Iron and Nickel
a)
Outer Core
b)
Mantle
c)
Inner Core
d)
Crust
23.

What is the name of layer Q?

a)

lithosphere

b)

inner core

c)

outer core

d)

asthenosphere

e)

mesosphere

24.

How have scientists been able to infer the internal structure of Earth without being able to directly observe inside the Earth?

a)

Scientists analyze how earthquake waves move throught Earth's interior.

b)

Scientists use satellite radar and sonar technologies to map Earth's internal layers.

c)

Scientists make educated guesses about Earth's internal structure based on previous hypothesis.

d)

Scientists study different types of rocks from many different locations on Earth's surface.

25.

Earth is like a giant magnet due to....

a)

its liquid iron core

b)

the wind patterns of Coriolis Effect

c)

the alignment of the continents

d)

solar particles moving through the atmosphere

26.

A combination of Earth's rotation and the outer core rotating around the inner core, a force field is created. This called the ________________ effect.

a)

dynamo

b)

pangaea

c)

continental drift

d)

winter solstice

27.
What are among the earliest life-forms on Earth?
a)
cyanobacteria
b)
mold
c)
bears
d)
sponges
28.

The Earth's magnetic field is created by convection currents in what inner layer?

a)

Mantle

b)

Inner Core

c)

Outer Core

d)

Asthenoshpere

e)

C

29.

Which of the following are a result Earth's magnetic field?

a)

Aurora Borealis

b)

Protects us from solar radiation

c)

Keeps our atmosphere in

d)

The movement of wind

30.

Why is the inner core solid?

a)

Heat

b)

Pressure

c)

Magnetism

d)

Gravity

31.

What property of matter causes differentiation.

a)

Boiling Point

b)

Density

c)

Mass

d)

Volume

32.

Which of the following are part of the mechanical layers of the Earth.

a)

Mantle

b)

Crust

c)

Lithosphere

d)

Asthenosphere

33.

What elements make up the majority of the Earth's crust?

a)

Silicon 

b)

Oxygen

c)

Iron

d)

Nickel

34.

Cyanobacteria uses what chemical reaction to convert sunlight into glucose?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Respiration

c)

Metabolism

d)

Kreb's Cycle

35.

About how long after Earth's formation did it take for life to form?

a)

0.5 BY

b)

1 BY

c)

2 BY

d)

3 BY

e)

4 BY

36.

About how long after Earth's formation did it take for Oxygen producing life to form?

a)

0.5 BY

b)

1 BY

c)

2 BY

d)

3 BY

e)

4 BY

37.

About how long after Earth's formation did it take for Multi-cellular life (other than colonies of cyanobacteria) to form?

a)

0.5 BY

b)

1 BY

c)

2 BY

d)

3 BY

e)

4 BY

38.
How old is our solar system?
a)
4.6 billion years
b)
13.8 billion years
c)
6,000 years
d)
15,000 years
39.

A celestial cloud of dust and gas which may one day form a new star is called a(n):

a)

nebula

b)

supernova

c)

accretion disc

d)

bombardment

40.

This is a massive explosion of a high mass star.

a)

supernova

b)

nebula

c)

pulsar

d)

black hole

41.
Smaller particles collecting together into larger and larger objects is called . . .
a)
accretion
b)
contraction
c)
explosion
d)
rotation
42.
Why is Mercury covered with craters, but Earth is not?
a)
Earth's atmosphere protects and weathers
b)
Earth's moon blocks asteroids
c)
asteroids just missed Earth
d)
most asteroids land in Earth's oceans
43.

What is the main fuel for a star's energy?

a)

The fusion of hydrogen atoms into helium

b)

The gravitational pull on the planets

c)

Solar wind

d)

The nebulae

44.

What process created the plantesimals (the young version of our planets)?

a)

Accretion of particles left over from the sun forming

b)

Gravitational pull between the sun and the planets

c)

The solar wind that blew dust to the outer edge of the solar system

d)

Nuclear fusion

45.

This force is responsible for the accretion of particles being forced together into larger and larger objects

a)

strong force

b)

weak force

c)

gravity

d)

electrostatic force

46.

What do the outer planets have in common?

a)

They are much larger than Earth and are made mainly of Hydrogen and Helium

b)

The are about the same size as Earth and are mostly made of Hydrogen and Helium

c)

They are must larger than Earth and are mainly made of iron

d)

They are the same size as Earth and are mainly made of iron

47.

What are the terrestrial planets primarily made of?

a)

gases and ice

b)

rock and ice

c)

gases and rock

d)

rock

48.
The first four outer planets from the sun out are:
a)
Jupiter, Saturn, Pluto, Neptune
b)
Pluto, Neptune, Uranus, Saturn, Jupiter
c)
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
d)
Neptune, Uranus, Saturn, Jupiter
49.

What forms in the very center of the protoplanetary or accretionary disk?

a)

A protostar

b)

A planet

c)

A protoplanet

d)

A planetesimal

50.

Temperatures and pressures are so high that hydrogen atoms are forced together to make helium. What is this process?

a)

Nuclear fission

b)

Rotation

c)

Nuclear fusion

d)

Gravity

51.
Which of the following is NOT a final stage of a star. 
a)
black hole
b)
black dwarf
c)
neutron star
d)
red giant
52.

A star can grow bigger and bigger creating elements until it climbs up the periodic table to _____.

a)

silicon

b)

oxygen

c)

hydrogen

d)

iron

53.

What are the building blocks of matter?

(a)  

54.

What is the most abundant element in the universe?

(a)  

55.

What is on the surface of Earth around 4.4 BYA?

(a)  

56.

What one word best describes how Earth divided into 3 main layers.

(a)  

57.

About how long did it take for life to form after the formation of the Earth?

a)

4.6 BYA

b)

4.4 BYA

c)

4.0 BYA

d)

4.0 MYA

58.

Which layer of the Earth is responsible for our magnetic field?

(a)  

59.

What is responsible for water on the surface of planet Earth?

a)

Comets

b)

Asteroids

c)

Plate Tectonics

d)

The magnetic field

60.

What do we call the line that separates the 4 terrestrial planets from the 4 gas giants?

(a)  

61.

What property of water is responsible for our rivers, lakes, and oceans

a)

Polarity

b)

Cohesion

c)

Adhesion

d)

Surface Tension

62.

What do we call the process of water dissolving the minerals in rocks?

(a)  

63.

What has to happen to a star in order for it to fuse elements beyond iron?

(a)  

64.

Which of the following are in the nucleus of an atom?

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

Mitochondria

65.

Which is the only part of the atom that interacts with other atoms, creating bonds, ions, magnetic fields, and electricity?

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

Mitochondria

66.

Mars is the ________ planet from the sun.

a)

5th

b)

4th

c)

3rd

d)

9th

67.
Astronomers are convinced that liquid water was present on Mars in the past because
a)
huge subsurface deposits of ice have been seen with X-ray telescopes.
b)
during each martian summer large lakes are observed as the polar cap melts.
c)
 there is a huge amount of water vapor in martian clouds.
d)
the surface has water-cut channels on it.
68.

Liquid water on mars isn't possible today due to a lack of atmosphere.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

The atmosphere on Mars can't support liquid water because of the lack of a magnetic field.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Which of the following can an an organism live without.

a)

Water

b)

Minerals

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sunlight

e)

Energy

71.

Which of the following units provides the best measure for the amount of space that matter occupies (volume)?

a)

mL

b)

grams

c)

cm3

d)

Both mL and cm3

72.

Density =

a)

Mass x Volume

b)

Volume x Mass

c)

Mass / Volume

d)

Volume / Mass

73.
What is the density of water?
a)
1 mL
b)
1 gram
c)
1 g/cm3
d)
All of the above
74.

When a metal mailbox is rusting because of the weather, the rust is an example of

a)

a physical change

b)

a chemical change

c)

magnetism

d)

texture

75.

When a hammer breaks a large rock into smaller pieces, the broken rock is an example of

a)

a physical change

b)

a chemical change

c)

solubility

d)

density

76.

Properties of matter that can be measured or observed without changing the basic nature of the matter.

a)

Chemical properties

b)

property

c)

matter

d)

Physical properties

77.

A property of matter that can only be observed by changing the basic nature of the matter (e.g. combustibility)

a)

physical property

b)

physical change

c)

chemical change

d)

chemical property

78.
Where are electrons of an atom found?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Electron Cloud
c)
Some are in the nucleus and some in the electron cloud.
d)
They are moving everywhere.
79.
Which of the following is a positively charged subatomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Electron
b)
Proton
c)
Neutron
d)
Quark
80.
What carries no charge 
a)
Neutrons
b)
Electrons
c)
Protons
81.

Which is the smallest particle of an atom?

a)

electron

b)

proton

c)

atom

d)

neutron

82.
The negatively charged particles of an atom are the ______.
a)
electrons
b)
protons
c)
neutrons
d)
protons & neutrons
83.
Which two particles make up the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Protons and Electrons
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Molecules and Compounds
d)
Neutrons and Electrons
84.

What is the atomic number?

a)

35

b)

18

c)

17

d)

52

85.
Which is an electron?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
86.

After mixing two substances you notice some bubbling has occurred. What can you infer about this interaction?

a)

It's a chemical reaction

b)

It's a physical reaction

c)

It's a magical reaction

d)

It's a physical change

87.

When moving a metal bar next to some iron shavings you notice that the iron shavings stick to the metal bar. This is an example of what property of matter?

a)

Magnetism

b)

Electricity

c)

Chemical Reaction

d)

Plasma

88.

Electricity was summarized in class by the _________ of electrons.

a)

Flow

b)

Waves

c)

Particles

d)

Field

89.

Light, electricity and magnetism are all part of the electromagnetic spectrum.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Which of the following statements is an observation. (Checkboxes mean there may be more than 1 correct answer)

a)

The light got brighter

b)

The light is powered by electricity

c)

The electrons are flowing through the light bulb.

d)

The light got dimmer

91.
At one point in time, many people thought disease was caused by fate or by incorrect behavior. Following the invention of the microscope, bacteria were discovered. After this, a new theory of what causes disease arose that was known as the germ theory.  Why was the original theory modified? 
a)
It quickly became obvious that germs cause disease.
b)
The person who invented the microscope became ill.
c)
New evidence prompted revision to the original ideas.
d)
The proponents of the germ theory had political power.
92.
Joe tells Mai his theory about why sea turtles nest on the beach instead of in the ocean. He says, “The turtle eggs would sink to the bottom of the ocean, and the baby turtles would drown.” Joe says his uncle is a fisherman, who told Joe this information. Mai tells Joe that his theory is not scientific. Which explanation supports Mai’s evaluation of Joe’s theory?
a)
Joe’s idea is already a scientific law. 
b)
Joe’s idea is not supported by scientific evidence. 
c)
Joe’s idea is a good guess that can be tested by experiments. 
d)
Joe’s idea accurately explains why sea turtles nest on the beach. 
93.
Scientists discuss and debate experimental results and possible explanations in studying phenomena. Which best explains why scientists debate while searching for explanations?
a)
because debating helps scientists focus on empirical evidence, analyzing both the strengths and weaknesses of the evidence
b)
because debating helps the scientific community to present interesting and exciting science to the public
c)
because debating gives scientists an opportunity to express their feelings and opinions about the subject
d)
because every scientist wants to find an accurate explanation and disprove others’ explanations
94.
Unprotected exposure to the sun’s rays is a factor in the development of skin cancer. Which   of the following is an example of empirical evidence that supports this hypothesis?
a)
a model of a skin cell showing where DNA is in the cell
b)
a skin cancer survivor’s recollection that he had a bad sunburn as a child
c)
data demonstrating a relationship between amount of sun exposure and incidences of skin cancer
d)
an advertisement for a sun block product that claims it protects skin for ultraviolet rays
95.
Which explanation best describes why theories can change?
a)
Scientists like to make kids learn new things
b)
Textbooks need to be updated
c)
More money is needed for research
d)
Scientists are always learning new things.
96.

When trying to get accurate information it is best to...

a)

Use multiple credible sources

b)

Use one single, credible source

c)

Use as many sources as possible, even if they are unreliable

d)

Not use any sources

97.

Which of the following are good steps to take when you encounter something online that you’re unsure about:

a)

Do a quick web search to see if other credible sources of information are reporting the same thing

b)

Assume that if your info is posted online, it had to be well-checked so it's credible

c)

If there are photos, it's automatically more authentic news

d)

Post the story on social media and crowdsource an opinion

98.
Where do most teens get their news from?
a)
Newspapers
b)
TV
c)
Parents or family
d)
Social Media
99.
Why is fake news a problem?
a)
The public is getting misinformation
b)
Most people who see fake news believe it's actual news
c)
Fake news often looks like real news
d)
all of the above
100.

Which of the following are ways to be sure that you should do to best choose your news?

a)

only trust .com URLs

b)

give it time- wait to see how a story develops

c)

only get news from sources where you know the media bias

d)

check other social media accounts

101.

If the speaker is a celebrity, you can believe what they are saying is valid and true.

a)

true

b)

false

102.

In the Dark Ages, how were books produced?

a)

Books were not produced in the dark ages.

b)

Books were carved into stone tablets.

c)

Books were copied by hand by people known as monks.

d)

Books were copied by hand by women who were imprisoned.

103.

The Gutenberg printing press truly changed the world. Which answer best summarizes how the invention of the printing press leads to world change?

a)

The Gutenberg printing press allows schools to begin teaching reading.

b)

The Gutenberg printing press allows for the development of an alphabet. Before the printing press, people only wrote in hieroglyphs.

c)

The Gutenberg printing press allowed for mass production of books, leading to an explosion of ideas being shared.

d)

The Gutenberg press was used to mass-produce the bible, which led to an expansion of religious ideas.

104.

Beyond the Gutenberg printing press, there were four major revolutions in communication. The development of the Gutenberg press was the first major revolution, what is the last?

a)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of TV.

b)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of t cellular phones in the 1980s.

c)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of social media and electronic technology for idea-sharing.

d)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of live radio broadcasting.

105.
You should be skeptical of media.  Skeptical means
a)
doubtful
b)
daring
c)
deceiving
d)
delighted
106.
Which phrase MOST accurately describes the relationship between bias and media? 
a)
If a piece of media is biased, it has no value
b)
bias can be avoided easily
c)
biased media is more interesting
d)
all media has a bias
107.
Thinking that does not blindly accept arguments and conclusions. Rather, it examines assumptions, discerns hidden values, evaluates evidence, and assesses conclusions.
a)
Absolute Thinking 
b)
Genius Thinking 
c)
Critical Thinking 
d)
Awesome Thinking 
108.
The pH scale is a range from:
a)
1-7
b)
0-14
c)
1-5
d)
1-20
109.
A(n) ______ is a substance with a pH less than 7
a)
Acid
b)
Alkaline
c)
Base
d)
Buffer
110.
A(n) _______ is a substance with a pH greater than 7.
a)
Base
b)
Acid
c)
Buffer
d)
Water
111.

A base is a substance

a)

That releases OH- ions when dissolved in water

b)

That releases H+ ions when dissolved in water

c)

Does not release any ions when dissolved in water

d)

None of the above

112.

An acid

a)

is a substance that releases H+ ions when dissolved in water

b)

is a substance that does not release any ions when dissolved in water

c)

is a substance that releases OH- when dissolved in water

d)

releases an equal amount of OH- and H+ ions when dissolved in water

113.

Water has a neutral pH because

a)

it has more H+ ions than OH-

b)

it has more OH- ions than H+

c)

it does not produce any ions

d)

it has an equal amount of H+ and OH- in solution

114.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if H ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
115.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if OH ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
116.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if OH ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
117.

Bright Red pH indicator indicates that the solution is a(n)

a)

Base

b)

Acid

118.

Dark blue pH indicator indicates that the solution is a(n)

a)

Base

b)

Acid

119.
A  pH and a pOH will add up to:
a)
0
b)
7
c)
14
d)
1.0 x 10-14
120.

If a solution has a hydroxide (OH-) ion concentration of 6 what is the Hydronium (H+) concentration?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

121.

If a solution has a hydroxide (OH-) ion concentration of 6 what is the pH?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

122.

According to the video, H+ and H3O+ are symbols essentially representing the same idea.

a)

True

b)

False

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