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Exam 3 Pharmacotherapy

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 3hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When should you recommend an alternate contraceptive than a COC in a patient with migraines?

a)

Migraine with aura

b)

Migraine without aura

c)

Both

d)

Neither

2.

Select all of the following that could be acceptable interventions for migraine patients:

a)

Yoga or regular physical activity

b)

Use of fexofenadine or loratadine instead of pseudoephedrine for allergies

c)

Switching B-A-C to a single-agent NSAID or Tylenol

d)

Switching nifedipine po to diltiazem or verapamil if possible

3.

When are opiates indicated for migraine management?

a)

Severe pain not requiring emergency admission

b)

Severe pain requiring emergency admission and IV administration

c)

Low dose maintenance for prevention

d)

Never

4.

Which of the following could be considered a rescue medication option for migraines in the following cases?

a)

Supplemental oxygen

b)

Intranasal dihydroergotamine (DHE) in a hyperglycemic diabetic patient admitted for pneumonia

c)

Naratriptan dosed 2 hours ago without symptom resolve

d)

Sumatriptan for a patient with a 10/10 migraine related to cocaine use and beta blocker noncompliance

5.

Which of the following is an unsuitable or incorrect case?

a)

Onset of migraine treated with eletriptan in a patient receiving ketoconazole IV for Mucormycosis

b)

Patient complains of migraine unresolved by a single dose of sumatriptan 2 hrs ago. NP recommends re-dosing sumatriptan

c)

Zolmitriptan co-treated with prochlorperazine

d)

Lasmiditan given to a tachycardic bacteremia patient

6.

A patient is receiving a new prescription for Naratriptan. Which of the following are acceptable counseling points?

a)

You can repeat the dose in 4 hours if not resolved.

b)

You may experience nausea and dizziness. If it becomes a problem, we can ask your PCP for some chlorperazine.

c)

Try not to take illicit substances with this medication.

d)

Rizatriptan and propranolol can be initiated at normal doses

7.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

a)

Frovatriptan is the longest half life -triptan

b)

-triptans utilize serotonin 1B and 1D agonism for antimigraine effects

c)

-triptans are generally safe to use in pregnancy

d)

Asymptomatic blood pressure of 142/82 is not a reason to avoid -triptans

8.

Which of the following patients are a candidate for intranasal sumatriptan or DHE?

a)

Patient complaining of a 9/10 migraine not resolved by at-home Tylenol #3

b)

Patient admitted 3 days ago for cerebral infarction currently doing well (exc. migraine of course)

c)

Patient closely monitored for unstable angina and suspected IHD

d)

Patient presenting with bp 183/99 following antihypertensive noncompliance

9.

In which of the following patients would insurance possibly cover a -gepant or lasmiditan?

a)

Patient is pregnant, therefore C/I both -triptans and ergot alkaloids

b)

Patient has tried SQ sumatriptan for several months without resolve

c)

Patient is taking rizatriptan and propranolol concomittantly, warranting a lower initial dose

d)

Patient requires low dose chlorperazine to handle Zolmitriptan nausea

10.

A patron enters your pharmacy curious about their new lasamiditan prescription. Which of the following could be possible counseling points?

a)

Make sure you have a replacement driver while taking this medication.

b)

You may experience a serious condition called Serotonin Syndrome that may involve agitation and restlessness.

c)

You'll be able to repeat a dose after 2 hours if your symptoms have not resolved.

d)

You may do well to reduce your alcohol intake and OTC melatonin until you know how this medication affects you.

11.

Which of the migraine treatments are Schedule V?

a)

Ubrogepant (Ubrelvy)

b)

Lasmiditan

c)

Rimegepant (Nurtec)

d)

Dihydroergotamine

12.

Which of the following are true regarding lasmiditan?

a)

No need to renally adjust or avoid.

b)

Avoid in severe hepatic dysfunction

c)

Avoid caffeine use and CNS stimulants

d)

May have interactions with CNS depressants and P-GP substrates like oxycodone and doxylamine

13.

Which of the following medications are repeatable for migraine treatment?

a)

Naratriptan after 2 hours

b)

Rimegepant po after 3 hours

c)

Lasmiditan po

d)

Ubrogepant SQ

14.

Which of the -gepants could potentially be used at adjusted doses for severe renal or hepatic failure?

a)

Ubrogepant

b)

Rimegepant

15.

A patient is precribed Rimegepant. Which of the following are 3A4 inhibitors that could pose a problem?

a)

Clarithromycin and Ketoconazole

b)

Various antivirals

c)

Amiodarone and Verapamil

d)

Cimetidine

16.

A patient is experiencing 1-8 migraines per month and has failed both a triptan and dihydroergotamine. What do you recommend?

a)

Retry DHE

b)

Botox 31 inj every month

c)

Ubrogepant

d)

Valium

17.

You have a patient experiencing 9-18 migraines per month and has severe HTN preventing them from using -triptans and DHE. What do you recommend?

a)

IV DHE and triple their antihypertensive doses

b)

Ask if they're lying

c)

Tylenol and Aspirin

d)

Rimegepant

18.

What is an option for non-oral route migraines?

a)

Ketorolac IM or IN

b)

Give them oral sumatriptan anyway

c)

Apply fentanyl patch directly to the shaved scalp

d)

Transdermal Voltaren gel

19.

How long should a valid trial of an antimigraine medication last?

a)

Therapeutic dose for 8 weeks

b)

6-12 months after a partial response

c)

3-6 months after a CGRP targeting MAb

20.

Which of the following are compelling indications for beta blocker migraine treatment?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Anxiety

c)

Chronic insomnia

d)

COPD

21.

Topiramate has which of the following considerations for migraine therapy:

a)

Tapered up and then down at d/c

b)

Alright for pregnancy

c)

C/I sumatriptan

d)

Resolves kidney stones

22.

A patient with migraines, depression, and peripheral neuropathy is looking for a new migraine med. What is a reasonable choice?

a)

Botox

b)

Amitriptyline or Venlafaxine

c)

Propranolol or Inderal

d)

Erenumab

23.

A woman comes in complaining of head pain after using a butalbital product for the past 5 days. What do you diagnose her with?

a)

Serotonin Syndrome

b)

Medication Overuse Tension HA

c)

Stroke

d)

Cluster headache

24.

What is the preferred prevention medication for frequent tension headaches?

a)

Sumatriptan

b)

Gabapentin

c)

Local baclofen injections

d)

Amitriptyline

25.

A young man enters your ED complaining of intense debilitating pain behind an eye. What do you diagnose and treat them with?

a)

Cluster headache - Oxygen

b)

Tension headache - immediate botox

c)

Cluster headache - STAT lithium

d)

Migraine - valium

26.

Your ED is on oxygen shortage and you have a patient with cluster headache. How do you treat them?

a)

Galcanezumab

b)

Erenumab

c)

Sodium phosphate IV

d)

SQ Sumatriptan

27.

What best describes chronic pain?

a)

Likely to be IV treatment

b)

Start with high dose opiates

c)

Possible causes depression and anxiety

d)

Ketorolac can be used for a week max

28.

What's an acceptable first line for acute pain?

a)

Low dose methadone

b)

Trolamine salicylate lotion applied to stitches

c)

Ketorolac co-administered with pantoprazole

d)

Tylenol for inflammation causing pain

29.

In which of the following situations would Celecoxib be preferable over Ketorolac?

a)

Patient is at slightly increased risk of GI bleed

b)

Recently post-operative patients

c)

Renal failure requiring CRRT

d)

Chart shows recent digoxin toxicity

30.

Onset of po opioids?

a)

5-15 min

b)

~30 min

c)

8-24 hrs

d)

Couple of days

31.

Onset of parenteral opioids?

a)

5-15 min

b)

~30 min

c)

2-4 hrs

d)

5-15 hrs

32.

Major considerations of morphine do not include:

a)

Hepatic metabolism alters dosing in some patients

b)

Expensive

c)

Dose stacking and histamine release could complicate some patients

d)

Toxic CNS metabolite accumulates in renal dysfunction

33.

Which of the following situations could be a poor reason to choose codeine?

a)

Primarily presenting with pain

b)

Hepatic dysfunction disallows metabolism to morphine

c)

GI bleed exacerbation

d)

Sedated patient needing dexmedetomidine

34.

Which opioid analgesic is preferred but not DOC in renal or hepatic dysfunction?

a)

Oxymorphone

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Oxycodone

d)

Codeine

35.

What opioid analgesic should be first line for those with renal and/or hepatic dysfunction but has never received an opioid before?

a)

Oxycodone

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Morphine

d)

Codeine

36.

What is the multidimensional pain assessment?

a)

Wong-Baker Scale

b)

Brief Pain Inventory

c)

Codeine

d)

Visual analogue

37.

What may be a good idea for escalating analgesic therapy?

a)

Adding methadone to Tylenol for unresolved moderate pain

b)

Prescribing hydrocodone-APAP for a patient experiencing debilitating back pain

c)

Prescribing fentanyl patches to a patient taking 60 MME once a month

d)

Giving methadone to a patient with a new fracture currently on oxycodone

38.

What is the incorrectly matched consideration for acute pain:

a)

Methadone - delayed respiratory depression

b)

Methadone - increased duration as therapy length increases

c)

Tramadol - increased seizure threshold

d)

Codeine - poor pain effect

39.

What opioid agonist-antagonist can have complicated dosage forms depending on indication?

a)

Butorphanol

b)

Buprenorphine

c)

Morphine

d)

Enoxaparin

40.

When may Tylenol be preferred over an NSAID?

a)

AKI or dehydration

b)

Inflammation dominant pain

c)

Opioid tolerant

d)

Previous use of buprenorphine

41.

In which of the following patients may Codeine be the best option?

a)

Patient experiencing nerve irritation causing frequent coughing/hiccuping and 6/10 pain

b)

Patient in step-down unit recovering from previous open heart surgery

c)

Trauma consult following motor vehicle collision

d)

Migraine patient experiencing 9-18 migraines per month

42.

Select all of the following that could be good options for anesthesia:

a)

Remifentanil

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Alfentanil

d)

Meperidine

43.

What is the reason for avoiding meperidine in the elderly, renal dysfunction, and long term therapy?

a)

Accumulation of a CNS toxin

b)

Blood dyscrasias

c)

Severe peripheral neuropathy

d)

Exacerbation of rigors

44.

What opioid is good for abuse management but causes QTc prolongation?

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Buprenorphine

c)

Methadone

d)

Alfentanil

45.

Definition of opioid naive?

a)

>60 MME/d up to a week

b)

<60 MME/d up to a week

c)

Satifactory pain relief on one opioid

d)

Taking a hydrocodone combo product or codeine

46.

A patient returns to your pain clinic after mild improvement but desires more pain relief according to the plan discussed with another PCP. What do you recommend?

a)

Increasing dose by 1.5-2x

b)

Repeat dose when appropriate

c)

Use same dose prn

47.

A patient returns to your pain clinic after mild improvement but desires more pain relief according to the plan discussed with another PCP. What do you recommend?

a)

Increasing dose by 1.5-2x

b)

Repeat dose when appropriate

c)

Use same dose prn

48.

A patient returns to your pain clinic after an appropriate opioid trial not giving relief. What do you recommend?

a)

Increasing dose by 1.5-2x

b)

Repeat dose when appropriate

c)

Use same dose prn

49.

(Select multiple) What is cross tolerance and when should it be considered for switching opioids?

a)

Severe pain medications targeting different opioid receptors

b)

Dose reduction 10-15%

c)

The concern of a patient being underdosed on a new opioid

d)

Dose reduction 25-50%

50.

95% of opioid users experience constipation. Which of the following options would be best for a new patient?

a)

PEG or docusate

b)

Meperidine

c)

Senna or bisacodyl

d)

MgOH or sorbitol

51.

In which of the following situations would morphine be preferred?

a)

Advanced COPD air hunger

b)

Renal dysfunction

c)

Child-Pugh C

d)

Artificial ventilation

52.

When calculating a new around the clock severe pain regimen, how much of the total daily dose should be used for low dose IR prn?

a)

10-15%

b)

25-50%

c)

150-200%

d)

None, you should use ER

53.

In opioid PCAs, how much of the basal rate is used for demand doses?

a)

15-20%

b)

25-30%

c)

50%

d)

200%

54.

What is the major consideration for gabapentinoid-opioid synergy?

a)

Increased seizure risk

b)

Reduced need for renal adjustment

c)

Increased CNS/respiratory depression

d)

Decreased reduction of pain score

55.

Best candidate for topical capsaicin?

a)

Severe but conscious total body burn patient admitted to the ICU

b)

Elderly outpatient recovering from a non-open fracture

c)

Young teen developing rapid MS with an ocular focus

d)

Mid-20s male presenting to the ED with a cluster headache and remarkably high substance P

56.

Which product requires a drug-free period?

a)

Fentanyl patches

b)

Trolamine salicylate cream

c)

Capsaicin cream

d)

Lidocaine patches

57.

What pain adjunct is noted as being great for cancer and bone pain?

a)

Corticosteroids

b)

Gabapentin

c)

Lidocaine patches

d)

Topiramate

58.

How frequently should a chronic pain plan be reviewed?

a)

Initially within 1-4 wks

b)

At least every 3 months

c)

Every other year

d)

Only when the patient calls you

59.

To which of the following should naloxone be offered?

a)

>50 MME/d

b)

Concurrent benzodiazepine

c)

Patients being given fentanyl for analgesia

d)

Previous overdose or substance use disorder

60.

How long could a patient be given acute care opioids (disregarding exceptions) in the state of SC?

a)

7 days

b)

31 days

c)

3 months

d)

How long the insurance approves

61.

Which of the following are possible indications for opioid urine drug monitoring?

a)

Expected patient pharmacokinetic issues

b)

Tracking adherence

c)

Reliable detection of synthetic opioids

d)

Tracking prn opioid dosing over the past 15 days

62.

What is an early sign of respiratory depression in methadone users?

a)

Increased seizure frequency

b)

Increased use of prn opioids

c)

Sedation

d)

Agitation and restlessness

63.

Which of the following are xanthine oxidase inhibitors?

a)

Probenecid

b)

febuxostat

c)

Pegloticase

d)

Allopurinol

64.

Which of the following are uricosurics?

a)

Allopurinol

b)

Febuxostat

c)

Pegloticase

d)

Probenecid

65.

When should an acute gout flare patient receive NSAIDs and steroids for attack management?

a)

If the NSAID is topical

b)

If using intra-articular steroids

c)

If the attack is severe

d)

Never

66.

A patient experiencing a moderate gout attack enters your ED. What do you recommend?

a)

Colchicine 1.2 mg now and 0.6 mg in an hour

b)

Naproxen tablets

c)

Anakinra

d)

Febuxostat

67.

You get a call for an ID patient with a severe gout attack. The patient is on fluconazole and has potentially severe kidney disease. What do you recommend?

a)

Colchicine 1.2 mg now and 0.6 mg in an hour

b)

Voltaren gel

c)

Indomethacin + methylprednisolone dual therapy

d)

Indomethacin IV

68.

(Multiple right answers) You're having a diabetes foot exam with an active infection. The patient begins to have a gout attack. What do you recommend?

a)

Colchicine 1.2 mg now and 0.6 mg in an hour

b)

Indomethacin tablets

c)

Naproxen tablets

d)

Dexamethasone

69.

Which of the following are true regarding gout prophylaxis?

a)

Colchicine 0.6 mg with/without low dose NSAIDs

b)

Lasts for 3 months minimum

c)

Colchicine initiated 12 hours after previous dose during acute attack

d)

Could include allopurinol + pegloticase

70.

Following up with a previous gout patient after their third annual attack and a uric acid of 6.1. They're on colchicine+NSAID prophylaxis and have no comorbidities. What do you recommend?

a)

Nothing, they're on prophylaxis

b)

Add on methylprednisolone low dose

c)

Allopurinol 100 mg qd

d)

Pegloticase

71.

A consult with cardiology is asking for a recommendation on a heart valve replacement patient needing ULT. They're currently on warfarin. What do you recommend?

a)

Colchicine 1.2 mg now and 0.6 mg in an hour

b)

Allopurinol but monitor INR closely

c)

Probenecid initiated at half dose and titrated up

d)

They are not a candidate for ULT due to heart valve replacement

72.

Which of the following is a risk indicator for hypersensitivity to allopurinol?

a)

HLA-B*58:01

b)

G6PD

c)

Concomitant warfarin

d)

CYP2D6 poor metabolizer

73.

A physician asks you to review a medication choice. Previous MI patient needing ULT fails allopurinol due to hypersensitivity. The physician chose febuxostat. What do you say?

a)

This patient is a good candidate for febuxostat

b)

Febuxostat can't be initiated due to cardiovascular death risk

c)

Febuxostat requires a dose decrease of half for MI patients

d)

Get out of this hospital

74.

(Multiple answers) When would Probenecid be a good option for ULT?

a)

Renal-competent patient not fully controlled on allopurinol or febuxosstat

b)

Frequently dehydrated patient

c)

A patient able to manage pain on non-salicylate NSAIDS

d)

A patient with hemolytic anemia and G6PD deficiency

75.

A patient in your clinic has failed both XO and both uricosuric ULTs. Which of the following will likely be prescribed?

a)

Allopurinol

b)

Pegloticase

c)

Sulfinpyrazone

d)

Colchicine

76.

Which of the following can be used while on pegloticase?

a)

None

b)

Allopurinol

c)

Febuxostat

d)

Probenecid

e)

Sulfinpyrazone

77.

(Multiple answers) Which of the following are considerations for pegloticase?

a)

Black Box for severe infusion reactions

b)

Black Box for severe hypersensitivity

c)

Black Box for G6PD deficiency

d)

Gout flares common early in treatment

78.

A patient comes to you asking about treatment for their remarkably mild fibromyalgia. What do you say?

a)

Milnacipran

b)

Aerobic exercise

c)

Pregabalin

d)

Tramadol

79.

What's the mainstay and general 1st line of fibromyalgia treatment?

a)

Amitriptyline

b)

Sulindac

c)

Milnacipran

d)

Cyclobenzaprine

80.

A friend of yours asks for advice regarding their new Rx of amitriptyline for fibromyalgia. What do you tell them?

a)

You'll be started at a low dose taken at bed time

b)

It may take 2 weeks of taking the med for improvement

c)

Stand up slowly (orthostatic hypotension)

d)

You may have some swelling in your feet

81.

A patient is not experiencing fibromyalgia relief after a valid trial of amitriptyline. What do you recommend?

a)

Duloxetine 30 mg

b)

Milnacipran 200 mg

c)

Gabapentin 100 mg

d)

Pregabalin 75 mg BID

82.

Your client has failed both amitriptyline and duloxetine due to excessive orthostatic hypotension and bleed risk. What do you recommend?

a)

Milnacipran

b)

Pregabalin 75 mg BID

c)

Gabepentin 300 mg BID

d)

Tramadol 5 mg QOD

83.

Which of the following drugs would be a cause of gout?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Losartan

c)

Diuretics

d)

Fenofibrate

84.

In which type of migraine is it acceptable to continue COC?

a)

Migraine with aura

b)

Migraine without aura

c)

Both

d)

Neither