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WorksheetsUnit 4 Pretest
Total questions: 134
Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Scientists used the pattern of alternating normal and reversed polarity in rocks to create the geomagnetic
a)
reversal time scale.
b)
time scale.
c)
sea-floor time scale.
d)
normal time scale.
2.
What is an undersea mountain range that forms at a divergent boundary?
a)
a ridge
b)
a rift
c)
a rip
d)
a rent
3.
How does sediment that is closer to a mid-ocean ridge compare to sediment that is farther away?
a)
It is younger.
b)
It is older.
c)
It is larger.
d)
It is smaller.
4.
Magnetic patterns on the ocean floor were puzzling because they
a)
showed alternating bands of normal and reversed polarity.
b)
were not symmetrical.
c)
indicated that all ocean rocks had reversed polarity.
d)
contradicted the idea of sea-floor spreading.
5.
Wegener’s hypothesis of continental drift was finally confirmed by
a)
evidence supporting the idea of sea-floor spreading.
b)
fossils from the same reptile found on two continents.
c)
continental coastlines that fit together.
d)
the formation of mountain ranges such as the Andes.
6.
Tectonic plates can include
a)
both oceanic and continental crust.
b)
only asthenosphere.
c)
only oceanic crust.
d)
only continental crust.
7.
The Pacific Ring of Fire is
a)
a zone of active volcanoes.
b)
a mid-ocean ridge.
c)
a rift valley.
d)
a chain of volcanic islands.
8.
The Himalaya Mountains were formed in a collision at a
a)
convergent boundary.
b)
divergent boundary.
c)
transform boundary.
d)
fracture zone.
9.
An example of a transform boundary is the
a)
San Andreas Fault in California.
b)
Eurasian plate at the Mid-Atlantic Ridge.
c)
Nazca plate on the west coast of South America.
d)
island arc of Japan.
10.
The force exerted by the leading edge of a subducting plate is
a)
slab pull.
b)
convection.
c)
tectonic plate drag.
d)
ridge push.
11.
What often forms when large terranes and continents collide?
a)
major mountain chains
b)
small volcanic islands
c)
cratons
d)
small coral islands
12.
Madagascar has unique species of plants and animals because
a)
continent movements separated populations of organisms.
b)
it became attached to Africa 165 million years ago.
c)
it was part of both Africa and India.
d)
tectonic plate movements melted the global ice sheet.
13.
Modern climates are a result of past movements of
a)
tectonic plates.
b)
populations of organisms.
c)
heat in Earth’s interior.
d)
rain and snow.
14.
North America and Eurasia were formed when a rift separated the continent of
a)
Laurasia.
b)
Pangaea.
c)
Panthalassa.
d)
Gondwanaland.
15.
In 150 million years, where may Los Angeles be relative to San Francisco’s current location?
a)
north of it
b)
south of it
c)
west of it
d)
east of it
16.
According to Wegener, what happened about 200 million years ago?
a)
The supercontinent began breaking into smaller continents.
b)
The South America and Nazca plates collided.
c)
Magma rose to Earth’s surface and solidified.
d)
The continents drifted to their present locations.
17.
Which of the following was NOT a piece of evidence Wegener found to support his hypothesis?
a)
tracks of continents plowing through ocean floor rock
b)
debris from glaciers in southern Africa
c)
identical Mesosaurus fossils in South America and Africa
d)
mountains of similar age in North America and Scotland
18.
The study of paleomagnetism was key in proving Wegener’s hypothesis because
a)
it provided evidence of sea-floor spreading.
b)
it indicated that tropical swamps covered areas that are now cold.
c)
it proved that fossils in Africa and South America were identical.
d)
it showed that mountains were formed by continental drift.
19.
The theory that explains why and how continents move is called
a)
plate tectonics.
b)
continental drift.
c)
paleomagnetism.
d)
sea-floor spreading.
20.
Frequent earthquakes in an area may indicate
a)
tectonic plate boundaries.
b)
mantle convection.
c)
sea-floor spreading.
d)
reversed polarity.
21.
Convection, ridge push, and slab pull work together to produce
a)
tectonic plate motion.
b)
continental lithosphere.
c)
earthquakes.
d)
fracture zones.
22.
A terrane becomes part of a continent in a process called
a)
accretion.
b)
rifting.
c)
converging.
d)
slab pull.
23.
What is one way tectonic plate movement affects climate?
a)
It creates mountains that affect wind patterns.
b)
It keeps ice sheets from melting.
c)
It changes the location of the equator and the poles.
d)
It keeps air temperatures constant.
24.
Panthalassa was
a)
the large ocean that surrounded Pangaea.
b)
the supercontinent that formed before Pangaea.
c)
a body of water cut into the eastern edge of Pangaea.
d)
one of the continents that formed from Pangaea.
25.
The splitting of Pangaea into two continents is part of
a)
the supercontinent cycle.
b)
the process of slab pull.
c)
the process of accretion.
d)
a convection cell.
26.
The most conclusive proof for continental drift was provided by
a)
evidence of sea-floor spreading.
b)
the coastlines of continents on a map.
c)
identical fossils found on two separate continents.
d)
changes in climatic patterns.
27.
To assign ages to sea-floor rocks, scientists used
a)
the geomagnetic reversal time scale.
b)
a mid-ocean ridge chart.
c)
a tectonic plate map.
d)
a supercontinent map.
28.
Tectonic plates are blocks of
a)
lithosphere.
b)
asthenosphere.
c)
magma.
d)
magnetic rock.
29.
At the center of a mid-ocean ridge is a(n)
a)
rift valley.
b)
subduction zone.
c)
fracture zone.
d)
deep-ocean trench.
30.
An example of a divergent boundary is
a)
the sea between the Arabian Peninsula and Africa.
b)
the Chilean trench along the west coast of South America.
c)
the San Andreas Fault in California.
d)
the Himalaya Mountains.
31.
Where do deep-ocean trenches form?
a)
at convergent boundaries
b)
in island arcs
c)
in fracture zones
d)
at transform boundaries
32.
What occurs at a transform boundary?
a)
Two plates slide past each other horizontally.
b)
Oceanic lithosphere collides with continental lithosphere.
c)
Magma rises to the surface and forms a mid-ocean ridge.
d)
Two plates collide and crumple.
33.
Built-up heat from the mantle that weakens lithosphere causes
a)
rifting.
b)
cratons.
c)
atolls.
d)
accretion.
34.
A seamount colliding with a continent and forming a mountain chain on the continent is an example of
a)
accretion.
b)
ridge push.
c)
rifting.
d)
slab pull.
35.
One result of the collision that formed Pangaea was
a)
the Appalachian Mountains.
b)
the South Atlantic Ocean.
c)
the continent of Gondwanaland.
d)
the Himalaya Mountains.
36.
The oldest layer of an anticline fold is located
a)
in the center of the fold.
b)
on an incline.
c)
on the bottom of the fold.
d)
within a syncline.
37.
Isostatic adjustments occur in
a)
the lithosphere.
b)
the ionosphere.
c)
volcanoes.
d)
the atmosphere.
38.
The asthenosphere is
a)
in the mantle.
b)
in the lithosphere.
c)
in the stratosphere.
d)
in the core.
39.
What is isostasy?
a)
gravitational and buoyant equilibrium between the asthenosphere and the lithosphere
b)
gravitational and buoyant incongruity between the asthenosphere and the lithosphere
c)
buoyancy in the asthenosphere overcomes gravity in the lithosphere
d)
gravity and buoyancy cause the atmosphere to rise
40.
Which of the following describes a fracture?
a)
a break in rock where there is no movement of surrounding rock
b)
a break in rock where one block slides relative to another
c)
rock that bends rather than breaks
d)
a break in rock that can not be repaired
41.
Folded mountains form
a)
when continents collide.
b)
when a state of isostasy occurs.
c)
when continents diverge.
d)
after huge earthquakes.
42.
When the oceanic and continental lithospheres collide,
a)
the oceanic plate subducts.
b)
their momentum stops each other.
c)
the continental plate subducts.
d)
they reach isostasy.
43.
What happens when two oceanic plates collide?
a)
The denser plate subducts.
b)
The less dense plate subducts.
c)
The denser plate fractures.
d)
The less dense plate fractures.
44.
What type of mountain forms where blocks of rock drop downward along a series of faults?
a)
fault-block mountains
b)
folded mountains
c)
salt-block mountains
d)
flawed-block mountains
45.
What happens when two continental plates collide?
a)
Large mountains can form.
b)
The plates subduct beneath each other.
c)
Dome mountains are likely to form.
d)
The impact can cause huge earthquakes.
46.
The type of stress that squeezes and shortens a body is
a)
compression.
b)
shear stress.
c)
tension.
d)
deposition.
47.
What is subduction?
a)
one plate goes beneath another
b)
one plate collides with another
c)
one plate divides another
d)
one plate destroys another
48.
What is the term for the amount of force that changes the shape and volume of rock?
a)
stress
b)
strain
c)
compression
d)
hypertension
49.
The same stresses that form folded mountains also form
a)
plateaus.
b)
valleys.
c)
trenches.
d)
grabens.
50.
What type of mountain is most likely to form when plates with edges that have oceanic lithosphere collide?
a)
volcanic mountain
b)
folded mountain
c)
fault-block mountain
d)
dome mountain
51.
A fold where the youngest rock layer is in the center is called a(n)
a)
syncline.
b)
monocline.
c)
anticline.
d)
decline.
52.
What characteristic defines a reverse fault?
a)
The hanging wall moves upward relative to the footwall.
b)
Blocks slide past each other.
c)
Compression thrusts the fault into reverse.
d)
The hanging wall moves downward relative to the footwall.
53.
What force pulls on the lithosphere in an isostatic adjustment?
a)
gravity
b)
buoyancy
c)
magnetism
d)
compression
54.
Materials that respond to stress by bending or deforming without breaking are
a)
ductile.
b)
faulted.
c)
brittle.
d)
isostatic.
55.
Which of these are types of mountains?
a)
fault-block, dome, volcanic, folded
b)
rolling, glacial, subterranean, cascades
c)
salt-block, dome, magnum, frozen
d)
rocky, green, smoky, white
56.
What happens when oceanic and continental plates collide?
a)
Mountains can be created through uplift and volcanic eruptions.
b)
The asthenosphere and the lithosphere are disrupted.
c)
The continental lithosphere subducts beneath the oceanic lithosphere.
d)
Valleys are created by the excessive energy release.
57.
The type of stress that distorts a body by pushing parts of the body in opposite directions is
a)
shear stress.
b)
compression.
c)
tension.
d)
isostacy.
58.
A dome mountain is a mountain formed
a)
by pressure from magma below Earth’s surface that does not erupt.
b)
by the collision of continental plates.
c)
by the eruption of magma from below Earth’s surface.
d)
when faults break off dome-shaped rock blocks.
59.
What force is exerted by the asthenosphere in isostatic adjustment?
a)
buoyancy
b)
gravity
c)
compression
d)
magnetism
60.
What type of fault results when the rock on either side of a fault plane slides horizontally in response to shear stress?
a)
strike-slip
b)
normal
c)
thrust
d)
reverse
61.
The rock below the fault planes is know as the
a)
footwall.
b)
hanging wall.
c)
fracture.
d)
hinge.
62.
How do faults and folds compare?
a)
Faults are breaks in rock where rocks move, and folds are bends in rock.
b)
Faults are bends in rock where rocks move, and folds are breaks in rock.
c)
Faults are breaks in rock where rocks do not move, and folds are bends in rock.
d)
Faults are bends in rock where rocks do not move, and folds are breaks in rock.
63.
A volcanic mountain is formed by
a)
magma eruptions on Earth’s surface.
b)
the uplift of rock during continental plate collisions.
c)
rock layers that are bent and squeezed through magma pressure.
d)
the pressure of magma that does not erupt on the Earth’s surface.
64.
Which of the following are types of mountains?
a)
fault-block, folded, dome, volcanic
b)
faulted, grabens, rocky, green
c)
salt-block, vaulted, glacial, folded
d)
smoky, rolling, domed, volcanic
65.
The sloping sides of a fold are called
a)
limbs.
b)
synclines.
c)
hinges.
d)
axial planes.
66.
The type of stress that stretches and pulls a body apart is
a)
tension.
b)
strain.
c)
compression.
d)
stress.
67.
An area where no direct seismic waves from a particular earthquake can be detected is called
a)
a shadow zone.
b)
an inactive fault zone.
c)
the atmosphere.
d)
the mesosphere.
68.
The composition of Earth’s interior affects
a)
the speed and direction of seismic waves.
b)
how long an earthquake will last.
c)
the location of an earthquake’s focus.
d)
the strength of an earthquake.
69.
What are the fastest body waves?
a)
P waves
b)
T waves
c)
S waves
d)
Q waves
70.
Rayleigh waves cause the ground to move
a)
in an elliptical, rolling motion.
b)
in a horizontal direction.
c)
in a back-and-forth direction.
d)
in a jerky, up-and-down motion.
71.
Earthquakes generally occur at plate boundaries, where
a)
stress on rocks is greatest.
b)
stress on rocks is low.
c)
the most rock is found.
d)
magnetic pull is greatest.
72.
On the modified Mercalli scale, how is intensity XII described?
a)
causes total destruction
b)
felt by only a few people indoors
c)
causes light to moderate damage
d)
causes damage to ordinary buildings
73.
Which scale more accurately measures the magnitude of large earthquakes?
a)
moment magnitude scale
b)
modified Mercalli scale
c)
Mohs scale
d)
Richter scale
74.
A modern seismograph consists of
a)
three sensing devices.
b)
two sensing devices.
c)
four sensing devices.
d)
10 sensing devices.
75.
To find the distance to an earthquake’s epicenter, scientists
a)
analyze the arrival times of the P waves and S waves.
b)
chart the lag time between preshocks and aftershocks.
c)
analyze the arrival times of the Love waves and Rayleigh waves.
d)
use radio wave detection devices.
76.
To locate the epicenter of earthquakes, scientists use computers to
a)
perform triangulations based on data from seismograph stations.
b)
analyze hypotheses and theories.
c)
detect vibrations.
d)
determine magnitude and intensity.
77.
If you are in a car during an earthquake, you should
a)
stop the car in a safe place.
b)
drive toward a bridge.
c)
park near a tall building.
d)
get out and run.
78.
What are food, water, flashlights, and a portable radio needed for?
a)
preparing for earthquakes
b)
measuring surface waves
c)
predicting earthquakes
d)
finding shadow zones
79.
What happens to tsunamis as they move toward shore?
a)
They increase in height.
b)
The decrease in height.
c)
They die out.
d)
They turn into riptides.
80.
If you are indoors during an earthquake, you should
a)
stay away from windows.
b)
get on top of a desk or table.
c)
scream and panic.
d)
get outside fast.
81.
During a major earthquake, buildings
a)
always remain standing.
b)
may sway or collapse.
c)
do not move.
d)
are never damaged.
82.
Which of the following is true of earthquake prediction?
a)
It is unreliable.
b)
Scientists do not attempt it.
c)
It is impossible.
d)
It is not important.
83.
Which method is NOT used to forecast earthquakes?
a)
assessing building damage
b)
detecting changes in rock
c)
recording foreshocks
d)
monitoring natural gas seepage
84.
Which of the following is NOT a cause of tsunamis?
a)
tornado
b)
volcanic eruption
c)
undersea landslide
d)
undersea earthquake
85.
If you are indoors during an earthquake, you should
a)
crouch under a desk.
b)
stand near a window.
c)
get outdoors fast.
d)
stand on top of a desk.
86.
At what location does the first motion of an earthquake occur?
a)
the focus
b)
the mantle
c)
the seismic gap
d)
the epicenter
87.
A foreshock is
a)
a small earthquake.
b)
a major earthquake.
c)
a precursor to a tsunami.
d)
another name for seismic gap.
88.
How does the structure of Earth’s interior affect seismic waves?
a)
It can affect the speed and direction of seismic waves.
b)
It can increase the power of seismic waves exponentially.
c)
It can change seismic waves into dangerous earthquakes.
d)
It can send seismic waves into shadow zones and seismic gaps.
89.
P waves are also known as
a)
compression waves.
b)
secondary waves.
c)
Love waves.
d)
Rayleigh waves.
90.
How do scientists find the epicenter of an earthquake?
a)
by comparing arrival times of P waves and S waves at several seismograph stations
b)
by comparing departure times of P waves and S waves at several seismograph stations
c)
by digging at several locations and comparing data
d)
by reviewing satellite photos of tsunamis
91.
Which of the following are studied to forecast earthquakes?
a)
seismic gaps, foreshocks, rock changes
b)
movements of the planets, bird migration, air temperature
c)
barometric pressure, ocean currents, glacial patterns
d)
animal behavior, environmental changes, weather patterns
92.
Why do earthquakes usually occur at plate boundaries?
a)
Rock in environments near tectonic plate boundaries experience great stress.
b)
The rock on the edges of tectonic plates is soft and gives in easily to various pressures.
c)
The boundaries between tectonic plates have been seismically active for millions of years.
d)
Rock in environments near tectonic plate boundaries experience little stress.
93.
What is the epicenter of an earthquake?
a)
the point on Earth’s surface directly above the earthquake’s focus
b)
the location along a fault where the first motion of an earthquake occurs
c)
a seismic wave that travels along the surface of Earth
d)
the last place that motion in an earthquake is detected
94.
Which of the following can affect how a building responds to seismic waves?
a)
the type of ground beneath the building
b)
the type of electrical system the building has
c)
the type of roof the building has
d)
the type of windows the building has
95.
What is elastic rebound?
a)
the sudden return of deformed rock to its undeformed shape
b)
the sudden return of undeformed rock to its deformed shape
c)
the gradual return of deformed rock to its undeformed shape
d)
the gradual return of undeformed rock to its deformed shape
96.
When seismologists record arrival times of P waves and S waves at several seismograph stations, they are looking for the earthquake’s
a)
epicenter.
b)
magnitude.
c)
focus.
d)
intensity.
97.
S waves are also known as
a)
shear waves.
b)
Love waves.
c)
Rayleigh waves.
d)
compression waves.
98.
What causes tsunamis?
a)
undersea earthquakes, landslides, volcanic eruptions
b)
magnetic pole shifts, seismic gaps, extreme tides during winter
c)
tornadoes, volcanic eruptions, landslides
d)
changes in Earth’s ozone layer, world climate changes, glaciers
99.
Which of the following rules should be followed before and after an earthquake?
a)
be prepared, be cautious
b)
stay cautious, follow instructions
c)
move outdoors, buy supplies
d)
panic, clean up quickly
100.
Through what type of materials do P waves travel fastest?
a)
very rigid, not easily compressed materials
b)
liquids and gases
c)
very rigid, brittle materials
d)
hot lava
101.
What effect does Earth’s interior have on P waves and S waves?
a)
It can affect the speed and direction of the waves.
b)
It can send them into seismic gaps.
c)
It can absorb P waves, but not S waves.
d)
It has virtually no effect, especially on P waves.
102.
Which of the following do scientists study in their efforts to forecast earthquakes?
a)
seismic gaps, rock changes, foreshocks
b)
the solar system, air testing, rock samples
c)
bird migration, animal behavior patterns, human behavior patterns
d)
barometric pressure, rock alignment, prevailing winds
103.
Fault zones form at plate boundaries because
a)
intense stress occurs there when the plates separate, collide, subduct, or slide past each other.
b)
seismic gaps and shadow zones form there.
c)
they have a long geologic history of occurring in the same places.
d)
very little rock stress and strain occur there.
104.
Where does the first motion of an earthquake occur?
a)
focus
b)
fault
c)
locus
d)
epicenter
105.
If the temperature of rock rises above the melting point of the minerals the rock is composed of
a)
the rock will melt.
b)
the melting point of rock decreases.
c)
the melting point of rock increases.
d)
the minerals will evaporate.
106.
Which of the following is NOT a major volcanic area?
a)
central continental plains
b)
boundaries of tectonic plates
c)
subduction zones
d)
mid-ocean ridges
107.
Which of the following areas is both a major earthquake zone and a major volcanic zone?
a)
Pacific Ring of Fire
b)
Pacific Ring of Volcanoes
c)
Oceanic Ring of Fire
d)
Pacific Island Arc
108.
When an underwater volcano erupts, the magma cools quickly, forming
a)
vents.
b)
fissures.
c)
pillow lava.
d)
island arcs.
109.
What forms on the ocean floor in a subduction zone?
a)
trench
b)
hot spot
c)
mantle plume
d)
lithosphere
110.
Which of the following does NOT signal a volcanic eruption?
a)
an increase in thunderstorms near the volcano
b)
bulging of volcano surface
c)
a change in earthquake activity
d)
a change in the amount and composition of volcanic gases
111.
Magma that is rich in magnesium and iron is called
a)
mafic.
b)
pyroclastic.
c)
composite.
d)
felsic.
112.
Magma that is rich in feldspar and silica is called
a)
felsic.
b)
pyroclastic.
c)
mafic.
d)
composite.
113.
Pyroclastic material less than 0.25 mm in diameter is called
a)
volcanic dust.
b)
a volcanic bomb.
c)
a volcanic block.
d)
volcanic ash.
114.
Composite volcanoes are also known as
a)
stratovolcanoes.
b)
craters.
c)
cinder cones.
d)
shield volcanoes.
115.
When the temperature of rock rises above its melting point,
a)
magma will form.
b)
magma will not form.
c)
the melting point will increase.
d)
the melting point will decrease.
116.
Volcanic eruptions may be signaled by
a)
a change in earthquake activity.
b)
a change in wildlife behavior.
c)
a sudden weather change.
d)
volcanic dust in the air.
117.
A large depression formed by the collapse of a volcanic cone is called a
a)
caldera.
b)
crater.
c)
pluton.
d)
trench.
118.
Volcanic ash, dust, blocks, bombs, and lapilli are all
a)
pyroclastic materials.
b)
felsic lava.
c)
pahoehoe.
d)
mafic lava.
119.
Which of the following is NOT a major type of volcanic cone?
a)
mantle plume
b)
composite
c)
cinder cone
d)
shield
120.
The eruption of Mount St. Helens was
a)
an explosive eruption.
b)
an oceanic volcano.
c)
a quiet eruption.
d)
a stratovolcano.
121.
Which of the following is NOT a tectonic setting where volcanoes form?
a)
glacier-formed crater lakes
b)
boundaries of tectonic plates
c)
subduction zones
d)
mid-ocean ridges
122.
When oceanic lithosphere subducts beneath oceanic lithosphere,
a)
an island arc forms.
b)
a fissure will form.
c)
more lithosphere is produced.
d)
aa lava is produced.
123.
Pillow lava forms
a)
on a mid-ocean ridge.
b)
along a tectonic plate.
c)
below a caldera.
d)
on a cinder cone.
124.
Which of the following island is cut into two parts by a fissure?
a)
Iceland
b)
Japan
c)
Grand Cayman
d)
Hawaii
125.
Any activity that includes the movement of magna to Earth’s surface is called
a)
volcanism.
b)
a vent.
c)
lava.
d)
a volcano.
126.
The three primary tectonic settings are zones near convergent and divergent tectonic plates, subduction zones, and
a)
mid-ocean ridges.
b)
oceanic plates.
c)
island arcs.
d)
trench zones.
127.
A large circular depression that forms when the magma chamber below a volcano partially empties, causing the ground above it to sink, is called a
a)
caldera.
b)
crater.
c)
crust.
d)
cone.
128.
Three events that might signal a volcanic eruption include a change in earthquake activity, the formation of bulges on or near the volcano, and
a)
a change in gases emitted.
b)
the appearance of vents.
c)
a sulfuric odor.
d)
the formation of heavy thunder clouds.
129.
Magma or igneous rock that is rich in magnesium and iron and that is generally dark in color is called
a)
mafic.
b)
felsic.
c)
ash.
d)
pyroclastic.
130.
When lava cools rapidly, a crust forms on the surface of the flow. If the flow continues, the crusted-over surface wrinkles and forms volcanic rock known as
a)
pahoehoe.
b)
aa.
c)
blocky lava.
d)
lapilli.
131.
Rapidly cooled lava that forms on underwater volcanoes at a mid-ocean ridge is called
a)
pillow lava.
b)
plume lava.
c)
mafic lava.
d)
felsic lava.
132.
An area of volcanic activity far from a tectonic plate boundary is called a(n)
a)
hot spot.
b)
island arc.
c)
cone.
d)
mantle plume.
133.
Large plutons that can cover an area as large as 100 km2 are called
a)
batholiths.
b)
dikes.
c)
igneous.
d)
necks.
134.
Magma or igneous rock that is rich in feldspar and silica and is generally light in color is called
a)
felsic.
b)
mafic.
c)
composite.
d)
cinder.
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