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AUBF MODULE 5 POST QUIZ

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 2hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

To preserve the integrity of reagent strips, it is necessary that they are

a)

humidified adequately

b)

stored in a refrigerator.

c)

stored in a tightly capped container.

d)

protected from the dark.

2.

Using quality control materials, one should check

reagent strip performance:

1. at least once daily.

2. when a new bottle of strips or tablets is opened.

3. when a new lot number of strips or tablets is placed into use.

4. once each shift by each laboratorian performing urinalysis testing.

a)

1, 2, and 3 are correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct.

c)

4 is correct.

d)

All are correct.

3.

Which of the following is not checked by quality control materials?

a)

The technical skills of the personnel performing the test

b)

The integrity of the specimen, that is, that the specimen was collected and stored properly

c)

The test protocol, that is, that the procedure was performed according to written guidelines

d)

The functioning of the equipment used, for example, the refractometer and the reagent strip readers

4.

Quality control materials used to assess the performance of reagent strips and tablet tests must

a)

be purchased from a commercial manufacturer.

b)

yield the same results regardless of the commercial brand used

c)

contain chemical constituents at realistic and critical detection levels.

d)

include constituents to assess the chemical and microscopic examinations.

5.

Which of the following is not a source of erroneous results when reagent strips are used?

a)

Testing a refrigerated urine specimen

b)

Timing using a clock without a second hand

c)

Allowing excess urine to remain on the reagent strip

d)

Dipping the reagent strip briefly into the urine specimen.

6.

Select the primary reason why tablet (e.g., Ictotest)

and chemical tests (e.g., sulfosalicylic acid precipitation test) generally are performed.

a)

They confirm results suspected about the specimen

b)

They are alternative testing methods for highly concentrated urines.

c)

Their specificity differs from that of the reagent strip test.

d)

They are more sensitive to the chemical constituents in urine.

7.

In a patient with chronic renal disease, in whom the kidneys can no longer adjust urine concentration, the urine specific gravity would be

a)

1.000

b)

1.010

c)

1.020.

d)

1.030

8.

Urine pH normally ranges from

a)

4.0 to 9.0

b)

4.5 to 7.0

c)

4.5 to 8.0

d)

5.0 to 6.0

9.

Urine pH can be modified by all of the following except

a)

diet

b)

increased ingestion of water

c)

ingestion of medications

d)

urinary tract infections

10.

The double-indicator system used by commercial reagent strips to determine urine pH uses which two indicator dyes?

a)

Methyl orange and bromphenol blue

b)

Methyl red and bromthymol blue

c)

Phenol red and thymol blue

d)

Phenolphthalein and litmus

11.

All of the following can result in inaccurate urine pH measurements except

a)

large amounts of protein present in the urine

b)

double-dipping of the reagent strip into the specimen

c)

maintaining the specimen at room temperature for 4 hours

d)

allowing excess urine to remain on the reagent strip during the timing interval.

12.

Which of the following aids in the differentiation of hemoglobinuria and hematuria?

a)

Urine pH

b)

Urine color

c)

Leukocyte esterase test

d)

Microscopic examination

13.

Select the correct statement(s)

1. Myoglobin and hemoglobin are reabsorbed readily by renal tubular cells.

2. Hemosiderin, a soluble storage form of iron, is found in aqueous solutions.

3. When haptoglobin is saturated, free hemoglobin passes through the glomerular filtration barrier.

4. Hemosiderin is found in the urine during a hemolytic episode

a)

1, 2, and 3 are correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct

c)

4 is correct

d)

All are correct

14.

Which statement about hemoglobin and myoglobin is true?

a)

They are heme-containing proteins involved in

oxygen transport

b)

Their presence is suspected when urine and serum appear red.

c)

Their presence in serum is associated with high creatine kinase values

d)

They precipitate out of solution when the urine is 80% saturated with ammonium sulfate

15.

On the reagent strip test for blood, any heme moiety (e.g., hemoglobin, myoglobin) present in urine catalyzes

a)

oxidation of the chromogen and hydrogen peroxide.

b)

reduction of the chromogen in the presence of hydrogen peroxide

c)

reduction of the pseudoperoxidase while the chromogen undergoes a color change.

d)

oxidation of the chromogen while hydrogen peroxide is reduced.

16.

Which of the following blood cells will not be

detected by the leukocyte esterase pad because it

lacks esterases?

a)

Eosinophils

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Monocytes

d)

Neutrophils

17.

Microscopic examination of a urine sediment revealed an average of 2 to 5 white blood cells per high-power field, whereas the leukocyte esterase test by reagent strip was negative. Which of the following statements best accounts for this discrepancy

a)

The urine is contaminated with vaginal fluid

b)

Many white blood cells are lysed, and their esterase has been inactivated

c)

Ascorbic acid is interfering with the reaction on the reagent strip

d)

The amount of esterase present is below the sensitivity of the reagent strip test.

18.

Which of the following statements describes the chemical principle involved in the leukocyte esterase pad of commercial reagent strips?

a)

Leukocyte esterase reacts with a diazonium salt on the reagent pad to form an azo dye

b)

An ester and a diazonium salt combine to form an azo dye in the presence of leukocyte esterase.

c)

An aromatic compound on the reagent pad combines with leukocyte esterase to form an azo dye

d)

Leukocyte esterase hydrolyzes an ester on the reagent pad, then an azocoupling reaction results in the formation of an azo dye

19.

Which of the following conditions most likely accounts for a negative nitrite result on the reagent strip despite the presence of large quantities of bacteria?

1. The bacteria present did not have enough time to convert nitrate to nitrite.

2. The bacteria present are not capable of converting nitrate to nitrite.

3. The patient is not ingesting adequate amounts of nitrate in the diet.

4. The urine is dilute and the level of nitrite present is below the sensitivity of the test

a)

1, 2, and 3 are correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct

c)

4 is correct

d)

All are correct

20.

The chemical principle of the nitrite reagent pad is based on the

a)

pseudoperoxidase activity of nitrite

b)

diazotization of nitrite followed by an azocoupling reaction

c)

azocoupling action of nitrite with a diazonium salt to form an azo dye

d)

hydrolysis of an ester by nitrite combined with an azocoupling reaction.

21.

Which of the following substances or actions can produce false-positive nitrite results?

a)

Ascorbic acid

b)

Vaginal contamination

c)

Strong reducing agents

d)

Improper specimen storage

22.

Normally, daily urine protein excretion does not exceed

a)

150 mg/day

b)

500 mg/day

c)

1.5 g/day

d)

2.5 g/day

23.

Which of the following proteins originates in the urinary tract?

a)

Albumin

b)

Bence Jones protein

c)

β2-Microglobulin

d)

Uromodulin

24.

Which of the following statements about Bence Jones protein is correct?

a)

The protein consists of κ and λ light chains.

b)

The protein is often found in the urine of patients with multiple sclerosis.

c)

The protein precipitates when urine is heated to 100° C and redissolves when cooled to 60° C

d)

The protein can produce a positive reagent strip protein test and a negative sulfosalicylic acid (SSA) precipitation test.

25.

A urine specimen is tested for protein by reagent strip and by the SSA test. The reagent strip result is negative, and the SSA result is 2+. Which of the following statements best explains this discrepancy?

a)

A protein other than albumin is present in the urine

b)

The reagent strip result is falsely negative because the urine has a pH of 8.0.

c)

A large quantity of amorphous urates in the urine caused the false-positive SSA result.

d)

The time interval for reading the reagent strip pad was exceeded, causing a false-negative

result

26.

Which of the following statements best describes the chemical principle of the protein reagent strip test?

a)

The protein reacts with an immunocomplex on the pad, which results in a color change

b)

The protein causes a pH change on the reagent strip pad, which results in a color change

c)

The protein accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator dye, which results in a color change

d)

The protein causes protons to be released from a polyelectrolyte, which results in a color change

27.

A urine specimen is tested for glucose by a reagent strip and by the Clinitest method. The reagent strip

result is 100 mg/dL, and the Clinitest result is 500 mg/dL. Which of the following statements would best account for this discrepancy?

a)

The Clinitest tablets have expired or were stored improperly.

b)

A large amount of ascorbic acid is present in the specimen

c)

A strong oxidizing agent (e.g., bleach) is contaminating the specimen.

d)

The reagent strip is exhibiting the pass-through phenomenon, which results in a falsely low value

28.

Which of the following substances if present in the urine results in a negative Clinitest?

a)

Fructose

b)

Lactose

c)

Galactose

d)

Sucrose

29.

The glucose reagent strip test is more sensitive and specific for glucose than the Clinitest method because it detects

a)

other reducing substances and higher concentrations of glucose

b)

no other substances and higher concentrations of glucose

c)

other reducing substances and lower concentrations of glucose

d)

no other substances and lower concentrations of glucose

30.

Which of the following statements about glucose is false?

a)

Glucose readily passes the glomerular filtration barrier?

b)

Glucose is reabsorbed passively in the proximal tubule

c)

Glucosuria occurs when plasma glucose levels exceed 160 to 180 mg/dL

d)

High plasma glucose concentrations are associated with damage to the glomerular filtration barrier.

31.

The pass-through phenomenon observed with the Clinitest method when large amounts of glucose are present in the urine is due to

a)

“carmelization” of the sugar present

b)

reduction of copper sulfate to green-brown cupric complexes.

c)

depletion of the substrate, that is, not enough copper sulfate is present initially

d)

reoxidation of the cuprous oxide formed to cupric oxide and other cupric complexes.

32.

The glucose specificity of the double sequential enzyme reaction used on reagent strip tests is due to the use of

a)

gluconic acid

b)

glucose oxidase

c)

hydrogen peroxide

d)

peroxidase

33.

Which of the following ketones is not detected by the reagent strip or tablet test?

a)

Acetone

b)

Acetoacetate

c)

Acetone and acetoacetate

d)

β-Hydroxybutyrate

34.

Which of the following can cause false-positive ketone results?

a)

A large amount of ascorbic acid in urine

b)

Improper storage of the urine specimen

c)

Drugs containing free sulfhydryl groups

d)

A large amount of glucose (glucosuria)

35.

Which of the following will not cause ketonemia and ketonuria?

a)

An inability to use carbohydrates

b)

Inadequate intake of carbohydrates

c)

Increased metabolism of carbohydrates

d)

Excessive loss of carbohydrates

36.

The ketone reagent strip and tablet tests are based on the reactivity of ketones with

a)

ferric chloride

b)

ferric nitrate

c)

nitroglycerin

d)

nitroprusside

37.

Which of the following statements about bilirubin is true?

a)

Conjugated bilirubin is water insoluble.

b)

Bilirubin is a degradation product of heme catabolism

c)

Unconjugated bilirubin readily passes through the glomerular filtration barrier.

d)

The liver conjugates bilirubin with albumin to form conjugated bilirubin

38.

The bilirubin reagent strip and tablet tests are based on

a)

Ehrlich’s aldehyde reaction

b)

the oxidation of bilirubin to biliverdin

c)

the reduction of bilirubin to azobilirubin

d)

the coupling of bilirubin with a diazonium salt.

39.

Which of the following are characteristic urine findings from a patient with hemolytic jaundice?

a)

A positive test for bilirubin and an increased amount of urobilinogen

b)

A positive test for bilirubin and a decreased amount of urobilinogen

c)

A negative test for bilirubin and an increased amount of urobilinogen

d)

A negative test for bilirubin and a decreased amount of urobilinogen

40.

Which of the following results show characteristic urine findings from a patient with an obstruction of the bile duct?

a)

A positive test for bilirubin and an increased amount of urobilinogen

b)

A positive test for bilirubin and a decreased amount of urobilinogen

c)

A negative test for bilirubin and an increased amount of urobilinogen

d)

A negative test for bilirubin and a decreased amount of urobilinogen

41.

Which of the following conditions can result in false-positive bilirubin results?

a)

Elevated concentrations of nitrite

b)

Improper storage of the specimen

c)

Ingestion of ascorbic acid

d)

Ingestion of certain medications

42.

Urobilinogen is formed from the

a)

conjugation of bilirubin in the liver

b)

reduction of conjugated bilirubin in bile.

c)

reduction of bilirubin by intestinal bacteria.

d)

oxidation of urobilin by anaerobic intestinal bacteria

43.

Which of the following statements about urobilinogen is true

a)

Urobilinogen is not normally present in urine

b)

Urobilinogen excretion usually is decreased following a meal.

c)

Urobilinogen excretion is an indicator of renal function

d)

Urobilinogen is labile and readily photo-oxidizes to urobilin

44.

The classic Ehrlich’s reaction is based on the reaction of urobilinogen with

a)

diazotized dichloroaniline

b)

p-aminobenzoic acid

c)

p-dichlorobenzene diazonium salt

d)

p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

45.

A Watson-Schwartz test is performed on a urine specimen. The following results are seen: chloroform tube—red color in the bottom layer; butanol tube: red color in the top layer. These results indicate the presence of

a)

urobilinogen

b)

porphobilinogen

c)

urobilinogen and other Ehrlich’s reactive substances

d)

porphobilinogen and other Ehrlich’s reactive substances

46.

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of ascorbic acid interference?

a)

Ascorbic acid inhibits oxidation of the chromogen.

b)

Ascorbic acid inactivates a reactant, promoting color development.

c)

Ascorbic acid removes a reactant from the intended reaction sequence

d)

Ascorbic acid interacts with the reactants, producing a color that masks the results.

47.

Which of the following reagent strip tests can be

affected by ascorbic acid, resulting in falsely low or

false-negative results?

1. Blood

2. Bilirubin

3. Glucose

4. Nitrite

a)

1, 2, and 3 are correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct.

c)

4 is correct

d)

All are correct

48.

Leaving excess urine on the reagent strip after removing it from the specimen will

a)

Cause run-over between reagent pads

b)

Alter the color of the specimen

c)

Cause reagents to leach from the pads

d)

Not affect the chemical reactions

49.

Failure to mix a specimen before inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the:

a)

Glucose reading

b)

Blood reading

c)

Leukocyte reading

d)

Both B and C

50.

Testing a refrigerated specimen that has not warmed to

room temperature will adversely affect:

a)

Enzymatic reactions

b)

Dye-binding reactions

c)

The sodium nitroprusside reaction

d)

Diazo reactions

51.

he reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is the:

a)

Bilirubin

b)

pH

c)

Leukocyte esterase

d)

Glucose

52.

Quality control of reagent strips is performed

a)

Using positive and negative controls

b)

When results are questionable

c)

At least once every 24 hours

d)

All of the above

e)

All except B

53.

All of the following are important to protect the integrity of reagent strips except

a)

Removing the desiccant from the bottle

b)

Storing in an opaque bottle

c)

Storing at room temperature

d)

Resealing the bottle after removing a strip

54.

The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is the:

a)

Protein error of indicators

b)

Greiss reaction

c)

Dissociation of a polyelectrolyte

d)

Double indicator reaction

55.

A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0

a)

Indicates metabolic acidosis

b)

Should be recollected

c)

May contain calcium oxalate crystals

d)

Is seen after drinking cranberry juice

56.

In the laboratory, a primary consideration associated with pH is:

a)

Identifying urinary crystals

b)

Monitoring vegetarian diets

c)

Determining specimen acceptability

d)

Both A and C

57.

The principle of the protein error of indicators reaction is that

a)

Protein keeps the pH of the urine constant

b)

Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator

c)

The indicator accepts hydrogen ions from albumin

d)

Albumin changes the pH of the urine

58.

All of the following will cause false-positive protein reagent strip values except:

a)

Microalbuminuria

b)

Highly buffered alkaline urines

c)

Delay in removing the reagent strip from the specimen

d)

Contamination by quaternary ammonium compounds

59.

A patient with a 2+ protein reading in the afternoon is asked to submit a first morning specimen. The second specimen has a negative protein reading. This patient is:

a)

Positive for orthostatic proteinuria

b)

Negative for orthostatic proteinuria

c)

Positive for Bence Jones protein

d)

Negative for clinical proteinuria

60.

Testing for microalbuminuria is valuable for early detection of kidney disease and monitoring patients with:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Cardiovascular disease risk

d)

All of the above

61.

The primary chemical on the reagent strip in the Micral Test for microalbumin bin

a)

Protein

b)

Antihuman albumin antibody

c)

Conjugated enzyme

d)

Galactoside

62.

The principle of the protein-high pad on the Multistix

Pro reagent strip is the

a)

Diazo reaction

b)

Enzymatic dye-binding reaction

c)

Protein error of indicators

d)

Microalbumin-Micral-Test

63.

The principle of the protein-low reagent pad on the Multistix Pro is the

a)

Binding of albumin to sulphonphthalein dye

b)

Immunologic binding of albumin to antibody

c)

Reverse protein error of indicators reaction

d)

Enzymatic reaction between albumin and dye

64.

The principle of the creatinine reagent pad on microalbumin reagent strips is the

a)

Double indicator reaction

b)

Diazo reaction

c)

Pseudoperoxidase reaction

d)

Reduction of a chromogen

65.

The purpose of performing an albumin:creatinine ratio is to:

a)

Estimate the glomerular filtration rate

b)

Correct for hydration in random specimens

c)

Avoid interference for alkaline urines

d)

Correct for abnormally colored urines

66.

A patient with a normal blood glucose and a positive urine glucose should be further checked for:

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Renal disease

c)

Gestational diabetes

d)

Pancreatitis

67.

The principle of the reagent strip tests for glucose is the:

a)

Peroxidase activity of glucose

b)

Glucose oxidase reaction

c)

Double sequential enzyme reaction

d)

Dye-binding of glucose and chromogen

68.

All of the following may produce false-negative glucose

reactions except

a)

Detergent contamination

b)

Ascorbic acid

c)

Unpreserved specimens

d)

Low urine temperature

69.

The primary reason for performing a Clinitest is to:

a)

Check for high ascorbic acid levels

b)

Confirm a positive reagent strip glucose

c)

Check for newborn galactosuria

d)

Confirm a negative glucose reading

70.

The three intermediate products of fat metabolism include all of the following except

a)

Acetoacetic acid

b)

Ketoacetic acid

c)

β -hydroxybutyric acid

d)

Acetone

71.

The most significant reagent strip test that is associated with a positive ketone result is:

a)

Glucose

b)

Protein

c)

pH

d)

Specific gravity

72.

The primary reagent in the reagent strip test for ketones is

a)

Glycine

b)

Lactose

c)

Sodium hydroxide

d)

Sodium nitroprusside

73.

Ketonuria may be caused by all of the following except:

a)

Bacterial infections

b)

Diabetic acidosis

c)

Starvation

d)

Vomiting

74.

Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and abdominal pain is frequently performed to check for

a)

Glucosuria

b)

Proteinuria

c)

Hematuria

d)

Hemoglobinuria

75.

Associated with transfusion reactions

a)

Hemoglobinuria

b)

Myoglobinuria

76.

Clear red urine and pale yellow plasma

a)

Hemoglobinuria

b)

Myoglobinuria

77.

Clear red urine and red plasma

a)

Hemoglobinuria

b)

Myoglobinuria

78.

Associated with rhabdomyolysis

a)

Hemoglobinuria

b)

Myoglobinuria

79.

The principle of the reagent strip test for blood is based on the:

a)

Binding of heme and a chromogenic dye

b)

Peroxidase activity of heme

c)

Reaction of peroxide and chromogen

d)

Diazo activity of heme

80.

A speckled pattern on the blood pad of the reagent strip indicates:

a)

Hematuria

b)

Hemoglobinuria

c)

Myoglobinuria

d)

All of the above

81.

The principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is the:

a)

Diazo reaction

b)

Ehrlich reaction

c)

Greiss reaction

d)

Peroxidase reaction

82.

An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of

a)

Cirrhosis of the liver

b)

Hemolytic disease

c)

Hepatitis

d)

Biliary obstruction

83.

The primary cause of a false-negative bilirubin reaction is

a)

Highly pigmented urine

b)

Specimen contamination

c)

Specimen exposure to light

d)

Excess conjugated bilirubin

84.

The purpose of the special mat supplied with the Ictotest tablets is that

a)

Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat

b)

It contains the dye needed to produce color

c)

It removes interfering substances.

d)

Bilirubin is absorbed into the mat.

85.

The reagent in the Multistix reaction for urobilinogen is:

a)

A diazonium salt

b)

Tetramethylbenzidine

c)

p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

d)

Hoesch reagent

86.

The primary problem with urobilinogen tests using Ehrlich reagent is:

a)

Positive reactions with porphobilinogen

b)

Lack of specificity

c)

Positive reactions with Ehrlich’s reactive substances

d)

All of the above

87.

The reagent strip test for nitrite uses the

a)

Greiss reaction

b)

Ehrlich reaction

c)

Peroxidase reaction

d)

Pseudoperoxidase reaction

88.

All of the following can cause a negative nitrite reading except:

a)

Gram-positive bacteria

b)

Gram-negative bacteria

c)

Random urine specimens

d)

Heavy bacterial infection

89.

A positive nitrite test and a negative leukocyte esterase test is an indication of a

a)

Dilute random specimen

b)

Specimen with lysed leukocytes

c)

Vaginal yeast infection

d)

Specimen older than 2 hours

90.

All of the following can be detected by the leukocyte

esterase reaction except

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Basophil

91.

pH ranging from 4 to 6 usually has the corresponding color of?

a)

Blue to yellow

b)

Red to yellow

c)

Green to yellow

d)

Yellow to blue

92.

Major protein in the urine?

a)

Tamm horsfall protein

b)

Globulin

c)

Albumin

d)

Immunoglobulins

93.

Normal value of protein per 24 hours.

a)

110 mg

b)

120 mg

c)

150 mg

d)

100 mg

94.

Post renal protienuria involves all of the following except?

a)

Microalbuminuria

b)

Menstrual contamination.

c)

Lower UTI

d)

Injury/Trauma

95.

(+) SSA & (-) Rgt Strip=_______________________________

a)

Albumin

b)

Globlulin

c)

Tamm horsfall protein

d)

Proteins other than albumin

96.

It is the general test for glucose an other reducing sugar.

a)

Benedicts test

b)

Clinitest

c)

Acetest

d)

Icto test

97.

Screening tests for urinary infection combine the leukocyte esterase test with the test

a)

pH

b)

Nitrite

c)

Protein

d)

Blood

98.

The principle of the leukocyte esterase reagent strip test uses a:

a)

Peroxidase reaction

b)

Double indicator reaction

c)

Diazo reaction

d)

Dye-binding technique

99.

The principle of the reagent strip test for specific gravity uses the dissociation constant of a(n):

a)

Diazonium salt

b)

Indicator dye

c)

Polyelectrolyte

d)

Enzyme substrate

100.

Reagent strip–specific gravity readings are affected by

a)

Glucose

b)

Radiographic dye

c)

Alkaline urine

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

101.

It is used as a confirmatory test for questionable reagent strip result on ketones.

a)

Benedicts test

b)

Clinitest

c)

Acetest

d)

Icto test