wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

GST REGISTRATION COMPOSITING SCHEME & TAX INVOICE, CR & DR RETUR

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 4hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

_____ means aggregate value of all taxable supplies, exempt supplies, export of goods or services or both and inter-state supplies.

a)

Aggregate Turnover

b)

Casual taxable person

c)

non-resident taxable person

d)

None of the above

2.

A supplier is liable to be registered under GST Act in the state or union territory other than special states, where he makes a taxable supply of goods exclusively, if the aggregate turnover exceeds ______.

a)

Rs.40,00,000

b)

Rs.20,00,000

c)

Rs.10,00,000

d)

Rs.40,20,000

3.

A supplier supplying goods or services or both from more than one state will have to take _____ registration in every state.

a)

Separate

b)

not liable

c)

transferee

d)

None of the above

4.

In case of transfer of business _____ has to obtain a fresh registration.

a)

reverse charge

b)

transferee

c)

Casual taxable person

d)

None of the above

5.

Any person, engaged exclusively in the business of supplying goods or services or both that are not liable to tax or wholly exempt from tax, is _____ for registration.

a)

Casual taxable person

b)

not liable

c)

business

d)

None of the above

6.

_____ means an individual or a Hindu Undivided Family who undertakes cultivation of land.

a)

business

b)

Agriculturist

c)

reverse charge

d)

None of the above

7.

An agriculturist is not liable to obtain registration under the GST Act to the extent of supply of produce out of _____.

a)

business residence in India

b)

Cultivation of land

c)

non-resident taxable person

d)

None of the above

8.

Casual Taxable person has to submit application for registration in form _____.

a)

GST REG-01

b)

GST REG-03

c)

GST REG-30

d)

GST REG-05

9.

Non-resident taxable person can claim input tax credit in respect of _____.

a)

Grant of registration

b)

Import of goods and / or services

c)

non-resident taxable person

d)

None of the above

10.

Every person who is liable to be registered under GST Law shall apply for registration within _____ from the date on which he becomes liable to registration.

a)

20 days

b)

30 days

c)

31 days

d)

10 days

11.

who fo the following is required to register under GST irrespective of limit

a)

ISD

b)

Non -resident tax payer

c)

interstate sales

d)

all of above

12.

Which of the following document is not mandatory for GST registration of sole proprietor

a)

PAN card

b)

Aadhar card

c)

Photograph

d)

Electricity bill

13.

Which of teh following is additional document required in case of GST registration of a HUF as compare to individual

a)

PAN card of Karta

b)

Aadhar card of Karta

c)

PAN card of HUF

d)

Rent agreement copy

14.

Tenure of casual taxable individual GST registration is ....months

a)

2 months

b)

6 months

c)

3 months

d)

4 months

15.

Composition scheme by a business of goods in normal states can be adopted with an annual turnover of

a)

Rs. 1.5 crore

b)

Rs. 1 crore

c)

Rs. 70 lacs

d)

Rs. 50 lacs

16.

under composition scheme for a sale of Rs. 100 on which Rs. 1 composition tax is paid, how much revenue is shown in PL

a)

Rs. 100

b)

Rs.101

c)

Rs. 99

d)

None of above

17.

General limit of turnover above which GST registration is required is

a)

Rs.20 lacs

b)

Rs.40 lacs

c)

Rs. 15 lacs

d)

Rs. 30 lacs

18.

Unique registration number of GST is of

a)

15 digit

b)

20 digit

c)

14 digit

d)

10 digit

19.

Penalty for non-registration of GST is

a)

Rs. 10000

b)

amount of tax not paid

c)

Rs. 10000 or tax not paid whichever is higher

d)

none of above

20.

Registration types are used to....

a)

Get a Reliance JIO sim

b)

Set different pricing

c)

Set different usernames

d)

setting different planner emails

21.

Contact types can be created under

a)

Admin only

b)

Admin, Event and contacts

c)

Admin & Event only

d)

Event only

22.

I will get a default fee

a)

If I own a porsche

b)

My registration type is not identified by the system

c)

I own the planners company

d)

Am using source ID instead of email address

23.

In an event how many registration types can be added

a)

50

b)

99

c)

199

d)



24.

Registration types can be assigned prior to sending an invitation, this process is called

a)

Honor coding

b)

Software Coding

c)

Pre Coding

d)

Post Coding

25.

In an event, you cannot remove registration types once someone has registered for it

a)

True

b)

False

26.

In an event if you are using pre coding you should also use Honor coding just to be sure people get the right registration type

a)

True

b)

False

27.

In an event, registration type decides

a)

Pricing and Emails

b)

Pricing, Registration Path, Items

c)

Pricing, Registration Path, Items, Website Pages

d)

Price Only

28.

In an event, I can limit registrations by

a)

IP address, domain, and Geographic location

b)

IP Address, Mobile phone

c)

IP Address, Mobile phone and email domain

d)

IP address, and Email Domains

29.

You want to slap Shiv but cant because

a)

He is to Tall

b)

He is very fat and slap will bounce and hit me back

c)

We love him

d)

Want the next salary

30.

I can delete Registration types from the event

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Only if no one is registered with that registration type

31.

Address book precoding is helpful when

a)

The contact type will change for every event

b)

The registrant will choose their own reg type

c)

The contact type remains same for every event

d)

In order to limit item visibility

32.

Contact type from the address book record is validated using

a)

First and Last Name

b)

First name and Email address

c)

Email address

d)

Last name and email address

33.

Registration types can be added to the drop down on the identity confirmation page from?

a)

Event Details > Registration Types

b)

Event Details > Event Configuration

c)

Website & Registration > Reg Settings > Id and Security

d)

Website & Registration > Event Website

34.

If the system is unable to identify the registration type for a registrant

a)

It will not allow the person to register

b)

It will route the registrant to another event

c)

It will let the person register but without a reg type

d)

I dont know

35.

Contact types can be updated on the contact records, in bulk

a)

Yes

b)

No, has to be done 1 at a time

36.

If I do not want Speakers to not pay in my event I should..

a)

Not create any fees for them

b)

Dont allow speakers to register on their own

c)

Add a $0 fee for them

d)

Use early bird pricing

37.

If a registration type is not associated to a fee, the registrant will

a)

Register for free

b)

Register with a pending balance

c)

Register with the default fee

d)

be stopped on the payment page

38.

Which of the following is not a pre coding type

a)

Address Book

b)

Invitation list

c)

Custom process

39.

An e-Invoice can be cancelled within

a)

48 Hours

b)

24 Hours

c)

72 Hours

d)

It cannot be cancelled

40.

What is e-Invoice?

a)

Generating invoices from online portal

b)

Generating invoices from software and e-invoice from portal

c)

Generating invoices from portal and syncing e-invoice in ERP system

d)

None of the above

41.

Which one is not the purpose of e-invoicing?

a)

Getting real time data entries

b)

lessen the scope of manipulation

c)

Updating GSTR 1 and GSTR 2A/2B as per e-invoice details

d)

manipulation of data

42.

What is date of applicability for the entities having turnover greater than 100Cr.

a)

1-Jan-2020

b)

1-Oct-2020

c)

1-Apr-2021

d)

None of the above

43.

Which one is exempted from e-invoicing?

a)

Trading business

b)

Manufacturing business

c)

Service business

d)

Insurance business

44.

Which document is not required to be uploaded on e-invoice portal?

a)

B2C Invoice

b)

B2B Invoice

c)

Debit Note

d)

Credit Note

45.

What is the role of IRP?

a)

Accept e-invoice document uploaded by tax payer

b)

Validate the document as per e-invoice schema

c)

Generate a unique Invoice reference number and QR Code

d)

All of the above

46.

IRN is a ______________ characters reference number.

a)

32

b)

64

c)

100

d)

12

47.

In TallyPrime, e-Invoice and e-Waybill can be generated automatically within product.

a)

Yes

b)

No

48.

You generated an e-Invoice in product later you came to know that there is an error in e-invoice.

a)

You can modify the details of e-invoice within 24 hours

b)

You can modify the details of e-invoice within 48 hours

c)

You can modify the details of e-invoice within 72 hours

d)

e-Invoice can not be modified

49.

An e-Invoice can be partially cancelled?

a)

Yes

b)

No

50.

An ERP software cannot access the e-Invoice portal directly, they can access the portal with the help of ____________ .

a)

ISP

b)

ASP

c)

GSP

d)

TPS

51.

What is the full form of GSP?

a)

GST Suvidha Provider

b)

GST Solution Provider

c)

GST Service Provider

d)

None of the above

52.

How e-Invoice can be enabled in TallyPrime?

a)

Gateway of Tally -> F12

b)

Gateway of Tally -> Voucher -> F12

c)

Gateway of Tally -> F11

d)

None of the above

53.

Single or Bulk upload of e-Invoices is possible in TallyPrime.

a)

Yes

b)

No

54.

How to upload bulk invoices for the generation of e-Invoices?

a)

Gateway of Tally -> Exchange -> Send for e-Invoicing

b)

Gateway of Tally -> Import -> Send for e-Invoicing

c)

Gateway of Tally -> Data -> Send for e-Invoicing

d)

Gateway of Tally -> Export -> Send for e-Invoicing

55.

What is the full form of IRN?

a)

Information reference number

b)

Information request number

c)

Invoice request number

d)

Invoice reference number

56.

In the given image, what is number of e-invoices generated automatically from portal?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

No e-invoice have been generated yet

57.

Which voucher can not be used for e-Invoice generation?

a)

Sales

b)

Contra

c)

Journal

d)

Debit Note

58.

Is it mandatory to print QR Code and IRN on B2B invoices generated after 1-Jan-20?

a)

Yes

b)

No

59.

When was GST(Goods & Service Tax) implemented in India?

a)

1st July 2017

b)

2nd Aug 2018

c)

1st May 2019

d)

1st April 2017

60.

What are the taxes charged/ levied on Intra-state supply? (within state)

a)

CGST

b)

CGST & SGST

c)

IGST

d)

SGST

61.

GST is a_______ based tax on consumption of goods & services.

a)

Destination-based

b)

Dividend-based

c)

Duration- based

d)

Durable-based

62.

Star company is selling exempted goods to Mark company, which type of invoice have to issued by star company for "Exempted goods"?

a)

Tax invoice

b)

Proforma Invoice

c)

Bill Invoice

d)

Bill of Supply

63.

Mr. Raj owner of Innovative company is a composition dealer so which are GST return to be filed by him?

a)

GST CMP-08 & GSTR4 Annual Return

b)

GSTR-3B

c)

GSTR-1

d)

GSTR-A

64.

Tick the right GSTIN format for Star Company which is located in Karnataka

a)

37AAACS1234A1Z5

b)

29AAACS1234A1Z5

c)

29AAA1234FTA1Z5

d)

242ACS1234AJ1Z5

65.

From 1st April 2021, how many HSN code digits have to be entered in your Invoice, if your turnover is :

a) Upto Rs. 5 Crores ____?

b) More than Rs. 5 Crores______?

a)

1 & 3 digits

b)

2 & 3 digits

c)

4 & 6 Digits

d)

5 & 8 Digits

66.

When is the last date to file monthly GSTR-3B for a regular dealer?

a)

20th of following month

b)

10th of following month

c)

12th of following month

d)

15th of following month

67.

How much GST tax is to be paid by composition dealer while filing, if he is a trader/ manufacturer?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

18%

d)

1%

68.

When goods are returned (Sales Return) which voucher has to be recorded in Tally prime along with GST?

a)

Credit Note

b)

Debit note

c)

Receipt Note

d)

Delivery Note

69.

Star company (Mangalore, Karnataka) selling goods to space company( Bangalore, Karnataka) which GST will you calculate?

a)

IGST

b)

CGST only

c)

CGST & SGST

d)

UTGST

70.

Star company (Mangalore, Karnataka) selling goods to Moon company( Surat, Gujrat) which GST will you calculate?

a)

Output IGST

b)

Output CGST & SGST

c)

Output UTGST

d)

Output TDS

71.

Input CGST/SGST/ IGST comes under which ledger?

a)

Fixed Assets

b)

Current Assets

c)

Liabilities

d)

Duties & taxes

72.

A tax return is...

a)

Money you get back for working really hard

b)

The Internal Revenue Service (IRS)

c)

a report containing information used to calculate taxes owed by the taxpayer

d)

a report that you give your boss when you start working

73.

Not filing a tax return is a crime.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

_________________ is the primary source of revenue for the federal government.

a)

Individual income tax

b)

food stamps

c)

sales tax

d)

airlines

75.

What does voluntary mean?

a)

Done, given, or acting by force. You do not have a choice.

b)

Done, given, or acting of one's own free will. By choice.

76.

Individuals must file a tax return when...

a)

their income reaches a level set by the IRS

b)

it will happen automatically

c)

they feel like it

d)

On Christmas eve

77.

Filing status is a category that determines which tax form to use and the tax liability. It is based on your...

a)

job

b)

unemployment

c)

marital status

d)

house

78.

The Wage and Tax Statement, which shows a person’s earnings and the amounts of income, is also known as the Form _-_.

a)

W-2

b)

W-4

c)

1099

d)

I-9

79.

The Employee’s Withholding Allowance Certificate is a federal tax form that is also called the _____.

a)

W-2

b)

W-4

c)

1099

d)

I-9

80.

Which tax return form is the simplest form to use?

a)

Form 1040

b)

Form 1040A

c)

Form 1040EZ

d)

E-filing form

81.

Unearned income is...

a)

earnings from sources other than work (ex: lottery winnings, interest, rent income)

b)

the income received from employment, including self-employment

82.

Taxable income is the amount on which taxes are calculated.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

__________ is calculated by subtracting adjustments from total income.

a)

net pay

b)

adjusted gross income

c)

gross pay

d)

taxable income

84.

Adjusted gross income is calculated by subtracting adjustments from total income. If your total income was $67,000 and your adjustments are $7,000. What is your adjusted gross income?

a)

$33,000

b)

$60,000

c)

$55,000

85.

A tax deduction is...

a)

an amount of extra tax money to pay

b)

an amount that is subtracted from adjusted gross income

c)

an amount that is added to adjusted gross income

86.

Two types of tax deductions are:

(Choose 2)

a)

itemized deduction

b)

income deduction

c)

tax break

d)

standard deduction

87.

An amount that a taxpayer can claim for each person who is dependent on that person’s income is called an ________.

a)

tax break

b)

liability

c)

exemption

88.

A dependent is...

a)

Someone who is lazy

b)

Someone who works hard

c)

an adult individual who pays taxes and takes care of themselves

d)

an individual who relies on someone else for financial support, such as a child, a spouse, or an elderly parent

89.

Your tax liability is..

a)

the amount of total tax owed on income for the year

b)

the number of dependents you have

c)

the amount of tax income you saved

90.

List three basic forms used to file income taxes.

a)

1040, 1040A, 1040EZ

b)

1040, 1040EZ, 1099

c)

W-2,W-4, W-12

d)

I-35, 290, Mopac

91.
Risky investments
a)
Are meant to make small returns on investment
b)
May lead to a larger return on investment
c)
Are always long-term
d)
Involve checking accounts
92.
All of these are benefits to high liquidity investments except
a)
A high rate of return
b)
Easily accessible 
c)
Can convert to cash when needed
d)
Less risky
93.
A mutual fund is 
a)
An investment in a diversified group of stocks
b)
The money left over when reinvested into the company
c)
An account that guarantees a fixed rate of return
d)
Exclusively for retirement accounts
94.
Single, Married Filing Joint, and Head of the Household are all examples of___ on a tax return.
a)
filing status
b)
standard deductions
c)
itemized deductions
d)
dependents
95.

Unearned income is reported on your tax form and taxes must be paid on them.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Overtime is calculated at 1.5 times an employee's regular rate of pay.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Employees who are paid biweekly are paid twice a week.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Employees who are paid semi-monthly receive 26 paychecks per year.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Tax deductions are calculated as a percentage of net pay.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

Federal law requires employers to pay a minimum wage.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

Social security is the tax that pays for medical insurance for older adults.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

Which form is used to report an employees earnings and taxes paid in a year?

a)

W-2

b)

W-4

c)

I-9

d)

1040

103.

By what date must employers provide, or place in the mail, a wage earner's W-2 statement?

a)

January 1

b)

January 31

c)

April 1

d)

April 15

104.

In most circumstances, which of the following persons can be claimed as a dependent on a Form W-4? Mark all that apply.

a)

yourself

b)

your spouse

c)

your parents

d)

your children

e)

your pets

105.

What are the four most common taxes that come out of a person’s payroll check?

a)

Federal Income Tax

b)

State Income Tax

c)

City/Local Income Tax

d)

Medicare Tax

e)

Social Security

106.

pay based on number of hours worked

a)

salary

b)

wages

c)

earned income

d)

unearned income

107.

fixed rate of pay for week, month, or year

a)

wages

b)

commission

c)

tips

d)

salary

108.

withheld from an employee’s wages or salary

a)

disposable income

b)

payroll taxes

c)

workers compensation

d)

earned income

109.

Income that has not been worked for such as interest, dividends, or gambling winnings

a)

disposable income

b)

unearned income

c)

earned income

d)

workers compensation

110.

Wages, salary and tips

a)

unearned income

b)

earned income

c)

disposable income

111.

Pays medical and disability benefits to employees injured on the job

a)

unearned income

b)

earned income

c)

workers compensation

d)

Medicare

112.

What government department collects personal income tax?

a)

Federal Government

b)

IRS

c)

Social Security Division

d)

Congress

113.

What is the deadline for filing personal income tax?

a)

January 31

b)

April 15

c)

May 31

d)

June 15

114.
Can SGST paid in one State be utilized for payment of SGST in another state?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
May be
d)
It does not matter
115.
What is e – commerce?
a)
Supply of goods on an electronic platform for commerce other than the e – commerce operator himself
b)
Supply of goods or services on an electronic platform for commerce including the e – commerce operator
c)
Supply of goods and services on an electronic platform for commerce
d)
Supply of goods or services or both including digital products over digital or electronic network
116.
Balance in electronic credit ledger under CGST can be used against which liability?
a)
CGST Liability only
b)
CGST and IGST liability
c)
CGST, IGST and SGST liability
d)
None of them
117.
What is the rate of interest in case of belated payment of tax?
a)
0.01
b)
0.1
c)
0.18
d)
0.24
118.
Which among the following is not an example of OIDAR services?
a)
Advertising on internet
b)
Cloud services
c)
Cloud services
d)
Online shopping
119.
A Company has head office in Bangalore and 4 branches in different states, all registered under GST and one ISD registered unit in Delhi. How many electronic cash ledgers will the company have?
a)
1
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
120.
When should be the e – commerce operator collect tax at source?
a)
On the date when the other supplier makes supplies through operator
b)
Day on which the operator remits the consideration to the supplier
c)
When he collects the consideration on behalf of the supplier in respect of such supply
d)
Option (a) or (c) whichever is earlier