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Anatomy Exam 3

Total questions: 59

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The ___ is the largest part of the hindbrain.

a)

  cerebellum

b)

  pons

c)

  brainstem

d)

  cerebrum

e)

  hypothalamus

2.

The cerebellum exhibits folds called gyri separated by grooves called sulci.

a)

  True

b)

  False

3.

The medulla oblongata is the most rostral part of the brain.

a)

True

b)

  False

4.

The right and left cerebral hemispheres are separated from each other by

a)

  the longitudinal fissure.

b)

  the corpus callosum.

c)

  the brainstem.

d)

  many gyri.

5.

During rapid eye movement (REM) sleep

a)

  the muscles relax, and body temperature, blood pressure, and heart and respiratory rates fall.

b)

  a person begins to relax and feels drowsy.

c)

  the muscles are very relaxed and body temperature, blood pressure, and heart and respiratory rates are at their lowest levels.

d)

  the muscles are paralyzed, and body temperature, blood pressure, and heart and respiratory rates increase.

6.

Nonfluent aphasia, due to a lesion in the ___, results in slow speech, difficulty in choosing words, or use of words that only approximate the correct word.

a)

  Broca area

b)

  primary motor area

c)

  cerebral lateralization

d)

  Wernicke area

7.

Which of the following functions would most likely be controlled by the representational hemisphere of the cerebrum?

a)

  painting a picture

b)

  diagnosing a patient's disease

c)

  giving a speech

d)

  balancing your checkbook

8.

Both cerebrum and cerebellum have gray matter in their surface cortex and deeper nuclei, and white matter deep to the cortex.

a)

  True

b)

  False

9.

Structures in the diencephalon control homeostasis and relay sensory signals to specific regions of the cerebral cortex.

a)

  True

b)

  False

10.

There are three cranial nerves involved in eye movement and two in the sense of taste.

a)

  True

b)

  False

11.

This is the largest of the cranial nerves and the most important sensory nerve of the face.

a)

  the abducens nerve (VI)

b)

  the hypoglossal nerve (XII)

c)

  the accessory nerve (XI)

d)

  the trigeminal nerve (V)

12.

This nerve innervates most of the viscera in the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities.

a)

  the hypoglossal nerve (XII)

b)

  the accessory nerve (XI)

c)

  the trochlear nerve (IV)

d)

  the vagus nerve (X)

13.

The ___ division tends to prepare the body for "fight and flight".

a)

  sensory afferent

b)

  motor afferent

c)

  sympathetic

d)

  parasympathetic

14.

___ neurons are the most common type of neurons.

a)

  Multipolar

b)

Bipolar

c)

Unipolar

d)

  Anaxonic

15.

____ are the primary site for receiving signals from other neurons.

a)

  Synaptic knobs

b)

Axons

c)

  Axon collaterals

d)

  Dendrites

16.

The myelin sheath is formed by

a)

  fibers.

b)

  cells.

c)

  macromolecules.

d)

  polymers.

17.

___ has the greatest influence on the resting membrane potential.

a)

  Sodium

b)

  Chloride

c)

Phosphate

d)

  Potassium

18.

Local potentials are _____, meaning they vary in magnitude according to the strength of the stimulus.

a)

decremental

b)

  reversible

c)

graded

d)

  excitatory

19.

___ binds to ligand-regulated gates, and is the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain.

a)

  γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

b)

  Noradrenaline

c)

  Epinephrine

d)

  Acetylcholine

20.

Unipolar neurons have only a single process leading away from the soma.

a)

  True

b)

  False

21.

Oligodendrocytes serve the same purpose in the CNS that satellite cells do in the PNS.

a)

  True

b)

  False

22.

In a myelinated fiber only the initial segment in the trigger zone have voltage-regulated channels.

a)

  True

b)

False

23.

Memories are formed by neural pathways of modified synapses.

a)

True

b)

  False

24.

A ganglion is a

a)

  cluster of neurosomas in the CNS.

b)

  bundle of axons in the PNS.

c)

  cluster of dendrites in either the CNS or the PNS.

d)

  cluster of neurosomas in the PNS.

25.

Which one of the following best describes the order of a somatic reflex?

a)

  somatic receptor → afferent nerve fiber → interneuron → efferent nerve fiber → smooth muscle

b)

  somatic receptor → efferent nerve fiber → interneuron → afferent nerve fiber → skeletal muscle

c)

  somatic receptor → afferent nerve fiber → interneuron → efferent nerve fiber → skeletal muscle

d)

  somatic receptor → interneuron → afferent nerve fiber → efferent nerve fiber → skeletal muscle

26.

Which of the following groups of muscles have the most muscle spindles?

a)

  muscles of the back

b)

  muscles of the torso

c)

  muscles of the thigh

d)

  muscles of the hand

27.

The quickest reflex arcs involve only two neurons, thus forming __ reflex arcs.

a)

  ipsilateral

b)

  monosynaptic

c)

  contralateral

d)

  autonomic

28.

Cervical and lumbar enlargements are wide points in the spinal cord marking the emergence of motor nerves.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Somatic reflexes are responses of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscles.

a)

  True

b)

  False

30.

The spinal cord conducts signals up and down the body passing through gray and white matter, respectively.

a)

  True

b)

  False

31.

Most nerves are motor nerves.

a)

  True

b)

  False

32.

This figure shows a detail of the spinal cord, meninges, and spinal nerves. What does "1" represent?

a)

  posterior root of a spinal nerve

b)

  anterior root of a spinal nerve

c)

  posterior horn

d)

  anterior horn

33.

This figure shows a cross section of the spinal cord. What does "3" represent?

a)

  anterior root of spinal cord

b)

  anterior column

c)

  posterior column

d)

  anterior horn

34.

A nurse pricks your finger to type your blood. You flinch at the pain, pulling your hand back. This is called the

a)

  flexor (withdrawal) reflex.

b)

  stretch (myotatic) reflex.

c)

  crossed extension reflex.

d)

  painful reflex.

35.

The bundle of nerve roots that occupy the vertebral canal from L2 to S5 is called the

a)

  medullary cone.

b)

  cauda equina.

c)

  cervical enlargement.

d)

  lumbar enlargement.

36.

Which nerve(s) carries the most parasympathetic fibers?

a)

  spinal nerves

b)

  pelvic splanchnic nerves

c)

  nerves of the abdominal aortic plexus

d)

  vagus nerve (CN X)

37.

Damage to the ___ may affect near vision accommodation.

a)

  celiac ganglion

b)

  oculomotor nerve (CN III)

c)

  facial nerve (CN VII)

d)

  glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

38.

The parasympathetic division stimulates digestion.

a)

  True

b)

  False

39.

The effect of autonomic fibers on target cells is ___, and/whereas the effect of somatic fibers is ___.

a)

  always excitatory; always excitatory too

b)

  excitatory or inhibitory; always excitatory

c)

  excitatory or inhibitory; excitatory or inhibitory

d)

  always inhibitory; excitatory or inhibitory

40.

Sympathetic fibers arise only from the ____ region(s) of the spinal cord.

a)

  cervical, thoracic, and lumbar

b)

  thoracic and lumbar

c)

  thoracic

d)

  cervical

41.

Both divisions of the autonomic nervous system are normally active simultaneously.

a)

True

b)

  False

42.

Fibers of the vagus nerve end very near or within their target organs.

a)

  True

b)

  False

43.

The autonomic nervous system controls all of the following except the

a)

  adrenal gland.

b)

  smooth muscle in the walls of the aorta.

c)

  skeletal muscle in the rectus abdominis.

d)

  parotid salivary gland.

44.

Autonomic nervous system fibers are involved in all of the following except

a)

  changing the diameter of the pupil.

b)

  adjusting heart rate and force.

c)

  altering salivary mucus secretion.

d)

  maintaining tonicity of the muscles of the neck.

45.

In response to high blood pressure, stretch receptors called ____ in the walls of arteries carrying blood to the head will trigger a reflex that causes the heart to ____ its beats per minute.

a)

  proprioceptors; decrease

b)

  baroreceptors; decrease

c)

  baroreceptors; increase

d)

  proprioceptors; increase

46.

This figure shows a division of the autonomic nervous system. The label __ represents the Vagus Nerve (CN X).

a)

  2

b)

  4

c)

  3

d)

1

47.

A patient is experiencing a high fever, stiff neck, drowsiness, and intense headaches. A spinal tap showed bacteria and white blood cells in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This individual most likely has

a)

  a stroke.

b)

  Parkinson disease.

c)

meningitis

d)

  Alzheimer disease.

48.

The initial effect of a stimulus on a sensory receptor is a local electrical change specifically called a(an)

a)

  receptor potential.

b)

  sensory potential.

c)

  graded potential.

d)

  local potential.

49.

What is a sensation?

a)

  an unconscious response to a stimulus

b)

  a response to any conscious stimulus

c)

  a subjective awareness of a stimulus

d)

  a response of a sensory receptor

50.

___ is the only sense in which signals can reach the cerebral cortex without passing first through the thalamus.

a)

  Smell

b)

  Taste

c)

  Equilibrium

d)

  Touch

51.

This figure shows the internal anatomy of the ear. What does "3" represent?

a)

  the stapes

b)

  the round window

c)

  the oval window

d)

  the incus

52.

A 100 dB sound (loud) of 150 Hz (low pitch) would cause the

a)

  tectorial membrane to vibrate slightly near its distal end.

b)

  basilar membrane to vibrate vigorously near its distal end.

c)

  basilar membrane to vibrate slightly near its distal end.

d)

  tectorial membrane to vibrate vigorously near its proximal end.

53.

When you spin while sitting in a swivel chair with your eyes closed, you can sense this movement by means of your

a)

  spiral organ (organ of Corti).

b)

  cochlea.

c)

  saccule.

d)

  semicircular ducts.

54.

Nerve fibers from all regions of the retina converge on the ___ and exit the eye by way of the optic nerve.

a)

  ora serrata

b)

  optic disc

c)

  lens

d)

  macula lutea

55.

___ are responsible for photopic (day) vision as well as trichromatic (color) vision.

a)

  Ganglion cells

b)

  Cones

c)

  Rods

d)

  Bipolar cells

56.

Divergent sensory pathways explain the phenomenon of referred pain.

a)

  True

b)

  False

57.

Olfaction results from the stimulation of chemoreceptors.

a)

  True

b)

  False

58.

The macula sacculi is nearly horizontal and the macula utriculi is nearly vertical.

a)

  True

b)

False

59.

Vitamin A is necessary for the synthesis of rhodopsin.

a)

  True

b)

  False