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CARIOLOGY - MIDTERMS

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a composition of biofilm?

a)

Water

b)

Extracellular matric

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

their by-products

2.

A term historically used to describe the soft, tenacious film accumulating on the surface of teeth.

(a)  

3.

The biofilm is adherent to food debris, not a result from the haphazard collection of opportunistic microorganism

a)

The 1st statement is CORRECT, 2nd statement is INCORRECT

b)

BOTH statements are CORRECT

c)

The 1st statement is INCORRECT, 2nd statement is CORRECT

d)

BOTH statements are INCORRECT

4.

____________ demineralization may cause localized dissolution and destruction of the calcified dental tissue caries lesion.

a)

Repeated

b)

Cavitation in the enamel surface

c)

Dentin

d)

Enamel

5.

(a)   due to demineralization of the inorganic phase, and denaturation and degradation of the organic phase

6.

(a)   collapse of the surface from demineralization at the enamel subsurface level

7.

Low pH has effects both on the biofilm composition and at the tooth surface level

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Low pH drives calcium and phosphate from the tooth to the biofilm in an attempt to reach equilibrium, hence resulting in a net loss of mineral by tooth called (a)  

9.

What are the strategies that maintain a healthy microbiome?

a)

Probiotic

b)

Prebiotics

c)

pH modifiers

d)

All of the above

10.

Pathological factors that demineralize the tooth (Select all that applies)

a)

Acid-producing bacteria

b)

Saliva flow of the patient

c)

A only

d)

None of the above

11.

Functions of the pellicle (choose the correct one/s)

a)

to protect the enamel

b)

to provide a matrix for demineralization

c)

to provide a matrix for remineralization

d)

to reduce friction between teeth

e)

ALL OF THE ABOVE

12.

Pits and fissures provide excellent mechanical shelter for organisms and harbor a community dominated by S. sanguis and other streptococci

a)

True

b)

False

13.

The SECOND most susceptible areas to dental caries lesions

a)

Pits and fissures

b)

Proximal enamel surfaces

c)

Lingual

d)

All of the above

14.

Smooth enamel surfaces protected physically and are relatively free from the effects of:

a)

Mastication

b)

Tongue movement

c)

Biochemicals

d)

Salivary flow

15.

Smooth enamel surfaces important ecologic determinants for the biofilm community on the proximal surfaces:

a)

Diet of the patient

b)

Oral hygiene

c)

The size and shape of the gingival papillae

d)

Topography of the tooth surface

e)

All of the above

16.

Caries lesion progression in healthy individuals is usually _____ compared with the progression in compromised persons

a)

SLOW

b)

FAST

c)

MODERATE

d)

SWEET GIRL LANG

17.

Poor oral hygiene and frequent exposures to sucrose-containing or acidic food can produce noncavitated initial lesion in (a)   weeks.

18.

Caries lesion progression from a noncavitated caries lesion to a cavitated caries lesion on smooth surfaces is estimated to be _____ months

a)

12

b)

14

c)

16

d)

18

19.

Radiation related caries may develop in 3 months after (a)   due to radiation therapy

20.

Earliest evidence of enamel caries lesion also known as the "initial lesion" or (a)   and seen only when the tooth surface is desiccated.

21.

White spots of initial caries lesions partially or totally disappear visually when the enamel is dry

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

22.

The third stage of enamel caries

a)

The early lesion

b)

Cavity fomation

c)

Bacterial invasion of enamel

d)

Phase of non-bacterial enamel crystal destruction

23.

Forceful probing of the lesion a this stage can result in damage to the weakened porous enamel nd accelerate the progression of the lesion

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

24.

Progression of dental caries in dentin is different from progression in enamel because of the ________

a)

Structural difference of dentin

b)

The composition of dentin

c)

Pathways for the ingress of bacteria

d)

None of the above

25.

Dentin contains much less mineral and possesses microscopic tubules that provide a pathway for the ingress of the bacteria and egress of minerals

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

26.

The enzymes related to tissue healing or remodelling of implied in dentin caries lesion progression

(a)  

27.

What are the structures that can be seen in advance dentinal caries?

a)

Beaded dentin

b)

Dead tracts

c)

Transverse cleft

d)

Oblong cleft

28.

Caries lesion originating on the root are alarming because they: (choose the correct one/s)

a)

have a comparatively rapid progression

b)

closer to the pulp

c)

often symptomatic

d)

more difficult to restore

29.

Proximal root surface near the CEJ is often unaffected by the action of hygiene procedures such as flossing and favor the formation of mature, cariogenic biofilm and proximal root surface caries due to: (select the correct one/s)

a)

exposure to the oral environment as a result of gingival recession

b)

concave anatomic surface contours

c)

decreased salivary flow due to multiple medications

d)

occasional roughness at the termination of the enamel

30.

Caries lesions originating on the root are alarming because they...

a)

have comparatively rapid progression

b)

often asymptomatic

c)

more difficult to restore

d)

closer to the pulp

e)

All of the above

31.

Caries in cementum softens beneath the plaque over a wide area, producing (a)   cavitity (determine the structure or shape)

32.

Caries in cementum is due to the exposure of cementum by recession of the (a)  

33.

Identify the box (green)

(a)  

34.

______ is reduces the permeability of dentin, thus shielding the pulp from irritation

a)

dentinal sclerosis

b)

secondary dentin

c)

dead tracts

35.

The dentinal tubule become partly or completely filled with mineral deposits consisting of both (a)   and whitlockite crystals

36.

In highly active caries lesions, odontoblast may die before sclerosis has occurred.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Dead tract may form due to disintegration of odontoblast processes within the tubules

a)

True

b)

False

38.

What are the protective mechanism of the pulp?

a)

Tertiary dentin

b)

Secondary dentin

c)

Inflammation

d)

All of the above

39.

(a)   produced in response to some form of irritation. It is also deposited at the base of the dentinal tubules corresponding to the area of the tooth that is subjected to irritation.

40.

TRUE OR FALSE

Reactionary dentin is tertiary dentin formed by new generation of odontoblast-like cells due to stronger stimuli.

(a)  

41.

___________ dentin is tertiary dentin formed by surviving odontoblast cells, due to milder stimuli.

a)

Reactionary

b)

Reparative

42.

(a)   measures the degree to which the local environmental challenge favors the probability of carious lesions.

43.

Caries activity test provides an index of the success of therapeutic procedures, and monitors the effectiveness of education program

a)

First statement is CORRECT, second statement is INCORRECT

b)

BOTH statements are CORRECT

c)

First statement is INCORRECT, second statement is CORRECT

d)

BOTH statements are INCORRECT

44.

The uses of caries activity test, EXCEPT:

a)

to modify the patient behavior as a part of counselling to restrict sucrose intake

b)

establish a baseline of cariogenic pathogens as a basis for future evaluation and counselling

c)

ensure a low level caries activity before starting any extensive procedures

d)

None of the above

45.

The criteria for an ideal caries activity test

a)

valid

b)

insensitive

c)

reproducible

d)

simple and inexpensive

e)

measurable non-invasive

46.

Test which measure caries susceptibility


(choose the correct ones)

a)

Snyder's colorimetric test

b)

S. mutans screening tests

c)

Swab test

d)

Dewar test

47.

This measures the number of aciduric bacteria in a patient's saliva by counting the number of colonies which appear on tomato peptone agar plates

a)

Lactobacillus colony test

b)

S. mutans level saliva

c)

Streptococcus mutans screening test

d)

Dip-slide method for S. mutans

48.

Lactobacillus colony test incubation at 37 degree celcius for ____ days

a)

1-2

b)

3-4

c)

5-6

d)

7-8

49.

Measure the number of bacteria forming units per unit volume of saliva and plaque samples from discrete sites, such as occlusal fissures and proximal areas.

a)

Dewar test

b)

Swab test

c)

S. mutans level in saliva

d)

Lactobacillus colony test

50.

S. mutans level in saliva incubation is done on (a)   , selective streptococcal medium with addition of high concentration of sucrose (20%), and 0.2 Bacitracin (MSB), suppress the growth of most non-S. mutans colonies.

51.

_____ method of S. mutans screening test is a simple screening of dilutes plaque sample streaked on a selective culture media

a)

Plaque/tooth pick method

b)

Saliva/tongue blade method

c)

Dip-slide method

d)

None of the above

52.

_______ method S. mutans screening test that estimates the number of S. mutans in paraffin-stimulated saliva when cultured in Mutans Salivarius Bacitracin agar.

a)

Plaque/tooth pick method

b)

Saliva/tongue blade method

c)

Dip-slide method

53.

This method of S. mutans screening test is undiluted paraffin-stimulated saliva in poured on a special plastic slide, coated with MSA containing 20% sucrose

a)

Plaque/tooth pick method

b)

Saliva/tongue blade method

c)

Dip-slide method

d)

Albans test

54.

A simplified substitute for the Snyder test.

a)

Albans test

b)

Swab test

c)

Dewar test

d)

Buffer capacity test

55.

(a)   test same as Fosdick Calcium Dissolution test this procedure is not commonly used, as it has not been adequately tested for clinical correlation

56.

It is almost same as Snyder test, using a swab with a cotton applicator in the buccal surfaces of teeth which is subsequently incubated in the medium

a)

Buffer capacity test

b)

Swab test

c)

Dewar test

d)

Fosdick calcium dissolution test

57.

This test evaluates the quantity of acid requires to lower the pH of saliva through an arbitrary pH interval

a)

Swab Test

b)

Colorimetric Snyder Test

c)

Buffer capacity test

d)

Dewar Test

58.

Materials used in Buffer Capacity Test

a)

Titration equipment

b)

0.05 N lactic acid and 0.05 N base

c)

Paraffin

d)

Sterile glass containing a small amount of oil

e)

All of the above

59.

Measures the ability of salivary microorganisms to form organic acid from a carbohydrate medium

a)

Buffer capacity test

b)

Colorimetric Snyder test

c)

Dewar Test

d)

Swab test

60.

Measure the mount of calcium dissolved. Milligram of powdered enamel dissolved in for hours by acid formed when the patient's saliva is mixed with glucose and powdered enamel.

a)

Buffer capacity test

b)

Snyder test

c)

Dewar test

d)

Fosdick calcium dissolution test

61.

Measures the rate at which the indictor molecule diazoresorcinol, changes from blue to red to colorless or whitish on reduction by the mixed salivary flora.

a)

Salivary reductase test

b)

Buffer capacity test

c)

Snyder test

d)

Fosdick calcium dissolution test