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Econ Final

Total questions: 137

Worksheet time: 34hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Scarcity in economics means:

a)

the needs of people are limited

b)

the wants of people are limited

c)

there must be poor people in rich countries

d)

shortages exist in nearly all markets

e)

society is unable to produce all the goods and services we want with existing resources

2.

Whenever a choice is made:

a)

The cost of that choice could be referred to as opportunity cost

b)

the cost is easy to measure in dollar terms

c)

efficiency is always improved

d)

scarcity is not a problem

e)

marginal costs are greater than marginal benefits of that choice

3.

(Table 3-1: Production Possibilities Schedule I) The opportunity cost of producing the fourth unit of consumer goods is ____ units of capital goods

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

e)

10

4.

(Figure 3-1: Guns and Butter) Points A, B, E, and F:

a)

indicate combinations of guns and butter that society can produce using all of its factors efficiently

b)

show that the opportunity cost of more guns increases, but that of more butter decreases

c)

indicate that society wants butter more than it wants guns

d)

indicate constant costs for guns an increasing costs for butter

e)

indicate that society is experiencing many idle resources

5.

(Figure 3-1: Guns and Butter) This production possibility curve is:

a)

bowed out from the origin because of increasing opportunity costs

b)

bowed in toward the origin because of increasing opportunity costs

c)

bowed in toward the origin because of constant opportunity costs

d)

linear because of constant opportunity costs

e)

bowed out from the origin because of constant opportunity costs

6.

(Figure 3-2: Strawberries and Submarines) Suppose the economy is operating at point G. This implies that:

a)

the economy can move to a point such as C only if it improves its technology

b)

the economy is experiencing unemployment and/or an inefficient allocation of resources

c)

the economy lacks the resources to achieve a combination such that C

d)

people in this economy don't really like strawberries and submarines

e)

the economy can move to point B, but must sacrifice submarine production to do so

7.

(Figure 3-10: Consumer and Capital Goods II) Technological improvements will likely:

a)

shift the production possibility curve inward to Curve 1

b)

shift the production possibility curve outward to Curve 2

c)

lead to increased unemployment

d)

cause a movement from point C to point A

e)

cause a movement from point B to point C

8.

An economy is said to have a comparative advantage if:

a)

can produce more of all goods than another economy

b)

can produce less of all goods than another economy

c)

has the highest opportunity cost for producing a particular good

d)

has the lowest opportunity cost for producing a particular good

e)

has more economic resources than another country

9.

(Figure: Bicycles and Radishes I) The figure shows production possibility curve for two countries that produce only radishes and bicycles. The axes of both graphs are measured in equivalent units. Country A is now operating at point M, and Country B is operating at point N. The opportunity cost of producing an additional ton of radishes would be:

a)

greater in Country A than in Country B

b)

greater in Country B than in Country A

c)

the same in both countries

d)

greater at point M than at point N

e)

zero for either country if the country was operating on the production possibility curve

10.

(Table 4-1: Coffee and Salmon Production Possibilities) The table shows the maximum amounts of coffee and salmon that Brazil and Alaska can produce if they just produce one good. The opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of coffee for Brazil is:

a)

2 salmon

b)

1/4 salmon

c)

1 salmon

d)

1/2 salmon

e)

20 salmon

11.

Which of the following factors cause a movement along the demand curve for good X?

a)

change in the price of related good Y

b)

change in the price of good X

c)

change in the population

d)

both a change in the price of good X and a change in the population

e)

change in the popularity of good X

12.

Which of the following is most likely to shift the supply of milk to the right?

a)

a tax on each gallon of milk produced

b)

an increase in household income and milk is a normal good

c)

removal of milk subsidies that had previously been given to dairy farmers

d)

the bankruptcy of many small dairy farms

e)

a decrease in the price of feed given to dairy cows

13.

Which of the following will result in an increased price of milk?

a)

a shift to the right of the supply curve for milk

b)

a shift to the right of the demand curve for milk

c)

an increase in the number of milk suppliers

d)

a decrease in the number of milk buyers

e)

an increase in the production technology of milk suppliers

14.

An increase in price and an ambiguous change in quantity is most likely caused by:

a)

a shift to the left in demand and no shift in supply

b)

a shift to the left in supply and no shift in demand

c)

a shuft to the right in supply and a shift to the left in demand

d)

a shift to the right in supply and a shift to the right in demand

e)

a shift to the left in supply and a shift to the right in demand

15.

(Figure 7-5: DVD Market) At a rental price of $3, there will be

a)

equilibrium in the rental market for DVDs

b)

an increase in demand

c)

an excess supply of 40 DVD rentals

d)

an excess demand of 40 DVD rentals

e)

an excess demand of 10 DVD rentals

16.

The price of microchips used to produce computers falls. As a result, the equilibrium price of computers ______ and the equilibrium quantity ______.

a)

rises; increases

b)

rises; decreases

c)

falls; decreases

d)

falls; increases

e)

stays the same; decreases

17.

(Figure 8-4: Market for Blue Jeans) Suppose the government believes blue jeans are too expensive and it wants to make sure blue jeans are affordable to more citizens. This type of price control is called a ______ and the price would be set equal to ______.

a)

price floor, $100

b)

price floor, $35

c)

price ceiling, $55

d)

price ceiling, $100

e)

price ceiling, $80

18.

West African cotton farmers are very upset about the subsidies the U.S government pays to American cotton farmers. One reason for this could be that subsidized cotton from the United States:

a)

leads to global cotton surpluses and lower prices for West African farmers

b)

raises the world price of cotton

c)

has led to a global shortage of cotton

d)

has led to an increase in the demand for West African cotton

e)

has led to improved efficiency in the global cotton market

19.

the price elasticity of demand measure the responsiveness of the change in:

a)

quantity demanded to a change in consumer income

b)

price to a change in quantity demanded

c)

the slope of the demand curve to a change in price

d)

the slope of the demand curve to a change in quantity demanded

e)

quantity demanded to a change in price

20.

If the price of a good is increased by 20% and the quantity demanded decreases by 15%, then the price elasticity of demand is equal to:

a)

0.75

b)

approximately 0.33

c)

approximately 1.33

d)

1

e)

zero

21.

The demand for textbooks is price inelastic. Which of the following would explain this?

a)

Many alternative textbooks can be used as substitutes

b)

Students have a lot of time to adjust to price changes

c)

Textbook purchases consume a large portion of students' income

d)

Textbooks are luxury goods for college students

e)

The good is a necessity for college students

22.

When a consumer consumes more of a good that has become cheaper in place of a good that has become relatively more expensive, this is known as the:

a)

substitution effect

b)

income effect

c)

budget constraint

d)

inferior effect

e)

normal effect

23.

Each month Jessica buys exactly 4 Big Macs regardless of the price. Jessica's price elasticity of demand for Big Macs is:

a)

0

b)

1

c)

greater than 1, but less than 4

d)

less than 1, but greater than 0

e)

greater than 4

24.

You manage a popular malt shop and lately revenues have been disappointing. Your friend suggests that raising soda prices will increase revenues, but your waitress suggests that decreasing soda prices will increase revenues. You aren't sure who is right, but you do know that:

a)

your friend thinks the demand for sodas is elastic, while your waitress thinks the demand for sodas is inelastic

b)

your friend thinks the demand for sodas is inelastic, while your waitress thinks the demand for sodas is elastic

c)

both the friend and waitress think the demand for soda is elastic

d)

both the friend and waitress think the demand for soda is inelastic

e)

your friend thinks the demand curve for sodas is nearly horizontal, while your waitress thinks the demand curve is nearly vertical

25.

Suppose the price of cereal rose by 25% and the quantity of milk sold decreased by 50%. Then we know that the:

a)

cross-price elasticity between cereal and milks is -2

b)

cross-price elasticity between cereal and milks is -0.5

c)

price elasticity of demand for milk is 2

d)

cross-price elasticity of demand for milk is 2

e)

price elasticity of demand for cereal is 0.5

26.

When Joe's income is $100 per week, he spends $20 per week on pizza. When his income rises to $110 per week, he spends $25 per week on pizza. If the price of pizza remains constant, this information implies that for Joe:

a)

pizza is a normal good and a luxury

b)

pizza is a normal good and a necessity

c)

pizza is an inferior good

d)

demand for pizza is price-elastic

e)

demand for pizza is price-inelastic

27.

Which of the following would be most likely to have a vertical supply curve?

a)

salt

b)

oil

c)

insulin

d)

paintings by Van Gogh

e)

gasoline

28.

(Table 49-1: Consumer Surplus and Phantom Tickets) If the box-office price of a ticket to see Phantom of the Opera is $50, and there is no other market for tickets, then total consumer surplus for the five students is:

a)

$100

b)

$175

c)

$230

d)

$240

e)

$200

29.

Which of the following is true if there is a decrease in the demand for ice cream?

a)

There is an increase in producer surplus

b)

There is a decrease in producer surplus

c)

There is no change in producer surplus

d)

There is an increase in consumer surplus

e)

There is an increase in deadweight loss

30.

(Figure 49-8: Producer Surplus II) At a price of P1, producer surplus equals the area:

a)

LMK

b)

P1K0

c)

P2M0

d)

P2P1KM

e)

0P1KQ1

31.

Suppose the government imposes a $4 excise tax on Good X. If the demand for Good X is perfectly elastic and the supply curve is elastic, then the price consumers pay for Good X will:

a)

increase by more than $4

b)

increase by exactly $4

c)

increase, but by less than $4

d)

decrease, but by less than $4

e)

remain constant

32.

Oranges cost $2 per pound and starfruit cost $5 per pound. The table shows Ned's total utility from eating various amounts of oranges and starfruits. How many pounds of oranges and starfruit would Ned eat, if Ned has $26?

a)

0 pounds of oranges, 5 pounds of starfruit, $1 left over

b)

8 pounds of oranges and 2 pounds of starfruit

c)

3 pounds of oranges and 4 pounds of starfruit

d)

4 pounds of oranges and 5 pounds of starfruit

e)

3 pounds of oranges and 3 pounds of starfruit

33.

Jenny believes that spending one hour studying for economics will increase her grade by 20 points. Studying for a second hour will increase her grade by 10 points. She also believes that studying for an hour of history will increase her grade by 15 points, but spending a second hour will increase her grade by only 5 points. Jenny has two hours to study. If Jenny wants to maximize her scores, what should she do?

a)

study 1 hour for economics and 1 hour for history

b)

study 2 hour for economics and 0 hour for history

c)

study 0 hour for economics and 2 hour for history

d)

study 1 hour for economics and 0 hour for history

e)

study 1 hour for economics and 2 hour for history

34.

Joseph consumer pizza and soda. He is currently consuming three units of pizza and two units of soda. If he is consuming the optimal consumption bundle and his marginal utility of pizza is 50, then his marginal utility of soda is:

a)

50

b)

10

c)

5

d)

impossible to determine unless you know Joseph's income

e)

25

35.

If a consumer purchases a combination of commodities A and B such that MUA/PA = 50 and MUB/PB = 30, to maximize utility, the consumer should:

a)

buy less of both A and B

b)

buy more of both A and B

c)

by more of A and less of B

d)

buy less of A and more of B

e)

make no changes to the current combination of A and B

36.

If economic profit for a firm is negative:

a)

the firm should exit the industry in the long run

b)

accounting profit must also be negative

c)

the firm should stay in business so long as accounting profit is positive

d)

the firm will not owe any taxes to the government

e)

the firm is earning a normal profit

37.

For most firms, economic profit is:

a)

less than accounting profit

b)

equal to accounting profit

c)

greater than accounting profit

d)

negative in the short run

e)

positive in the short run but negative in the long run

38.

Pauli's Pizza offers the following prices: one slice for $2, two slices for $3.50, three slices for $4.50, four slices for $5.00. Sal orders two slices. From this we know that Sal's marginal benefit from the second slice must be at least _______ while the marginal benefit from the third slice must be less than ______.

a)

$3.50; $4.50

b)

$3.50; $1.00

c)

$1.50; $1.00

d)

$1.50; $4.50

e)

$5.50; $10.50

39.

Which of the following scenarios best describes an oligopolistic industry?

a)

A single cable company serves customers in a small town.

b)

Thousands of soybean farmers sell their output in a global commodities market.

c)

Coca-Cola and Pepsi sell most of the soft drinks consumed around the world.

d)

A college has one bookstore selling textbooks to students.

e)

Hundreds of firms produce similar, but differentiated, types of shoes

40.

You own a small manufacturing company that produces gadgets. The table shows the quantity of gadgets that you could produce, the total cost you incur at each level of productions, and the total revenue you learn at each level of production. At what level of output does marginal revenue equal marginal cost?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

1

d)

5

e)

4

41.

(Figure 65-8: Pricing Strategy in Cable TV Market II) The dominant strategy for CableNorth:

a)

is to charge a high price

b)

is always to charge a low price

c)

is to always charge what CableSouth does

d)

does not exist

e)

is to charge the opposite of what CableSouth does

42.

(Table 54-1: Labor and Output) Referring to the table, the marginal product of the fifth worker is:

a)

8

b)

4

c)

3

d)

40

e)

36

43.

(Table 54-9: Marginal Product of Labor) Using the table above, the total product of labor for three workers is:

a)

51 bushels

b)

45 bushels

c)

39 bushels

d)

15 bushels

e)

17 bushels

44.

At 76 units of labor, a firms finds that average product of labor equals 39.6 and marginal product of labor equals 42.9. We can conclude that the average product curve at 76 units of labor is:

a)

upward-sloping

b)

downward-sloping

c)

vertical

d)

horizontal

e)

maximized

45.

(Table 55-1: Cost Data) The table shows some cost data for a firm currently operating in the short run. What is the value of the total fixed cost for this firm?

a)

$40

b)

$50

c)

$100

d)

$70

e)

It is impossible to determine without more information

46.

(Table 65-1: Two Rival Gas Stations) There are only two gas stations in a small town, Swiftly Gas and Speedy Gas. Each firm can set either a high price or a low price, and customers view these two firms as nearly perfect substitutes. The table shows the payoff matrix of daily profits that each firm would receive from their pricing decision, given the pricing decision of their rival. Profits in each cell of the payoff matrix are given as (Swifty, Speedy). If each firm sets the price independently, the Nash equilibrium outcome will be:

a)

$100, $100

b)

$150, $50

c)

$25, $150

d)

$50, $50

e)

A Nash equilibrium does not exist in this game

47.

The marginal cost curve is the mirror image of the:

a)

total product curve

b)

average product curve

c)

marginal product curve

d)

average total cost curve

e)

marginal utility curve

48.

For the monopolistically competitive seafood market, the demand curve for any individual firm is and there producers of seafood.

a)

downward-sloping; are few

b)

upward-sloping; are many

c)

vertical; are a few

d)

downward-sloping; are many

e)

downward-sloping; one or two

49.

(Table 55-2: Output and Costs) Using the information in the table, when quantity increases from one to two, marginal cost equals:

a)

13

b)

10

c)

18

d)

17

e)

8

50.

Kalie Cakes is currently producing 10 cakes per day. The marginal cost of the tenth cake is $24, and average total cost of 10 cakes is $6. The average total cost of 9 cakes is:

a)

$4

b)

$5

c)

$6

d)

$8

e)

$9

51.

Suppose a monopolistically competitive firm is producing the profit-maximizing level of output and is earning an economic profit in the short run. Then:

a)

price is less than average total cost

b)

price is less that marginal cost

c)

marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost

d)

marginal revenue equals marginal cost

e)

average total cost is at its minimum point

52.

(Figure 56-1: Long-Run Average Cost) Output per period in the region from 0 to A indicates that a firm is experiencing:

a)

diseconomies of scale

b)

constant returns to scale

c)

decreasing returns to scale

d)

negative costs of production

e)

economies of scale

53.

The price received by a firm in a perfectly competetitive market:

a)

is equal to the market price

b)

is less than the market price

c)

is greater than the market price

d)

decreases as the quantity of output sold by the firm increases

e)

is equal to total revenue earned by the firm

54.

The demand curve for a perfectly competitive firm is:

a)

perfectly inelastic

b)

perfectly elastic

c)

downward-sloping

d)

relatively, but not perfectly elastic

e)

non-existent

55.

If a perfectly competitive firm sells 30 units of output at a price of $10 per unit, its marginal revenue is:

a)

$10

b)

$30

c)

$0

d)

$300

e)

$3

56.

(Figure 67-1: Monopolistic Competition I) Which of the panels in the figure shows a monopolistic competitor earning a profit in the short run?

a)

Panel a

b)

Panel b

c)

Panel c

d)

Both panels a and c

e)

None of the panels show a profit in the short run

57.

A competitive firm operating in the short run is producing at the output level at which ATC is not at a minimum. If ATC = $8 and MR = $9, in order to maximize profits (or minimize losses), this firm should:

a)

increase output

b)

reduce output

c)

shut down

d)

do nothing; the firm is already maximizing profits

e)

liquidate assets and exit the industry

58.

If a perfectly competitive firm is producing a quantity that generates MC > MR, then profit:

a)

is maximized

b)

can be increased by increasing production

c)

can be increased by decreasing production

d)

can be increased by decreasing the price

e)

is negative and the firm should exit the market

59.

The monopolistic competitor in the figure is producing at the output level that maximizes profit (minimizes losses). The shaded rectangle depicts the level of:

a)

profit

b)

loss

c)

fixed cost

d)

variable cost

e)

total cost

60.

Suppose the dry-cleaning market is monopolistically competitive and economically profitable this year. In the long-run, the demand for any one firm's dry-cleaning services will as more firms enter the industry, causing profits to

a)

decrease; become economic losses

b)

decrease; fall to zero

c)

not change; fall

d)

increase; increase

e)

increase; fall to zero

61.

A monopolistically competitive firm is operating in the short run at the optimal level of output and is earning positive economic profits. Which of the following describes how this firm will adjust in the long run?

a)

Entry of new firms shifts the firm's demand and marginal revenue curves leftward, decreasing the firm's level of output, and decreasing the firm's level of output, and increasing the price the firm can charge until the price equals average total cost.

b)

Entry of new firms shifts the firm's demand and marginal revenue curves leftward, decreasing the firm's level of output, and decreasing the price the firm can charge until price equals average total cost.

c)

Entry of new firms shifts the firm's marginal cost and average total cost curves downward, decreasing the firm's level of output, and decreasing the price the firm can charge until price equals average total cost.

d)

Exit of firms shifts the firm's demand and marginal revenue curves rightward, increasing the firm's level of output, and increasing the price the firm can charge until price equals average total cost.

e)

Entry of new firms shifts the firm's demand and marginal revenue curves leftward, decreasing the firm's level of output, and decreasing the price the firm can charge until price equals average variable cost.

62.

The largest HHI possible is in the case of and the index is this case is equal to .

a)

monopoly; 10

b)

monopoly; 10,000

c)

monopoly; 100,000

d)

oligopoly; 100,000

e)

perfect competition; 10,000

63.

Raclette is a popular wintertime dish in Switzerland. It is essentially melted Raclette cheese over boiled new potatoes. If the price of this cheese decreased, we would expect:

a)

an increase in demand for the cheese

b)

an increase in demand for new potatoes

c)

there to be no effect on the demand for either the cheese or the new potatoes

d)

an increase in demand both for the cheese and for the new potatoes

e)

a decrease in the demand for new potatoes

64.

When the price of lamps increases, the:

a)

supply increases

b)

quantity supplied increases

c)

supply decreases

d)

quantity supplied decreases

e)

quantity supplied increases

65.

The incidence of a tax:

a)

is a measure of the revenue the government receieves from the tax

b)

refers to who writes the check to the governement

c)

refers to the share of the tax paid by consumers and the share paid by sellers

d)

is a measure of the deadweight loss from the tax

e)

is the price elasticity of demand after the tax is paid

66.

At the profit-maxmizing quantity of outpit in the figure, total revenue is $______, total cost is $______ and profit is $_______

a)

90; 14; 76

b)

90; 70; 20

c)

30; 42; -12

d)

48; 56; -8

e)

70; 70; 0

67.

(Figure 59-3: Profit Maximizing) The figure shows cost curves for a firm operating in a perfectly competitive market. M is the _______ curve.

a)

ATC

b)

MR

c)

Profit

d)

AVC

e)

MC

68.

(Figure 59-4: A Perfectly Competitive Firm in the Short Run) The firm's total economic profit at its most profitable level of output is:

a)

0GHB

b)

EFJS

c)

EGHS

d)

FGLK

e)

NFKU

69.

A perfectly competitive firm will continue producing in the short run as long as it can cover its:

a)

total cost

b)

average fixed cost

c)

variable cost

d)

fixed cost

e)

marginal cost

70.

In the figure, if the market price is $18, this firm will:

a)

incur economic losses

b)

earn a positive economic profit

c)

earn break-even profits

d)

be forced to shut down

e)

increase output

71.

A monopoly is likely to ______ units of output and ______ price than a perfectly competitive firm

a)

produce more; charge a higher

b)

produce fewer; charge a higher

c)

produce more; charge a lower

d)

produce fewer; charge a lower

e)

produce equivalent; charge a higher

72.

Suppose that a monopolist increases production from 10 units to 11 units. If the market price declines from $30 per unit to $29 per unit, marginal revenue for the eleventh unit is:

a)

$1

b)

$9

c)

$19

d)

$29

e)

$11

73.

The long-run average total cost of producing 100 units of output is $4, while the long-run average total cost of producing 110 units of output is $5. These numbers suggest that the firm producing this output is experiencing:

a)

economies of scale

b)

diseconomies of scale

c)

constant returns to scale

d)

diminishing marginal returns

e)

increasing returns to scale

74.

The demand for factors of production is called a derived demand because it is:

a)

derived from the marginal cost of employing those factors

b)

derived from the available supply of factors

c)

not easy to determine and must be derived by a technical (and often complicated) process

d)

derived on the basis of questions posed to residents during the census

e)

derived from the demand for outputs that are produced by the factors of production

75.

Which of the following is not a factor of production at a college?

a)

the faculty

b)

classroom buildings

c)

the value of stocks and bonds owned by the college

d)

the computer labs

e)

the gymnasium

76.

When labor is hired in a competitive market, the marginal revenue product of labor is computed by:

a)

multiplying the price of the output by the marginal product of labor

b)

multiplying the price of the output by the wage paid to the labor

c)

multiplying the wage paid to labor by the marginal product of labor

d)

dividing the marginal product of labor by the price of the output

e)

multiplying the price of the output by the total product of labor

77.

(Table 69-1: Total Product of Labor at Debbie's Bakery) Debbie owns a bakery and can hire workers to produce cakes selling in a competitive output market at $10 each. The table shows the relationship between the number of workers and the number of cakes produced. What is the marginal revenue product of the fourth worker?

a)

five cakes

b)

$50

c)

$210

d)

21 cakes

e)

$250

78.

An increase in market demand for electricians might occur if:

a)

the market price of electrical repair and installation services increases.

b)

the demand for new houses falls.

c)

the price of copper electrical wiring increases.

d)

the wage for electricians falls.

e)

the wage for electricians rises.

79.

To maximize profits a firm will employ workers up to the point at which for the last worker employed:

a)

marginal product is equal to the nominal wage rate.

b)

the marginal revenue product is equal to the wage rate.

c)

the marginal revenue product is equal to the price per unit of output.

d)

the marginal revenue product is as high as possible

e)

the marginal product is equal to the price per unit of output

80.

For a perfectly competitive employer, the marginal revenue product curve is the firm's labor curve. This means the marginal product curve has a slope.

a)

demand; positive

b)

supply; positive

c)

demand; negative

d)

supply; negative

e)

demand; horizontal

81.

Phil's Photo Studio pays its worker $60 per day and it sells photos for $10 per print. Now the market wage rises to $70. What happens to Phil's labor demands?

a)

The demand for labor increases.

b)

The demand for labor decreases.

c)

The quantity demanded of labor increases but the demand for labor curve does not shift.

d)

The quantity demanded of labor decreases but the demand for labor curve does not shift.

e)

There are no shifts of, and no movements along, the labor demand curve.

82.

Suppose you achieve your dream of opening your own art studio, specializing in selling mud statues. You pay $10 in fixed costs for equipment, and you pay $9 per day to each of your workers who make the mud statues. You know the mud statues industry is perfectly competitive, with a current market price of $1. The table shows your production function. How many statues should you produce?

a)

25

b)

35

c)

43

d)

48

e)

10

83.

Suppose all perfectly competitive fast-food firms are hiring the profit-maximizing quantity of labor and are paying their workers $7 per hour. Then suppose the government decides to raise the minimum wage to $8 per hour. Then:

a)

since the marginal revenue product would exceed the wage, firms would hire more workers.

b)

since the marginal revenue product would be less than the wage, firms would lay off some workers.

c)

the firms would increase their prices to keep the marginal revenue product equal to the wage

d)

firms would have to exit the industry since the marginal revenue product is less than the wage

e)

firms would be unable to alter their hiring because the minimum wage is set by the government

84.

Oscar's Wilderness Flower Shop maximizes profits by hiring four workers in a perfectly competitive labor market. The workers and their MRPs are Afred - $30, Barbara - $35, Calvin - $27, and Diana - $15. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

In equilibrium, each worker would be paid his or her MRP

b)

Each worker would be paid a wage equal to the highest MRP (i.e. $40)

c)

Each worker would be paid $15

d)

We need to know the product price before we can figure out the wage rate.

e)

Each worker would be paid the average of the four MRPs

85.

(Table 69-3: Employment and Output) In the table, if the price of a bushel of wheat is $10, then the marginal revenue product of the third worker is:

a)

$15

b)

$150

c)

$170

d)

$510

e)

$10

86.

A factor demand curve will shift to the right because of a(n)

a)

increase in the price of the factor

b)

increase in the price of the good the factor produces

c)

decrease in the price of the factor

d)

decrease in the price of the good the factor produces

e)

increase in the elasticity of demand for the final product.

87.

(Table 69-4: Marginal Revenue Product of Labor and Demand) If the product price is $2 per unit, the marginal revenue product for the fifth unit of labor is:

a)

$0

b)

$20

c)

$40

d)

$60

e)

$280

88.

Which of the following would cause the supply of teachers to decrease?

a)

The overall size of the workforce increased

b)

The government required another year of college before a teacher could begin teaching

c)

The wage for teachers rose

d)

The population of school-aged children increased.

e)

The value of wealth decreased

89.

When the competitive labor market is in equilibrium, we know that:

a)

the quantity of labor demanded is greater than the quantity of labor supplied

b)

the quantity of labor demanded is less than the quantity of labor supplied

c)

the wage is less than the marginal revenue of the last worker employed

d)

the wage is determined by the monopolist

e)

the quantity of labor demanded is equal to the quantity of labor supplied

90.

Because monopoly firms are the only firm in the market:

a)

they can maximize total revenue, but cannot maximize profit

b)

they sell more at higher prices than at lower prices

c)

they take the market-determined price as given and sell all they can at that price

d)

they charge the highest possible price

e)

they can only sell more by lowering price

91.

A single buyer in a factor market is called a:

a)

monopoly

b)

labor union

c)

monopsony

d)

cartel

e)

wage taker

92.

(Table 71- 1: Marci's Monopsony) Marci is a monopsony employer of bakers. The table shows how many hours of labor will be supplied at a variety of wages. If the marginal revenue product of labor is a constant $7, how many hours will Marci employ?

a)

7

b)

0

c)

5

d)

6

e)

4

93.

Which of the following is true concerning monopoly?

a)

a monopoly firm must accept the market price and has no ability to change it

b)

a monopoly firm has several close competitors in the market

c)

a monopoly firm typically earns break-even long-run profits

d)

barriers to entry prevent other firms from entering the industry

e)

a monopolist is considered a price-taking firm

94.

When compared to a perfectly competitive labor marker, a monopsony labor market

a)

hires fewer workers and pays the same wage

b)

hires fewer workers and pays a higher wage

c)

hires more workers and pays a lower wage

d)

hires fewer workers and pays a lower wage

e)

hires more workers and pays the same wage

95.

(Figure 61-1: Profit-Maximizing Output and Price) Assume there are no fixed costs and AC = MC. In the figure, at the profit-maximizing quantity of production for the monopolist, total revenue is ______, total cost is ______, and profit is ______

a)

$600; $200; $400

b)

$1,600; $3,200; $1,600

c)

$4,800; $3,200; $1.600

d)

$4,800; $1,600; $3,200

e)

$1,600; $800; $800

96.

The wage rate is $20 per hour and the last worker hired by the firm increased output by 100 units. Computers rent for $50 per hour and the last computer rented by the firm increased output by 200 units. If the firm is producing the desired level of output, what should the firm do to minimize costs?

a)

Hire more workers and rent more computers because the marginal revenue product of both workers and computers are greater than their respective prices

b)

Keep the same number of workers and computers because the marginal revenue products of both workers are positive

c)

Lay off workers and rent more computers because computers produce more output per dollar of additional expenditure

d)

Lay off workers and rent more computers because computers produce more output

e)

Hire more workers and reduce the number of computers rented because the higher the marginal product per dollar spent is higher for workers

97.

The XYZ Company is a profit-maximizing firm with a monopoly in the production of pennants. The firm sells its pennants for $10 each and economic profit is positive. We can conclude that the XYZ Company is producing a level of output at which:

a)

average total cost equals $10

b)

average total cost is greater than $10

c)

marginal revenue equals $10

d)

marginal revenue is greater than $10

e)

marginal cost equals marginal revenue at a value less than $10

98.

The U-shape of the long-run average total cost curve is the result of:

a)

technological change

b)

economies and diseconomies of scale

c)

constant marginal returns to labor

d)

sunk costs

e)

inefficient management at all levels of output

99.

Max employs both labor and capital to produce his trinkets. Currently the last unit of labor employed has a marginal product of 100 units. The last unit of capital employed has a marginal product of 40 units. The price of labor is $25 per unit and the price of capital is $10 per unit. Max should:

a)

Increase the hiring of both labor and capital

b)

Increase the hiring of labor and decrease the hiring of capital

c)

Decrease the hiring of labor and increase the hiring of capital

d)

Do nothing; he is hiring the optimal quantity of labor and capital

e)

Decrease the hiring of both labor and capital

100.

Eric is a college professor who uses a laptop computer to write exam questions on the side. For Eric, he and his laptop computer are:

a)

both examples of labor

b)

more productive when used together, rather than when they are used separately

c)

substitute inputs in the production process

d)

both examples of [physical capital

e)

both examples are human capital

101.

If the marginal revenue received from selling a good is less than the marginal cost of production, then:

a)

the firm's profit can be improved if production increases

b)

the firm's profit can be improved if production decreases

c)

the firm's profit cannot be improved by changing production

d)

the firm is producing too little of the good

e)

the firm is producing the optimal quantity of the good

102.

Price discrimination is the practice of:

a)

offering differentiated products to consumers with different tastes

b)

paying different prices to suppliers of different goods

c)

equating price to marginal cost

d)

equating price to marginal revenue

e)

charging different prices to buyers of the same good

103.

(Table 61-1: Demand and Total Cost) Lenoia runs a natural monopoly firm producing electricity for a small mountain village. The table shows Lenoia's demand and total cost of producing electricity. To maximize profits, Lenoia should charge a price of:

a)

$350

b)

$400

c)

$450

d)

$500

e)

$300

104.

(Table 61-1: Demand and Total Cost) Lenoia runs a natural monopoly firm producing electricity for a small mountain village. The table shows Lenoia's demand and total cost of producing electricity. The marginal revenue of the fourth unit of production is:

a)

$200

b)

$250

c)

$450

d)

$500

e)

$400

105.

The socially optimal quantity of pollution occurs where:

a)

the marginal social benefit of pollution is equal to the marginal social cost of pollution.

b)

the marginal social benefit of pollution is greater than the marginal social cost of pollution.

c)

the marginal social benefit of pollution is less than the marginal social cost of pollution.

d)

there is no pollution

e)

the total benefit of pollution is equal to the total cost of pollution

106.

Most electric, gas, and water companies are examples of:

a)

unregulated monopolies

b)

natural monopolies

c)

restricted-input monopolies

d)

sunk-cost monopolies

e)

private monopolies

107.

If regulation of a monopoly results in a price equal to marginal cost, but price is below average total cost:

a)

the firm can still make an economic profit

b)

the firm will earn only a zero economic progit

c)

efficiency is lost

d)

the firm will require subsidization or it will go out of business

e)

deadweight loss exists

108.

Which of the following is an example of an activity generating negative externality?

a)

You buy a new car and discover it needs a new transmission

b)

Jane enjoys canoeing on a quiet mountain lake

c)

The only two coffee shops in town conspire to raise prices

d)

After Jane bought health insurance, she began racing motorcycles on the weekends

e)

Your next-door neighbor mows the lawn at 6 AM

109.

After the first unit sold, the marginal revenue a monopolist receives from selling one more unit of a good is less than the price at which that unit is sold because of:

a)

economies of scale

b)

increasing marginal cost

c)

a downward-sloping demand curve

d)

declining average fixed cost

e)

diminishing marginal returns in production

110.

(Figure 61-2: Computing Monopoly Profit) The profit-maximizing price is _____ and will generate total economic profit of _____

a)

P2; EF

b)

P3; the rectangle P1P2FG

c)

P3; the rectangle P2P3EF

d)

P3; EF

e)

P3; the rectangle P1P3EG

111.

The graph shows a monopoly firm that sells gadgets. If the firm is regulated such that the firm earns zero economic profit, the firm will sell _____ units at a price of _____ per unit.

a)

Q1; P1

b)

Q2; P1

c)

Q4; P3

d)

Q3; P2

e)

Q3; P3

112.

Prof. Dumbler has a monopoly on magic hats. He sells at most one hat to each customer, and the table shows each customer's willingness to pay. The marginal cost of producing a hat is $18. Suppose Dumbler can perfectly price discriminate. How many hats will he produce?

a)

three

b)

four

c)

five

d)

six

e)

seven

113.

Suppose Prof. Dumbler's magic hat monopoly is broken up and the magic hat industry becomes perfectly competitive. We would expect the ______ to increase from the breakup and ______ to decrease from the breakup

a)

producer surplus; consumer surplus and total surplus

b)

consumer surplus; producer surplus and total surplus

c)

price; output

d)

producer surplus and total surplus; consumer surplus

e)

consumer surplus and total surplus; producer surplus

114.

A natural monopoly exists whenever a single firm:

a)

is owned and operated by the federal or local government

b)

is investor-owned but has been granted the exclusive right by the government to operate in a market

c)

earns economic profits in the long run

d)

has gained control over a strategic input of an important production process

e)

experiences economies of scale over the entire range of production that is relevant to its market

115.

The deadweight loss associated with this monopoly can be measured as the area:

a)

1/2(P1 - P2)(Q2 - Q1)

b)

1/2(P2 - P4)(Q4 - Q2)

c)

1/2(P1 - P3)(Q3

d)

1/2(P1 - P3)Q2

e)

P4Q4

116.

The following are four statements about monopoly and perfect competition. Which of these is correct?

a)

a monopolist has market power while a perfect competitor does not

b)

like a perfectly competitive firm, a monopoly can make positive economic profits in the long run

c)

a monopoly will charge a higher price and produce a larger quantity than a competitive market with the same demand and cost structure

d)

monopoly profits cannot continue to exist in the long run, because there are no barriers to entry

e)

the demand for the monopolist's product is highly elastic due to many available substitutes

117.

If drivers decide to make cell phone calls without considering the cost imposed on others, the

a)

Number of phone calls made while driving will be above the socially optimal quantity

b)

number of phone calls made while driving will be below the social optimum quality

c)

marginal social cost curve for cell phone calls will lie below the marginal cost of production curve

d)

marginal social benefit curve for cell phone calls will lie below the marginal cost of production curve

e)

number of phone calls made while driving will be the socially optimal

118.

Which of the following is an example of a negative externality?

a)

high prices for necessities such as drinking water in the aftermath of a natural disaster

b)

the risks to nonsmoker from second-hand smoke

c)

the increased risk of a head injury to a motorcyclist who fails to wear her helmet

d)

unemployment in the steel industry caused by low prices of external steel

e)

the vaccination of young children for certain contagious diseases

119.

An externality is said to exist when:

a)

individuals impose costs or benefits on others but have no incentive to take these costs and benefits account

b)

individuals impose costs or benefits on others and the market provides incentives to take these costs and into account

c)

individual actions are affected by external forces for example the loss of US jobs due to competition from abroad is an externality

d)

individual actions are affected by government policies such as taxes that are externally imposed on the market

e)

the quantity of a good produced in the market is the socially optimal quantity

120.

(Figure 74-1: The Socially Optimal Quantity of Pollution) In the figure, the optimal level of pollution is:

a)

zero, since no pollution is best for society

b)

where the marginal social benefit curve intersects the quantity axis

c)

where the marginal social cost curve intersects the quantity axis

d)

where the marginal social benefit curve intersects the marginal social cost curve

e)

where marginal social benefit curve intersects the vertical axis

121.

If external costs exist, the competitve free market:

a)

inefficiently allocates resources

b)

efficiently allocates resources

c)

automatically corrects an overallocation of resources

d)

automatically corrects an under allocation of resources

e)

cannot provide any units of the good without government assistance

122.

Suppose that the federal government determines the total level of municipal sewage that can be discharged by cities located along the river. If the cities are able to exchange rights to this total discharge level among themselves this would be an environmental policy of

a)

emissions taxes

b)

regulations

c)

tradeable pollution permits

d)

command and control

e)

pollution subsidies

123.

If government officials set an emissions tax too low:

a)

there will be too little pollution

b)

there will be too much pollution

c)

the marginal social cost of pollution will be less than the marginal social benefit of pollution

d)

there will be the efficient level of pollution

e)

the externality will be completely internalized

124.

A negative externality

a)

is any cost above the economic cost

b)

equals the social cost plus the firm's private cost

c)

is an uncompensated cost imposed by an individual firm or firm on others

d)

equals the opportunity cost minus the social cost

e)

is best internalized by subsidizing the production of the good generating the negative externality

125.

Assume there are external benefits associated with the production of good x. Without government regulation the market will:

a)

Produce too much of good X

b)

generate a price below the marginal social cost

c)

generate a price equal to marginal social benefit

d)

generate a price above the marginal cost

e)

under allocate resources to the production of good x

126.

Which of the following is an example of an activity generating a positive externaility

a)

You buy a new car and then find 5000 in the door panel

b)

Your next-door neighbor mows the lawn at 6 AM

c)

Your next door neighbor installs a bat house and the bats eat mosquitos

d)

Joe buys health insurance, but decides not to take the time to get a flu shot

e)

An oil platform explodes and crude oil washes up all over a tourist beach

127.

Figure 75-7: Positive Externalities of Semiconductor Chip: If the marginal external benefit of producing a chip is $10, then the socially optimal quantity of chips is and the socially optimal price is

a)

200; $20

b)

300; $25

c)

500; $35

d)

600; $20

e)

400; $40

128.

Which of the following goods best fit the characteristics of a private good?

a)

a professor giving a lecture in a large classroom

b)

national defense

c)

fire protection

d)

disease prevention

e)

an ice-cream cone

129.

Television programs are non-rival because:

a)

the supplier cannot prevent consumption by people who do not pay for it

b)

the program is subject to the free-rider program

c)

individuals ignore the effect their use has on the amount of the resources remaining on others

d)

the market suffers from inefficiently low consumption

e)

more than one person can consume the same unit of the good at the same time

130.

The free-rider problem is the direct result of

a)

the inability to exclude non taxpayers

b)

marginal-cost pricing

c)

full-cost pricing

d)

horizontally summed supply curves

e)

rivalry in consumption

131.

When the market does not result in an efficient allocation of scarce resources, economists call this

a)

market dropout

b)

normative economics

c)

market disincentives

d)

market failure

e)

market planning

132.

The is widely used to measure income inequality

a)

Gini coefficient

b)

median household income

c)

poverty rate

d)

ability-to-pay principle

e)

unemployment rate

133.

Figure 76-2: Traffic Lights in Sleepytown: Sleepytown has 1000 residents the figure shows the marginal social benefit and marginal cost of traffic lights, a public good in town We know that each of the residents has the same individual marginal benefit per traffic light if the government provides traffic lights the socially efficient quantity is

a)

0

b)

4

c)

8

d)

12

e)

6

134.

Progressive taxes are designed to

a)

redistribute income from poor households to rich households and reduce income inequality

b)

redistribute income from rich households to poor households to increase income inequality

c)

redistribute income from rich households to poor households and increase poverty rates

d)

redistribute income from poor households to rich households to increase income inequality

e)

redistribute income from rich households to poor households and reduce income inequality

135.

Figure 77-1: The figure above shows a natural monopoly. If the firm is unregulated, what will be the profit maximizing monopoly price and quantity

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

136.

Figure 77-1: The figure above shows a natural monopoly. The shaded area shown in the graph represents:

a)

deadweight losses

b)

consumer surplus

c)

producer surplus

d)

allocative efficiency

e)

economic profits

137.

The graph shows a monopoly firm that sells gadgets. If the firm is regulated such that there is no dead weight loss, the firm will sell _____ units at a price of _____ per unit

a)

Q1; P1

b)

Q2; P1

c)

Q4; P3

d)

Q3; P2

e)

Q3; P3