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ITIL

Total questions: 145

Worksheet time: 36hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is the best description of the value of a service to a customer?

a)

The amount of money the customer pays for using the service

b)

The financial return the customer gets from using the service

c)

The functionality offered by a service to meet a particular need

d)

The customer's perception of the benefits of using the service

2.

Which gives a user access to a system?

a)

Service catalog

b)

Service Agreement

c)

Service portfolio

d)

Service provision

3.

Which describes the utility of a service?

a)

A service that is fit for use

b)

A service that is fit for purpose

c)

A service that increases the constraint on the consumer

d)

A service that supports the performance of the consumer

4.

What can a service remove from the consumer and impose on the consumer?

a)

Utility

b)

Asset

c)

Cost

d)

Outcome

5.

What varies in size and complexity, and uses function to achieve its objectives?

a)

A risk

b)

An organization

c)

A pratice

d)

An outcome

6.

Which roles approves the cost of the services?

a)

User

b)

Chnage authority

c)

Sponsor

d)

Customer

7.

Which term relates to service level aligned with the needs of service consumers?

a)

Consumer

b)

Warranty

c)

Cost

d)

Value

8.

Which statements about outcomes is CORRECT?

a)

Outcomes rely on outputs to deliver results for stakeholder

b)

Outcomes use activities to produce tangible or intagible deliverables

c)

Outcomes give service consumers assurance of products or services

d)

Outcomes help a service consumer to assess the cost of a specific activity

9.

What is the definition of warranty?

a)

A means of identifying events that could cause harm or loss

b)

A means of determining whether a service is fit for purpose

c)

A means of identifying a constraint for a stakeholder

d)

A means of determining whether a service is fit for use

10.

Which statement about value creating activities is CORRECT?

a)

Each value stream should be designed with a specific combination of service value chain activities

b)

Service value chain activities have pre-determined dependencies on ITIL practices

c)

A value stream is an operating model for creating value through products and services

d)

Organizations should ensure that each value stream is applicable to many scenarios

11.

Which is part of the definition of a customer?

a)

The role that defines the requirements for a service

b)

A means of enabling value co-creation

c)

The role that authorizes budget for service consumption

d)

A set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value

12.

What is a service?

a)

A possible event that could cause harm or loss, or make it more difficult to achieve objectives

b)

A means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific costs and risks C. A tangible or intangible deliverable of an activity

c)

A tangible or intangible deliverable of an activity

d)

Joint activities performed by a service provider and a service consumer to ensure continual value co-creation based on agreed and available service offerings

13.

Which statement about outcomes is CORRECT?

a)

They are deliverables provided to service consumers

b)

They allow service consumers to achieve a desired result

c)

They provide products to service providers based on outputs

d)

They co-create value for service providers by reducing costs and risks

14.

Which is a risk that might be removed from a service consumer by an IT service?

a)

Employee salary

b)

Physical security breach

c)

Failure of server hardware

d)

Cost of purchasing servers

15.

Identify the missing word in the following sentence. A service is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating [?] that customers want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific costs and risks.

a)

utility

b)

warranty

c)

outcomes

d)

Outputs

16.

Which guiding principle uses experience from one improvement activity to improve

the next activity?

a)

Start where you are

b)

Progress iteratively with feedback

c)

Keep it simple and practical

d)

Optimize and automate

17.

Which approach is CORRECT when applying the guiding principle ‘keep it simple and

practical?

a)

Only add controls and metrics when they are needed

b)

Only add controls and metrics that are required by the customer

c)

Only add controls and metrics that are required by the management

d)

Only add controls and metrics that are required by the management

18.

How should the seven guiding principles be combined when an organization is

making a decision?

a)

By using all the guiding principles equally when making any decision

b)

By using the one or two guiding principles that are most relevant to the specific

decision

c)

By using the 'focus on value’ principle and one or two others that are relevant to the

specific decision

d)

By reviewing each guiding principle to decide how relevant it is to the specific

decision

19.

An organization asks a stakeholder to review a planned change. Which guiding

principle does this demonstrate?

a)

Collaborate and promote visibility

b)

Start where you are

c)

Focus on value

d)

Keep it simple and pratical

20.

Which principle concentrates on service consumers?

a)

Start where you are

b)

Optimize and automate

c)

Collaborate and promote visibility

d)

Focus on value

21.

What must always be done before an activity is automated?

a)

Check that the activity has already been optimized

b)

Check that suitable new technology has been purchased

c)

Ensure that DevOps has been successfully implemented

d)

Ensure the solution removes the need for human intervention

22.

Which guiding principle is PRIMARILY concerned with end-to-end service delivery?

a)

Keep it simple and practical

b)

Think and work holistically

c)

Optimize and automate

d)

Collaborate and promote visibility

23.

Which statement about the use of measurement in the ‘start where you are’ guiding

principle is CORRECT?

a)

It should always be used to support direct observation

b)

It should always be used instead of direct observation

c)

Measured data is always more accurate than direct observation

d)

The act of measuring always positively impacts results

24.

What are guiding principles?

a)

A set of interconnected activities that help an organization deliver a valuable

service

b)

A description of one or more services that help address the needs of a target

consumer group

c)

A set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value for customers

d)

Recommendations that help an organization when adopting a service management

approach

25.

Which guiding principle focuses on reducing costs and human errors?

a)

Focus on value

b)

Collaborate and promote visibility

c)

Optimize and automate

d)

Think and work holistically

26.

Which guiding principle considers the importance of customer loyalty?

a)

Progress iteratively with feedback

b)

Focus on value

c)

Optimize and automate

d)

Start where you are

27.

Which guiding principle helps to ensure that each improvement effort has more

focus and is easier to maintain?

a)

Start where you are

b)

Collaborate and promote visibility

c)

Progress iteratively with feedback

d)

Think and work holistically

28.

What is recommended by the guiding principle 'progress iteratively with

feedback’?

a)

A current state assessment that is carried out at the start of an improvement

initiative

b)

The identification of all interested parts at the start of a improvement initiative

c)

An improvement initiative that is broken into a number of manageable sections

d)

An assessment of how all the parts of an organization will affect an improvement

initiative

29.

Which guiding principle considers customer and user experience?

a)

Collaborate and promote visibility

b)

Focus on value

c)

Start where you are

d)

Keep it simple and practical

30.

Which guiding principle considers which parts of an existing process should be

kept by identifying how they contribute to value creation?

a)

Progress iteratively with feedback

b)

Collaborate and promote visibility

c)

Think and work holistically

d)

Keep it simple and practical

31.

Which is part of the ‘focus on value’ guiding principle?

a)

Understanding what services help the service consumer

b)

Reducing the number of steps in the customer experience

c)

Assessing services to identify parts that can be reused

d)

Identifying activities that can be achieved in smaller iterations

32.

Which guiding principle helps an organization to understand the impact of an

altered element on other elements in a system?

a)

Focus on value

b)

Start where you are

c)

Think and work holistically

d)

Keep it simple and practical

33.

Which guiding principle says that it is not usually necessary to build something

new?

a)

Focus on value

b)

Start where you are

c)

Progress iteratively with feedback

d)

Think and work holistically

34.

Which guiding principle says that services and processes should NOT provide a

solution for every exception?

a)

Keep it simple and practical

b)

Collaborate and promote visibility

c)

Think and work holistically

d)

Optimize and automate

35.

Identify the missing words in the following sentence. When an organization has

decided to improve a service, it should start by considering [?].

a)

existing information

b)

only new information

c)

additional measurements

d)

revised processes

36.

Which guiding principle considers how the steps of a process can be performed as

efficiently as possible?

a)

Focus on value

b)

Start where you are

c)

Think and work holistically

d)

Optimize and automate

37.

Which is a result of applying the guiding principle ‘progress iteratively with

feedback’?

a)

The ability to discover and respond to failure earlier

b)

Standardization of practices and services

c)

Understanding the customer's perception of value

d)

Understanding the current state and identifying what can be reused

38.

Which statement about the ‘optimize and automate’ guiding principle is CORRECT?

a)

Activities should be automated before they are optimized

b)

Automation is best applied to non-standard tasks

c)

Technology eliminates the need for human intervention

d)

Automation frees human resources for more complex activities

39.

Which MOST helps an organization adapt ITIL concepts so that they apply to the

organization's specific circumstances?

a)

Continual improvement

b)

Service value chain

c)

Practices

d)

Guiding principles

40.

Which guiding principle discourages 'silo activity’?

a)

Focus on value

b)

Start where you are

c)

Collaborate and promote visibility

d)

Keep it simple and practical

41.

Which statement about a service value stream is CORRECT?

a)

It uses prescriptive inputs and outputs

b)

It uses all guiding principles

c)

It integrates practices for a specific scenario

d)

It provides an operating model for service providers

42.

Which dimension is MOST concerned with skills, competencies, roles and

responsibilities?

a)

A. Organizations and people

b)

B. Information and technology

c)

C. Partners and suppliers

d)

D. Value streams and processes

43.

Which dimension focuses on relationships with other organizations that are

involved in the design, development, deployment and delivery of services?

a)

A. Organizations and people

b)

B. Information and technology

c)

C. Partners and suppliers

d)

D. Value streams and processes

44.

Which dimension includes the knowledge needed for the management of services?

a)

A. Organizations and people

b)

B. Information and technology

c)

C. Partners and suppliers

d)

D. Value streams and processes

45.

Which dimension of service management considers the workflows and controls

needed to deliver services?

a)

A. Organizations and people

b)

B. Information and technology

c)

C. Partners and suppliers

d)

D. Value streams and processes

46.

Which dimension considers data security and privacy?

a)

A. Organizations and people

b)

B. Information and technology

c)

C. Partners and suppliers

d)

D. Value streams and processes

47.

Which is considered by the 'partners and suppliers' dimension?

a)

A. Using artificial intelligence

b)

B. Defining controls and procedures

c)

C. Using formal roles and responsibilities

d)

D. Working with an integrator to manage relationships

48.

8. Which TWO are considered part of the ‘organizations and people’ dimension of

service management?

1. Systems of authority

2. Culture

3. Cost

4. Workflows

a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 3

c)

3 and 4

d)

1 and 4

49.

Which dimension considers the application of artificial intelligence to service

management?

a)

A. Organizations and people

b)

B. Information and technology

c)

C. Partners and suppliers

d)

D. Value streams and processes

50.

Which includes governance, management practices, and continual

improvement?

a)

A. The service value system

b)

B. The ‘deliver and support' value chain activity

c)

C. The 'focus on value’ guiding principle

d)

D. The 'value stream and processes’ dimension

51.

2. Which are elements of the service value system?

a)

A. Service provision, service consumption, service relationship management

b)

B. Governance, service value chain, practices

c)

C. Outcomes, utility, warranty

d)

D. Customer value, stakeholder value, organization

52.

What includes governance as a component?

a)

A. Practices

b)

B. The service value chain

c)

C. The service value system

d)

D. The guiding principles

53.

Which is NOT a component of the service value system?

a)

A. The service value chain

b)

B. Opportunity and demand

c)

C. Continual improvement

d)

D. Governance

54.

Which does the ITIL service value system discourage?

a)

A. Coordinated authorities and responsibilities

b)

B. Organizational silos

c)

C. Interfaces among practices

d)

D. Organizational agility

55.

What can be described as an operating model for the creation and

management of products and services?

a)

A. Governance

b)

B. Service value chain

c)

C. Guiding principles

d)

D. Practices

56.

Which BEST describes the purpose of the 'improve' value chain activity?

a)

A. To organize a major improvement initiative into several smaller initiatives

b)

B. To make new and improved services and features available for use

c)

C. To ensure a shared understanding of the vision and improvement direction

for all products and services

d)

D. To continually improve all products and services across all value chain

activities

57.

8. What is used to link activities within the service value chain?

a)

A. Service level agreements

b)

B. Inputs, outputs and triggers

c)

C. Opportunity, demand and value

d)

D. Service desk

58.

Which is included in the purpose of the ‘deliver and support’ value chain

activity?

a)

A. Meeting stakeholder expectations for time to market

b)

B. Understanding the organization's service vision

c)

C. Understanding stakeholder needs

d)

D. Providing services to agreed specifications

59.

Which is an external input to the service value chain?

a)

A. The 'improve' value chain activity

b)

B. An overall plan

c)

C. Customer requirements

d)

D. System information

60.

Which value chain activity ensures that service components meet agreed

specifications?

a)

A. Plan

b)

B. Design and transition

c)

C. Obtain/build

d)

D. Deliver and support

61.

Which is provided by the 'engage' value chain activity?

a)

A. Ensuring that stakeholder expectations for quality are met

b)

B. Ensuring that stakeholder needs are understood by the organization

c)

C. Ensuring that service components are available when needed

d)

D. Ensuring that services are operated to meet agreed specifications

62.

Which describes the 'plan' value chain activity?

a)

A. It ensures a shared understanding of the current status and vision for all

products and services across the organization

b)

B. It ensures that services are delivered and supported according to agreed

specifications and stakeholders’ expectations

c)

C. It ensures that service components are available when and where they are

needed, and meet agreed specifications

d)

D. It ensures continual improvement of products, services, and practices

across all value chain activities

63.

Which practice has the purpose of ensuring that the organization's

suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately to support the

provision of seamless, quality products and services?

a)

A. Release management

b)

B. Supplier management

c)

C. Service Desk

d)

D. Problem Management

64.

Which ITIL practice has the purpose to establish and nurture the links

between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels?

a)

A. Capacity Management

b)

B. Change enablement

c)

C. Relationship management

d)

D. Service desk

65.

Which practice has a purpose that includes managing risks to

confidentiality, integrity and availability?

a)

A. Information security management

b)

B. Continual improvement

c)

C. Monitoring and event management

d)

D. Service level management

66.

Which statement about service relationship management is CORRECT?

a)

A. It focuses on the service actions performed by users

b)

B. It requires the service consumer to create resources for the service

provider

c)

C. It requires co-operation of both the service provider and service consumer

d)

D. It focuses on the fulfilment of the agreed service actions

67.

5. Identify the missing word in the following sentence. The purpose of the

‘supplier management' practice is to ensure that the organization’s suppliers

and their performances are [?] appropriately to support the seamless

provision of quality products and services.

a)

A. stopped

b)

B. rewarded

c)

C. managed

d)

D. controlled

68.

Which is a purpose of the 'relationship management' practice?

a)

A. To systematically observe services and service components

b)

B. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its

business

c)

C. To be the entry point and single point of contact for the service provider

with all of its users

d)

D. To identify, analyze, monitor, and continually improve links with

69.

Which practice has the purpose of ensuring that the organization's

suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately to support the

provision of seamless, quality products and services?

a)

A. Release management

b)

B. Supplier management

c)

C. Service management

d)

D. Relationship management

70.

Which statement about change authorities is CORRECT?

a)

A. Change authorities are only required for authorizing emergency changes

b)

B. Change authorities are required for all standard changes

c)

C. Change authorities are only required for high investment changes

d)

D. Change authorities are assigned for each type of change and change

model

71.

Which describes a CORRECT approach to change authorization?

a)

A. Changes included in the change schedule are pre-authorized and do not

need additional authorization

b)

B. Normal changes should be assessed and authorized before they are

deployed

c)

C. Emergency changes should be authorized by as many people as possible to

reduce risk

d)

D. Normal changes are typically implemented as service requests and

authorized by the service desk

72.

Which activity contributes to the 'where are we now?’ step of the

‘continual improvement’ model?

a)

A. Executing improvement actions

b)

B. Performing baseline assessments

c)

C. Defining the improvement plan

d)

D. Understanding the business mission

73.

Which practice is responsible for moving new or changed components to

live or other environments?

a)

A. Capacity management

b)

B. Deployment management

c)

C. Change enablement

d)

D. Supplier management

74.

What type of change is MOST likely to be managed as a service request?

a)

A. A standard change

b)

B. A normal change

c)

C. An emergency change

d)

D. An organizational change

75.

What is a change schedule PRIMARILY used for?

a)

A. To help plan, authorize and schedule emergency changes

b)

B. To publish a list of service requests that users can select

c)

C. To ensure that only a single change authority reviews every change

d)

D. To help plan changes, assist in communication and avoid conflicts

76.

Which statement about the 'change enablement’ practice is CORRECT?

a)

A. Standard changes are those that need to be scheduled, assessed and

authorized following a standard process

b)

B. Normal changes are triggered by the creation of a change request which

can be created manually or automated

c)

C. Assessment and authorization of normal changes should be expedited to

ensure they can be implemented quickly

d)

D. There should be a separate change authority for standard changes which

includes senior managers who understand the risks involved

77.

What is the PRIMARY use of a change schedule?

a)

A. To support the ‘incident management’ practice and improvement planning

b)

B. To manage emergency changes

c)

C. To plan changes and help avoid conflicts

d)

D. To manage standard changes

78.

Which practice makes new services available for use?

a)

A. Change enablement

b)

B. Release management

c)

C. Incident management

d)

D. IT asset management

79.

Which is a key activity carried out in the 'did we get there?’ step of the

‘continual improvement’ model?

a)

A. Define measurable targets

b)

B. Perform baseline assessments

c)

C. Execute improvement actions

d)

D. Evaluate measurements and metrics

80.

What is important for a ‘continual improvement register’ (CIR)?

a)

A. Improvement ideas are documented, assessed and prioritized

b)

B. Improvement ideas from many sources are kept in a single CIR

c)

C. Improvement ideas that are not being actioned immediately are removed

from the CIR

d)

D. Improvement ideas are tested, funded and agreed

81.

In which step of the 'continual improvement model’ is an improvement

plan implemented?

a)

A. What is the vision?

b)

B. How do we get there?

c)

C. Take action

d)

D. Did we get there?

82.

Which is a purpose of release management?

a)

A. To protect the organization's information

b)

B. To handle user-initiated service requests

c)

C. To make new and changed services available for use

d)

D. To move hardware and software to live environments

83.

Which statement about the 'change enablement' practice is CORRECT?

a)

A. Service requests are usually normal changes that can be implemented

quickly without authorization

b)

B. Emergency changes are changes that must be fully tested and fully

documented prior to implementation

c)

C. Standard changes are changes that need to be scheduled, assessed and

authorized following a standard process

d)

D. Emergency changes are changes that must be implemented as soon as

possible and therefore authorization is expedited

84.

What is a change schedule used for?

a)

A. To help plan emergency changes

b)

B. To help authorize standard changes

c)

C. To help assign a change authority

d)

D. To help manage normal changes

85.

Which usually requires a team of representatives from many stakeholder

groups?

a)

A. Fulfilling a service request

b)

B. Authorizing an emergency change

c)

C. Logging a new problem

d)

D. Investigating a major incident

86.

What does 'change enablement’ PRIMARILY focus on?

a)

A. Changes to service levels

b)

B. Changes to products and services

c)

C. Changes to organizational structure

d)

D. Changes to skills and competencies

87.

Which statement about 'continual improvement’ is CORRECT?

a)

A. All improvement ideas should be logged in a single ‘continual

improvement register’

b)

B. A single team should carry out ‘continual improvement' across the

organization

c)

C. Continual improvement’ should have minimal interaction with other

practices

d)

D. Everyone in the organization is responsible for some aspects of ‘continual

improvement'

88.

Which step of the continual improvement model includes baseline

assessments?

a)

A. Did we get there?

b)

B. Where are we now?

c)

C. What is the vision?

d)

D. Where do we want to be?

89.

Which describes a 'change authority’?

a)

A. A model used to determine who will assess a change

b)

B. A person who approves a change

c)

C. A tool used to help plan changes

d)

D. A way to manage the people aspects of change

90.

Which statement about the 'continual improvement model’ is CORRECT?

a)

A. Organizations should work through the steps of the model in the sequence

in which they are presented

b)

B. The flow of the model helps organizations to link improvements to its goals

c)

C. The model is applicable to only certain parts of the service value system

d)

D. Organizations should use an additional model or method to link

improvements to customer value

91.

Which practice includes conducting regular reviews to ensure that

services are still appropriate and relevant?

a)

A. Service level management

b)

B. Service desk

c)

C. Continual improvement

d)

D. Change enablement

92.

Which TWO statements about the guiding principles are CORRECT?

1. The guiding principles support continual improvement

2. Each guiding principle applies to a selection of the available stakeholder groups

3. Organizations should decide which one of the guiding principles is relevant to them

4. Organizations should consider how the guiding principles interact with each other

a)

A. 1 and 2

b)

B. 2 and 3

c)

C. 3 and 4

d)

D. 1 and 4

93.

Which statement about standard changes is CORRECT?

a)

A. A full assessment should be completed each time the change is implemented

b)

B. The change can be implemented with less testing if necessary

c)

C. The appropriate change authority should be assigned to each type of change

d)

D. The change does not require additional authorization

94.

Which statement about the 'continual improvement' practice is CORRECT?

a)

A. Continual improvement participation should be limited to a small dedicated team

b)

B. It is the role of senior management to authorize improvement initiatives

c)

C. Training should be provided to those involved in continual improvement

d)

D. A single continual improvement register should be maintained by senior

management

95.

Which practice includes the use of approaches such as Lean, Agile and DevOps with

the aim of facilitating a greater amount of change at a quicker rate?

a)

A. Service desk

b)

B. Monitoring and event management

c)

C. Service level management

d)

D. Continual improvement

96.

Which practice has a purpose that includes maximizing success by ensuring that

risks have been properly assessed?

a)

A. Relationship management

b)

B. Change enablement

c)

C. Release management

d)

D. Monitoring and event management

97.

Identify the missing words in the following sentence. The purpose of the service

configuration management practice is to ensure that accurate and reliable information

about the [?], and the Cls that support them, is available when and where it is needed.

a)

A. relationships with suppliers

b)

B. configuration of services

c)

C. skills of people

d)

D. authorization of changes

98.

What is a configuration item?

a)

A. Any financially valuable component that can contribute to the delivery of an IT

product or service

b)

B. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a service

c)

C. Any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service

d)

D. A problem that has been analyzed but has not been resolved

99.

Which is a use of the change schedule?

a)

A. Assigning resources to changes

b)

B. Deciding the approval authority for changes

c)

C. Automating the change process

d)

D. Creating change models

100.

Which activity is part of the 'continual improvement' practice?

a)

A. Handling compliments and complaints from users to identify improvements

b)

B. Improving relationships with and between stakeholders

c)

C. Prioritizing and creating business cases for improvement initiatives

d)

D. Identifying the cause of unplanned interruptions to service

101.

What is defined as any financially valuable component that can contribute to the

delivery of a service?

a)

A. Configuration item

b)

B. Product

c)

C. IT asset

d)

D. Event

102.

Which will NOT be handled as a service request?

a)

A. The degradation of a service

b)

B. The replacement of a toner cartridge

c)

C. The provision of a laptop

d)

D. A complaint about a support team

103.

Which practice improves customer and user satisfaction by reducing the negative

impact of service interruptions?

a)

A. Release Management

b)

B. Service Catalog

c)

C. Incident management

d)

D. Demand

104.

Which is an example of a business related measurement?

a)

A. The number of passengers checked in

b)

B. The average time to respond to change requests

c)

C. The average resolution time for incidents

d)

D. The number of problems resolved

105.

Which practice involves the management of vulnerabilities that have been analysed but not resolved?

a)

A. Change enablement

b)

B. Service Desk

c)

C. Problem management

d)

D. Service level management

106.

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence. The service desk should be

the entry point and single point of contact for the [?] with all of its users.

a)

A. Service consumer

b)

B. Service provider

c)

C. Service Desk

d)

D. Supplier

107.

Which practice is used to confirm customer requirements for services?

a)

A. Change enablement

b)

B. Service level management

c)

C. Service desk

d)

D. Problem Management

108.

What is the definition of a problem?

a)

A. An unplanned interruption to a service, or reduction in the quality of a service

b)

B. A cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents

c)

C A cause, or potential cause, of two or more incidents

d)

D. Single point of contact for all IT related concerns

109.

Which practice provides a communications point for users to report operational

issues, queries and requests?

a)

A. Supplier management

b)

B. Continual improvement

c)

C. Service desk

d)

D. Information security management

110.

What are typically recognized through notifications created by an IT service, Cl or

monitoring tool?

a)

A. Incidents

b)

B. Problems

c)

C. Events

d)

D. Requests

111.

An organization is notified by a supplier about a defect in a software product that

they use. Which practice describes the activities needed to log and manage this?

a)

A. Service Level Management

b)

B. Problem management

c)

C. Change enablement

d)

D. Service desk

112.

Which practice has a strong influence on the user experience and perception of

the service provider?

a)

A. Service desk

b)

B. Change enablement

c)

C. Service level management

d)

D. Supplier management

113.

Which statement about service requests is CORRECT?

a)

A. Complex service requests should be dealt with as normal changes

b)

B. Service requests that require simple workflows should be dealt with as incidents

c)

C. Service requests require workflows that should use manual procedures and avoid

automation

d)

D. Service requests are usually formalized using standard procedures for initiation,

approval and fulfilment

114.

Identify the missing words in the following sentence. The ‘incident management’

practice should maintain [?] for logging and managing incidents.

A. a dedicated team

a)

A. a dedicated team

b)

B. a formal process

c)

C. detailed procedures

d)

D. a value chain activity

115.

Why is it important to set target resolution times in ‘incident management’?

a)

A. They determine when an incident becomes a problem

b)

B. They determine which support team the incident should be escalated to

c)

C. They enable the management of customer and user expectations

d)

D. They facilitate information sharing and learning

116.

Which practice identifies metrics that reflect the customer’s experience of a

service?

a)

A. Continual improvement

b)

B. Service desk

c)

C. Service level management

d)

D. Problem management

117.

Which of these activities is carried out as part of ‘problem management’?

a)

A. Creating incident records

b)

B. Diagnosing and resolving incidents

c)

C. Escalating incidents to a support team for resolution

d)

D. Trend analysis of incident records

118.

What is the purpose of the 'problem management’ practice?

a)

A. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business

b)

B. To reduce the likelinood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential

causes of incidents, and managing workarounds and known errors

c)

C. To align the organization's practices and services with changing business needs

through the ongoing identification and improvement of services

d)

D. To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation

as quickly as possible

119.

Which practice would help a user gain access to an application that they need to

use?

a)

A. Service configuration management

b)

B. Change enablement

c)

C. Service request management

d)

D. Service level management

120.

Why should some service requests be fulfilled with no additional approvals?

a)

A. To ensure that spending is properly accounted for

b)

B. To ensure that information security requirements are met

c)

C. To streamline the fulfilment workflow

d)

D. To set user expectations for fulfilment times

121.

What impact does automation have on a service desk?

a)

A. Less low level work and a greater ability to focus on user experience

b)

B. Increased phone contact and a reduced ability to focus on user experience

c)

C. Ability to work from multiple locations, geographically dispersed

d)

D. Ability to work from a single centralized location

122.

Which two practices use workarounds?

a)

A. Change enablement and continual improvement

b)

B. Change enablement and problem management

c)

C. Problem management and incident management

d)

D. Incident management and continual improvement

123.

Which is an activity of the 'problem management' practice?

a)

A. Restoration of normal service operation as quickly as possible

b)

B. Prioritization of problems based on the risk that they pose

c)

C. Authorization of changes to resolve the cause of problems

d)

D. Resolution of incidents in a time that meets customer expectations

124.

What is defined as an unplanned interruption or reduction in the quality of a

service?

a)

A. An incident

b)

B. A problem

c)

C. A change

d)

D. An event

125.

What is an incident?

a)

A. The planned removal of an item that might affect a service

b)

B. A result enabled by one or more outputs

c)

C. A possible future event that could cause harm

d)

D. A service interruption resolved by the use of self-help tools

126.

What is defined as a change of state that has significance for the management of

an IT service?

a)

A. Event

b)

B. Incident

c)

C. Problem

d)

D. Known error

127.

What is the purpose of the ‘incident management’ practice?

a)

A. To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation

as quickly as possible

b)

B. To capture demand for incident resolution and service requests

c)

C. To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential

causes of incidents

d)

D. To support the agreed service quality by effective handling of all agreed user-

initiated service requests

128.

How are target resolution times used in the ‘incident management’ practice?

a)

A. They are agreed, documented, and communicated to help set user expectations

b)

B. They are established, reviewed, and reported to ensure that customers are happy

with the service

c)

C. They are initiated, approved, and managed to ensure that predictable responses are

achieved

d)

D. They are scheduled, assessed and authorized to reduce the risk of service failures

129.

Which ITIL practice recommends performing service reviews to ensure that

services continue to meet the needs of the organization?

a)

A. Service desk

b)

B. Service request management

c)

C. Service level management

d)

D. Service configuration management

130.

Which is a purpose of the 'service level management' practice?

a)

A. To establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders

b)

B. To ensure that the organization's suppliers and their performance are managed

appropriately

c)

C. To support the agreed quality of a service by handling all agreed, user-initiated

service requests

d)

D. To set clear business-based targets for service levels

131.

Which two practices interact the MOST with the service desk practice?

a)

A. Incident management and service request management

b)

B. Service request management and deployment management

c)

C. Deployment management and change enablement

d)

D. Change enablement and incident management

132.

Which statement about the automation of service requests is CORRECT?

a)

A. Service requests that cannot be automated should be handled as incidents

b)

B. Service requests and their fulfilment should be automated as much as possible

c)

C. Service requests that cannot be automated should be handled as problems

d)

D. Service requests and their fulfilment should be carried out by service desk staff

without automation

133.

Which ITIL practice recommends performing service reviews to ensure that

services continue to meet the needs of the organization?

a)

A. Service desk

b)

B. Service request management

c)

C. Service level management

d)

D. Service configuration management

134.

What actions does a service desk take for all issues, queries and requests that are

reported to them? b

a)

A. Schedule, assess, authorize

b)

B. Diagnose, investigate, resolve

c)

C. Initiate, approve, fulfil

d)

D. Acknowledge, classify, own

135.

Which practice needs people who understand complex systems and have creative

and analytical skills?

a)

A. Change enablement

b)

B. Service level management

c)

C. Service request management

d)

D. Problem management

136.

What is the definition of a known error?

a)

A. An unplanned interruption to a service, or reduction in the quality of a service

b)

B. A cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents

c)

C. A problem that has been analyzed and has not been resolved

d)

Any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other

configuration item (Cl)

137.

What are typically recognized through notifications created by an IT service, Cl or

monitoring tool?

a)

A. Incidents

b)

B. Problems

c)

C. Events

d)

D. Requests

138.

Which directly assists with the diagnosis and resolution of simple incidents?

a)

A. Scripts for collecting user information

b)

B. Use of shift working patterns

c)

C. Fulfilment of service requests

d)

D. Creation of a temporary team

139.

What is the purpose of the 'problem management' practice?

a)

A. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business

b)

B. To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential

causes of incidents, and managing workarounds and known errors

c)

C. To align the organization's practices and services with changing business needs

through the ongoing identification and improvement of services

d)

D. To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation

as quickly as possible

140.

Which practice forms a link between the service provider and the users of

services?

a)

A. Change enablement

b)

B. Service level management

c)

C. Problem management

d)

D. Service desk

141.

Which is handled as a service request?

a)

A. An investigation to identify the cause of an incident

b)

B. Acompliment about an IT support team

c)

C. The failure of an IT service

d)

D. An emergency change to implement a security patch

142.

Which 'service level management' activity helps staff to deliver a more business-

focused service?

a)

A. Creating targets based on the percentage of uptime of a service

b)

B. Understanding the ongoing requirements of customers

c)

C. Using complex technical terminology in service level agreements (SLAs)

d)

D. Measuring low-level operational activities

143.

Which phase of problem management includes analysing incidents to look for

patterns and trends?

a)

A. Problem identification

b)

B. Problem control

c)

C. Error control

d)

D. Post-implementation review

144.

Which statement about the 'service request management' practice is CORRECT?

a)

A. Service requests are fulfilled using simple workflows

b)

B. A new workflow is created for each type of request

c)

C. Additional approval is sometimes needed for restoration of service

d)

D. Financial authorization is sometimes required for service requests

145.

Which statement about service requests is CORRECT?

a)

A. Complex service requests should be dealt with as normal changes

b)

B. Service requests that require simple workflows should be dealt with as incidents

c)

C. Service requests require workflows that should use manual procedures and avoid

automation

d)

D. Service requests are usually formalized using standard procedures for initiation,

approval and fulfilment