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Worksheets

Final Exam Lecture

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Mitochondria

a)

contain digestive enzymes called acid hydrolyses

b)

are single-membrane structures involved in the breakdown of ATP

c)

are responsible for producing most of the ATP for the cell

d)

synthesize proteins for use outside the cell

2.

A structure that is composed of two or more tissue types that work together to perform specific functions for the body is a(n) ________.

a)

organ system

b)

complex tissue

c)

complex cell

d)

organ

3.

Which of the following describes the plasma membrane?

a)

a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma

b)

a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell

c)

a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell

d)

a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae

4.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the plasma membrane?

a)

messenger RNA

b)

phospholipids

c)

glycoproteins

d)

glycolipids

5.

The main component of the cytosol is ________.

a)

proteins

b)

salts

c)

water

d)

sugars

6.

In a tissue type that undergoes a relatively great deal of mechanical stress, like the tissue that lines the intestine, you would expect to see an abundance of ________ between the individual cells of the tissue.

a)

desmosomes

b)

tight junctions

c)

gap junctions

d)

connexons

7.

Generally what is the result of the negative feedback process?

a)

to regulate excretion via the kidneys

b)

to control body movement

c)

to keep the body's blood sugar level high

d)

to maintain homeostasis

8.

Which of the following are incorrectly matched?

a)

Physiology: study of the structures in a particular region.

b)

Microscopic anatomy: study of structures too small to be seen by the naked eye.

c)

Gross anatomy: study of structures visible to the eye.

d)

Developmental: study of the changes in an individual from conception to birth.

9.

An unknown atom has a total of 10 electrons. Following the octet rule, which of the following represent the correct electron distribution among its energy levels?

a)

8,8

b)

2

c)

2,2,6

d)

2,8

10.

Atom X has 17 protons. What is its atomic number?

a)

17

b)

10

c)

3

d)

5

11.

The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following?

a)

intestines

b)

lungs

c)

brain

d)

liver

12.

In which stage of mitosis do the identical sets of chromosomes uncoil and resume their chromatin form?

a)

metaphase

b)

prophase

c)

telophase

d)

anaphase

13.

Which of the following describes a parasagittal plane?

a)

a transverse cut just above the knees

b)

any cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior portions

c)

any sagittal plane except in the midline

d)

two cuts dividing the body into left and right halves

14.

Expiration (breathing out) is how the body removes excessive carbon dioxide from the blood. This is an example of ________.

a)

metabolism

b)

responsiveness

c)

excretion of metabolic waste

d)

maintaining boundaries

15.

If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution what could happen?

a)

The cells will shrink and shrivel

b)

The cell will swell

c)

The cell will burst

d)

The cell will remain in homeostasis

16.

What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, called?

a)

sagittal

b)

transverse

c)

regional

d)

frontal

17.

The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________.

a)

elastic cartilage

b)

hyaline carttilae

c)

adipose tissue

d)

fibrocartilage

18.

The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength, which allows them to absorb shock, is because they possess ________.

a)

elastic fibers

b)

collagen fibers

c)

reticular fibers

d)

hydroxyapatite crystals

19.

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?

a)

sebaceous and merocrine

b)

eccrine and apocrine

c)

mammary and ceruminous

d)

holocrine and mammary

20.

What are the most important factors influencing hair growth?

a)

nutrition and hormones

b)

age and glandular products

c)

the size and number of hair follicles

d)

sex and hormones

21.

Which tissue in the wall of the uterus is required for labor contractions?

a)

smooth muscle

b)

elastic cartilage

c)

stratified squamous

d)

skeletal muscle

22.

Which of the following epithelia forms the walls of the air sacs across which gas exchange occurs in the lungs?

a)

pseudostratified columnar

b)

simple squamous

c)

simple columnar

d)

simple cuboidal

23.

What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels?

a)

bone (osseous tissue)

b)

cartilage tissue

c)

fibrocartilaginous tissue

d)

areolar tissue

24.

Which layer of the epidermis will be supplied with the highest levels of oxygen from the blood?

a)

stratum granulosum

b)

stratum corneum

c)

stratum basale

d)

stratum spinosum

25.

Groups of cells that are similar in structure and perform a common or related function form a(n) ________.

a)

organ system

b)

tissue

c)

organism

d)

organ

26.

The function of the root hair plexus is to ________.

a)

allow the hair to assist in touch sensation

b)

cause apocrine gland secretion into the hair follicle

c)

serve as a source for new epidermal cells for hair growth after the resting stage has passed

d)

bind the hair root to the dermis

27.

The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________.

a)

primarily uric acid

b)

metabolic wastes

c)

99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C

d)

fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins

28.

The arrector pili muscle's predominate, useful function in humans is to ________.

a)

lower body temperature during high levels of heat exposure

b)

assisting in the release sebum from nearby sebaceous glands

c)

stimulating faster hair growth

d)

preventing germs from entering the hair shaft

29.

Connective tissue extracellular matrix is composed of ________.

a)

cells and electrolytes

b)

cells and fibers

c)

fibers and ground substance

d)

ground substance and cells

30.

How is hyaline cartilage different from elastic cartilage or fibrocartilage?

a)

It is found in the external ear

b)

It makes up the trachea and larynx

c)

It is found in the epiglottis

d)

It is found in between the vertebrae of the spine

31.

What is moving a limb away from the midline of the body along the frontal plane called?

a)

flexion

b)

extension

c)

adduction

d)

abduction

32.

The process of bones increasing in thickness is known as ________.

a)

epiphyseal plate closure

b)

appositional growth

c)

concentric growth

d)

closing of the epiphyseal plate

33.

Prevention of osteoporosis includes adequate intake of ________.

a)

vitamin D and chloride

b)

calcium, and vitamin E

c)

potassium and vitamin D

d)

calcium and vitamin D

34.

In the anatomical position, the lateral forearm bone is the radius.

a)

true

b)

false

35.

The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________.

a)

chondrocyte

b)

osteoblast

c)

osteocyte

d)

osteoclast

36.

The fibula is the major weight-bearing bone of the leg.

a)

true

b)

false

37.

Bones are constantly undergoing resorption (breaking bone down) for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?

a)

osteoblast

b)

osteocyte

c)

stem cell

d)

osteoclast

38.

Lordosis affects the thoracic vertebrae.

a)

true

b)

false

39.

Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ________.

a)

extension

b)

hyperextension

c)

flexion

d)

circumduction

40.

What is the structural unit of compact bone?

a)

spongy bone

b)

lamellar bone

c)

osseous matrix

d)

the osteon

41.

The structural unit of compact bone (osteon) resembles the growth rings of a tree trunk.

a)

true

b)

false

42.

Muscle tone is ________.

a)

the condition of athletes after intensive training

b)

the feeling of well-being following exercise

c)

the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements

d)

a state of sustained partial contraction

43.

Although all skeletal muscles have different shapes, the fascicle arrangement of each muscle is exactly the same.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a(n) ________.

a)

synergist

b)

fixator

c)

agonist (prime mover)

d)

antagonist

45.

The quadriceps femoris is composed of three "vastus" muscles and the ________.

a)

biceps femoris

b)

rectus femoris

c)

semitendinosus

d)

semimembranosus

46.

Romboid major and minor

a)

C

b)

D

c)

B

d)

A

47.

What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?

a)

Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter.

b)

Tropomyosin binds to calcium ions.

c)

Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules.

d)

Tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads.

48.

Which of these is NOT a method used in naming muscles?

a)

the type of action they cause

b)

muscle location

c)

muscle shape

d)

the type of muscle fibers

49.

Elbow joint

a)

c

b)

b

c)

a

50.

I band.

a)

D

b)

C

c)

A

d)

B

51.

A BAND

a)

D

b)

C

c)

A

d)

B

52.

The major head flexors are the sternocleidomastoid muscles, with the help of the muscles attached to the hyoid bone.

a)

true

b)

false

53.

A contraction in which the muscle length does not change but its tension increases is called isometric contraction.

a)

true

b)

false

54.

First-class lever

a)

C

b)

B

c)

A

55.

The sternocleidomastoid muscle inserts on the ________.

a)

sternum

b)

mastoid process of the temporal bone

c)

clavicle

d)

platysma

56.

Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate?

a)

smooth

b)

skeletal

c)

cardiac

d)

no muscle can regenerate

57.

Both first- and second-class levers operate at a mechanical disadvantage.

a)

true

b)

false

58.

REM sleep is associated with ________.

a)

temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm

b)

decreased vital signs, such as heart rate and blood pressure

c)

decreased activity of the brain, especially the cerebral cortex

d)

decreased oxygen use, especially in the cerebral cortex

59.

Which of the following is not characteristic of neurons?

a)

They are mitotic

b)

They have extreme longevity.

c)

They conduct impulses

d)

They have an exceptionally high metabolic rate.

60.

Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________.

a)

tracts

b)

nuclei

c)

ganglia

d)

nerves

61.

Which of the following nerves does not arise from the brachial plexus?

a)

phrenic

b)

radial

c)

median

d)

ulnar

62.

Nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, and VII are found in the ________.

a)

medulla

b)

pons

c)

cerebrum

d)

midbrain

63.

The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________.

a)

medulla

b)

pons

c)

cerebrum

d)

midbrain

64.

The oligodendrocytes can myelinate several axons.

a)

true

b)

false

65.

Spinocerebellar tracts ________.

a)

are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord

b)

give rise to conscious experience of perception

c)

terminate in the spinal cord

d)

carry proprioceptive inputs to the cerebellum

66.

A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ________.

a)

fissure

b)

furrow

c)

sulcus

d)

gyrus

67.

The substance released at axon terminals to propagate a nervous impulse is called a(n) ________.

a)

ion

b)

biogenic amine

c)

cholinesterase

d)

neurotransmitter

68.

The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ________.

a)

pyramids

b)

limbic system

c)

thalamus

d)

reticular formation

69.

Nuclei relating to the startle reflex are located in the corpora quadrigemina of the midbrain.

a)

true

b)

false

70.

A flat EEG is a good indication of deep sleep

a)

true

b)

false

71.

A stimulus traveling toward a synapse appears to open calcium ion channels at the presynaptic end, which in turn promotes fusion of synaptic vesicles to the axonal membrane.

a)

true

b)

false

72.

What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called?

a)

frontal

b)

sagittal

c)

median

d)

transverse

73.

Mitosis ________.

a)

is nuclear division

b)

is the formation of sex cells

c)

is division of the cytoplasm of the cell

d)

creates diversity in genetic potential

74.

In which stage of mitosis do the identical sets of chromosomes uncoil and resume their chromatin form?

a)

metaphase

b)

prophase

c)

telophase

d)

anaphase

75.

Salts are always ________.

a)

hydrogen bonded

b)

single covalent compounds

c)

ionic compounds

d)

double covalent compounds

76.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the plasma membrane?

a)

phospholipids

b)

glycoproteins

c)

messenger RNA

d)

glycolipids

77.

Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and skeletal muscles in the form of ________.

a)

cholesterol

b)

triglycerides

c)

protein

d)

glycogen

78.

If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution what could happen?

a)

The cell will remain in homeostasis

b)

The cell will burst

c)

The cells will shrink and shrivel

d)

The cell will swell

79.

The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________.

a)

99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C

b)

metabolic wastes

c)

primarily uric acid

d)

fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins

80.

Which of the following epithelia forms the walls of the air sacs across which gas exchange occurs in the lungs?

a)

simple columnar

b)

simple cuboidal

c)

pseudostratified columnar

d)

simple squamous

81.

The function of the root hair plexus is to ________.

a)

cause apocrine gland secretion into the hair follicle

b)

allow the hair to assist in touch sensation

c)

serve as a source for new epidermal cells for hair growth after the resting stage has passed

d)

bind the hair root to the dermis

82.

A ciliated version of pseudostratified columnar epithelium containing mucus-secreting goblet cells ________.

a)

aids in digestion

b)

is more durable than all other epithelia

c)

is found in some of the larger glands

d)

lines most of the respiratory tract

83.

Epithelial tissues always exhibit polarity; that is, they have a free surface and a basal surface.

a)

true

b)

false

84.

Simple cuboidal epithelia are usually found in areas where secretion and absorption occur.

a)

true

b)

false

85.

Goblet cells are found within pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

a)

true

b)

false

86.

Choose which tissue would line the uterine (fallopian) tubes and function as a "conveyer belt" to help move a fertilized egg towards the uterus.

a)

stratified squamous epithelium

b)

simple cuboidal epithelium

c)

smooth muscle

d)

ciliated simple columnar epithelium

87.

William has a cut that is superficial, painful but not bleeding. Based on this information you would predict that the cut has penetrated to ________.

a)

the stratum corneum but not the stratum granulosum

b)

the papillary layer but not the reticular layer

c)

the stratum basale but not the dermal layers

d)

the subcutaneous layer, but no deeper

88.

Tendons and ligaments are composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue.

a)

true

b)

false

89.

All vertebrae possess a body, a spine, and transverse foramina.

a)

true

b)

false

90.

The dens articulates with the occipital bone.

a)

true

b)

false

91.

The central (Haversian) canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of ________.

a)

blood vessels and nerve fibers

b)

cartilage and interstitial lamellae

c)

yellow marrow and spicules

d)

adipose tissue and nerve fibers

92.

Spongy bone contains ________.

a)

osteons

b)

lamellar bone

c)

trabeculae

d)

osseous lamellae

93.

The pituitary gland is housed in a saddle-like depression in the temporal bone called the sella turcica.

a)

true

b)

false

94.

The periosteum is a tissue that serves only to protect the bone because it is not supplied with nerves or blood vessels.

a)

true

b)

false

95.

Each consecutive bone lamella has collagen fibers that wrap in alternating directions.

a)

true

b)

false

96.

In the anatomical position, the lateral forearm bone is the radius.

a)

true

b)

false

97.

The pubic symphysis connects the two hip bones anteriorly and provides a little movement during childbirth. Choose the most appropriate tissue for this structure that is subjected to both pressure and stretch.

a)

hyaline cartilage

b)

fibrocartilage

c)

elastic cartilage

d)

bone

98.

Ossification (Osteogenesis) is the process of ________.

a)

bone destruction to liberate calcium

b)

bone formation

c)

making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage

d)

making a cartilage model of the fetal bone

99.

First-class lever

a)

C

b)

A

c)

B

100.

Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods?

a)

refractory period

b)

relaxation period

c)

fatigue period

d)

latent period

102.

The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________.

a)

T tubules

b)

microtubules

c)

myofibrils

d)

mitochondria

103.

The force of muscle contraction is controlled by multiple motor unit summation or recruitment.

a)

true

b)

false

104.

After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction?

a)

the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved

b)

the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules

c)

acetylcholinesterase breaks apart the ACh

d)

calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae

105.

In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting (nonconducting) neuron differ from the external environment? The interior is ________.

a)

positively charged and contains more sodium

b)

negatively charged and contains less sodium

c)

negatively charged and contains more sodium

d)

positively charged and contains less sodium

106.

The substance released at axon terminals to propagate a nervous impulse is called a(n) ________.

a)

ion

b)

cholinesterase

c)

neurotransmitter

d)

biogenic amine

107.

Which of the choices below describes the ANS?

a)

motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

b)

sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract

c)

sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS

d)

motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles

108.

An individual accidentally transected the spinal cord between T12 and L1. This would result in ________.

a)

quadriplegia

b)

hemiplegia

c)

spinal shock only

d)

paraplegia

109.

The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________.

a)

prefrontal lobe

b)

parietal lobe

c)

frontal lobe

d)

temporal lobe

110.

During depolarization, the inside of the neuron's membrane becomes less negative

a)

True

b)

False

111.

Strong stimuli cause the amplitude of action potentials generated to increase

a)

True

b)

False

112.

Which of these would you not find in the cerebral cortex?

a)

unmyelinated axons

b)

cell bodies

c)

fiber tracts

d)

dendrites