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APES Semester Exam Fall 2021

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 4hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Species diversity can be quantified by using which of the following sets of data about an ecosystem?
a)
The number of species and the area
b)
The number of individuals of each species and the net primary productivity
c)
The number of species and the number of individuals of each species
d)
The number of individuals of each species and the area
2.
A fig tree that provides shelter and fruit that are essential to the survival of numerous other species is an example of
a)
A keystone species
b)
An exotic species
c)
An indicator species
d)
An endemic species
3.
Which of the following is NOT an ecosystem service provided by forests?
a)
Carbon sequestration
b)
Water purification
c)
Food production
d)
Road construction
4.
In an experiment, a researcher fills three aquariums labeled A, B, and C with seawater collected from a local estuary. To aquarium A, nitrate and phosphate are added. To aquarium B only nitrate is added. To aquarium C only phosphate is added. The results show that algae growth accelerated in aquariums A and B, but not in aquarium C. One conclusion that may be drawn from these results is that
a)
phosphate is not required for algae growth in seawater
b)
for algae in seawater, nitrate is a more essential nutrient than phosphate 
c)
phosphate is a limiting agent for algae growth in seawater 
d)
nitrate is not required for algae growth in seawater
5.
Which biome would have the highest diversity of tree and animal species?
a)
tropical rain forest
b)
tundra
c)
desert
d)
seasonal grassland
6.
Phytoplankton live near the surface of the water because
a)
they eat krill which only are abundant near the surface of the water
b)
there are less predators near the surface of the ocean
c)
sunlight cannot reach great depths and they need it for photosynthesis
d)
they are blown there from the land and end up floating on the surface of the water until they are consumed
7.
Most organisms experience logistic growth. The point where the growth levels off is called
a)
density independent factor line
b)
carrying capacity
c)
exponential growth model
d)
line of best fit
8.
Why is the open ocean considered one of the most productive areas for biodiveristy?
a)
phytoplankton and other smaller organisms are abundant and feed entire foodchains
b)
there is little to no competition between species
c)
open oceans are not susceptible to things like climate change or pollution
d)
Invasive species are not found in aquatic environments
9.
Eutrophication can result in death for certain fish due to
a)
lack of dissolved oxygen in the water 
b)
extremely high levels of dissolved oxygen in the water 
c)
toxic levels of lead in the water from nearby farms
d)
pH well above the range of tolerance that many fish species can survive 
10.
Which is an example of a "carbon sink"?
a)
organic matter deposited on the deep ocean floor
b)
clear-cutting rainforests
c)
burning fossil fuels and releasing ancient and stored carbon into the atmosphere
d)
release of particulate matter that ends up on reflective surfaces over time
11.
K-selected species 
a)
produce few offspring, but with high levels of parental care
b)
produce many offspring, but with low levels of parental care
c)
have medium levels of offspring produced as well as parental care
d)
none of these
12.
What is tragedy of the commons?
a)
when chemicals travel up the food chain and pile up in the fatty tissue of larger mammals
b)
when people over harvest an area that is not privately owned and tend to take more than the environment can successfully replace on its own 
c)
when there is a global problem, but everyone sees it as "everyone else's problem"
d)
people tend to feel a greater responsibility to protect land or sea that belongs to everyone compared to if it belongs to an individual or company 
13.

Fragmenting one large park or preserve into many small parks with human habitation in between them is most likely to lead to which of the following?

a)

Reduction in species diversity

b)

Stabilization of microclimates

c)

Decrease in the proportion of edge habitat

d)

Increase in population size of carnivores

14.

The factor that likely poses the greatest threat of extinction of species worldwide is

a)

black market trade in endangered species

b)

aggressive collecting of specimens by museums and zoos

c)

increasing loss of habitat

d)

weakening of environmental legislation

15.

Characteristics that tend to increase the risk of a species becoming endangered include which of the following?

a)

Having a very limited distribution

b)

Being a specialist at the end of a long food chain

c)

Having a small population size

d)

All of these are correct

16.

In general, which of the following is the best long-term method of preventing extinctions?

a)

Protecting the habitats of endangered species

b)

Paying people not to kill endangered species

c)

Removing predators from areas that contain endangered species

d)

Providing food to endangered species in the wild

17.

Gradual transition over time from one type of biological community to another.

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Law of tolerance

c)

Ecological succession

d)

Energy pyramid

18.

The theory of island biogeography suggests that species richness is affected by which of the following factors?

a)

Island distance from mainland

b)

How the island is formed

c)

Island size

d)

All of these are correct

19.

Beginning at the lowest trophic level, arrange the following food chain found on the Serengeti Plain of Africa in the correct sequence.

a)

Shrubs–decomposers–gazelles–cheetahs

b)

Gazelles–decomposers–cheetahs–shrubs

c)

Shrubs–gazelles–cheetahs–decomposers

d)

Decomposers–cheetahs–shrubs–gazelles

20.

According to the first law of thermodynamics

a)

energy can never leave or enter the system.

b)

energy can never change form.

c)

energy is not created or destroyed.

d)

none of these are correct

21.

Which of the following is the approximate efficiency of the energy transfer as energy flows through the food chain?

a)

1 percent

b)

90 percent

c)

50 percent

d)

10 percent

22.

Which best describes the concept of gross primary production?

a)

Total amount of energy available to primary consumers

b)

Total amount of cellular respiration conducted within an ecosystem

c)

Total amount of energy available within an ecosystem

d)

Total amount of solar energy that producers capture via photosynthesis

23.

After a forest fire, a badly damaged ecosystem recovered rapidly. This ecosystem has

a)

high resistance.

b)

low resistance.

c)

high resilience.

d)

low resilience.

24.
Why are there higher rates of extinction on smaller, isolated islands compared to larger islands closer to the mainland?
a)
smaller islands have less predators than larger islands
b)
smaller islands have less available resources
c)
smaller islands further away from the mainland usually receive less human activity/disruption
d)
larger islands create more space between organisms and they sometimes can't find each other to mate
25.
N2 is taken from the atmosphere and converted to ammonium ______ by bacteria on the roots of legumes, converted to _____ and _____ before being denitrified back into N2.
a)
NH4, NO2, NO3
b)
NO2, NO3, NH4
c)
NH4, N2, NH3
d)
NH3, N2, NO2
26.
Why is the open ocean considered one of the most productive areas for biodiveristy?
a)
phytoplankton and other smaller organisms are abundant and feed entire foodchains
b)
there is little to no competition between species
c)
open oceans are not susceptible to things like climate change or pollution at all
d)
none of these
27.
Which is most likely the reason that Darwin's finches were similar genetically, but had different beak sizes and shapes?
a)
each bird chose which type of beak would be best suited for its environment 
b)
the birds had different beaks to begin with and just traveled to the island that made the best use of their beak
c)
selective pressure was placed on the birds by the environment and the types of foods readily available on each island
d)
none of these
28.

In an acre of grassland, net primary productivity is best measured as

a)

carbon taken up by plants in sunlight plus carbon released by plants in the dark

b)

carbon taken up by plants in sunlight

c)

aboveground biomass of plants

d)

aboveground and belowground biomass of plants

e)

carbon taken up by plants in sunlight minus carbon released by plants in the dark

29.

Ocean acidification represents a key component of the

a)

nitrogen cycle

b)

hydrologic cycle

c)

phosphorus cycle

d)

carbon cycle

e)

sulfur cycle

30.

Which environment is characterized by frequent fires?

a)

Desert

b)

Grassland

c)

Temperate Forest

d)

Tundra

31.
The step in the nitrogen cycle where bacteria convert ammonia (NH3) to nitrate (NO3-) is:
a)
nitrification
b)
ammonification
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
assimilation
32.
The process where some bacteria remove nitrate from the soil by converting it to nitrogen gas is:
a)
nitrification
b)
nitrogen fixation
c)
denitrification
d)
nitrification
33.
In this Food Web Pyramid Which type of consumer gets only 10% of the energy stored in plants?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Carnivore
c)
Omnivore
d)
Top carnivore
34.
What type of growth model is this?
a)
exponential growth model
b)
logistic growth model
c)
Type I curve
d)
Type III curve
35.
the species that starts life in primary succession
a)
pioneer species 
b)
succession 
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
cellular respiration 
36.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)
They point to the organism that is being eaten.
b)
It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.
c)
They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms. 
d)
They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.
37.

What is a species that is critical for the overall health of an ecosystem?

a)

endangered species

b)

invasive species

c)

keystone species

d)

native species

38.
what is the leading cause of deforestation?
a)
Diseases 
b)
Housing market
c)
Agriculture and Farming
d)
Paper mill
39.

Less than 3% of the water on earth is

a)

salt water

b)

freshwater

c)

ice

d)

polluted

40.

Which is true of invasive species?

a)

They are defined as species that come from other countries

b)

by definition, all exotic species are invasive

c)

all invasive species spread rapidly

d)

invasive species most come from another continent

41.
Which country would likely be experiencing population growth? TFR=total fertility rate
a)
Country A, TFR=2.1
b)
Country B, TFR=3.7
c)
Country C, TFR=1.3
d)
All of these countries since TRF is above 1.0
42.
A country with a total fertility rate (TFR) of around 7 probably 
a)
is a developed country with higher education available for women
b)
is a developing country with limited education opportunities for women
c)
Will experience a decrease in total population over the next 15 years
d)
also has a life expectancy of 80 years for men and women
43.
Phytoplankton live near the surface of the water because
a)
they eat krill which only are abundant near the surface of the water
b)
there are less predators near the surface of the ocean
c)
sunlight cannot reach great depths and they need it for photosynthesis
d)
they are blown there from the land and end up floating on the surface of the water until they are consumed
44.
The population pyramid for Japan shows
a)
a negative future growth rate
b)
positive future growth rate
c)
most of the population is 20 years or younger
d)
most of the population is over 70 years of age
45.
Which would promote fertility above replacement level for a country currently below 2.1 children per woman?
a)
increased education and availability of birth control, especially for teenagers
b)
tax breaks for families with more than 2 children
c)
a two-child policy
d)
tax breaks and incentives for families with less than 2 children
46.
Combustion is another word for __________.
a)
Transportation
b)
Respiration
c)
Fossil Fuels
d)
Burning
47.
What does NOT produce carbon dioxide?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Burning Fossil Fuels
c)
Animal respiration
d)
Plants decaying
48.
Carbon can be found in...
a)
The atmosphere
b)
Soil
c)
Fossil fuels
d)
All of the above
49.
Use the diagram to answer the question.
The trout is a source of food for the human and the eagle. When there are more than one organism vying for the same source we call this____?
a)
Population
b)
Resources
c)
Community
d)
Competition
50.
An organism that uses an outside source of energy like the sun to create energy-rich food molecules.
a)
Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Decomposer
d)
Parasite 
51.

If there is 1000 Kcal for the producers, how much energy would be transferred to the Primary Consumers?

a)

10 Kcal

b)

1 Kcal

c)

100 Kcal

d)

1000 Kcal

52.
What does a food web represent?
a)
All connections of energy flow throughout all organisms in a habitat.
b)
The specific ways that mutualism is carried out.
c)
A single pathway or energy flow between organisms. 
d)
How carnivores get their food. 
53.
Which of the following is an appropriate unit of primary productivity
a)
kg/m2
b)
kg/m/day
c)
kJ/m2
d)
kg/m2/yr
54.
Hunters are important in wildlife management because they control population size and
a)
provide food for local food banks
b)
provide funds through licenses 
c)
decrease endangered species
d)
remove the most fit organisms from a population
55.
The three types of biodiversity are
a)
genetic, species and ecosystem
b)
medical, agricultural, ethical
c)
habitat loss, pollution, overharvesting
d)
camera traps, invasive species, cookies
56.
Which of the following is a density-dependent limiting factor?
a)
human activities 
b)
unusual weather
c)
competition
d)
natural disaster
57.
Which of the following is a density-independent limiting factor?
a)
natural disaster
b)
predation
c)
disease
d)
parasitism
58.
What 2 factors decrease population size?
a)
Immigration, Births
b)
Emigration, Births
c)
Emigration, Deaths
d)
Immigration, Deaths
59.

Estimate the carrying capacity.

a)

100 deer

b)

80 deer

c)

60 deer

d)

40 deer

60.

Which factor below is least likely to affect birth and fertility rates today?

a)

number of people 60 or older

b)

cost of raising and educating children

c)

religious beliefs

d)

educational and employment opportunities for women

e)

average age at marriage

61.

A metropolitan region of 100,000 people has 2000 births, 500 deaths, 200 emigrants, and 100 immigrants over a 1-year period. Its population growth rate is

a)

1.2 percent.

b)

1.4 percent

c)

1.6 percent.

d)

1.8 percent.

e)

2.0 percent.

62.

Which of the following pairs of indicators best reflects the availability of health care in a country?

a)

Crude death rate and growth rate

b)

Crude death rate and crude birth rate

c)

Growth rate and life expectancy

d)

Infant mortality rate and life expectancy

e)

Infant mortality rate and crude death rate

63.

At current growth rates, which country will probably be the most populous in the world after 2050?

a)

China

b)

Brazil

c)

India

d)

Indonesia

e)

United States

64.

Using the rule of 70, a population growing at 10% would double in

a)

7 years

b)

10 years

c)

17 years

d)

15 years

e)

not enough information to tell

65.
A country with an age structure diagram like this one is most likely experiencing
a)
a high life expectancy.
b)
slow population growth.
c)
a short doubling time.
d)
a low infant mortality rate.
66.
According to the population pyramid of this country, its population is most likely...
a)
growing slowly.
b)
growing rapidly.
c)
decreasing.
d)
not changing.
67.
Lichens and mosses that first live in uninhabited areas are examples of
a)
secondary species
b)
non-native species
c)
pioneer species
d)
climax species
68.
Which threat to biodiversity is being displayed?
a)
overexploitation
b)
invasive species
c)
pollution
d)
habitat fragmentation
69.
Most of the photosynthesis in lakes and ponds occurs in the
a)
benthic zone
b)
littoral zone
c)
limnetic zone
d)
profundal zone
70.

Which trophic level would be able to feed the most people?

a)

producers

b)

primary consumers

c)

secondary consumers

d)

tertiary consumers

71.

Which of the following variables increase population size?

a)

Deaths

b)

Emigration

c)

Immigration

72.

Small populations that lead to a greater likelihood of harmful alleles spreading in a population is a result of

a)

metapopulation

b)

genetic inbreeding

c)

k-selected communities

73.

This type of species puts energy into reproduction not survival.

a)

r-selected

b)

k-selected

c)

s-selected

d)

j-selected

74.

This type of species has many offspring with little to no parental care.

a)

k-selected

b)

r-selected

c)

s-selected

d)

j-selected

75.

Which type of survivorship curve represents an r-selected species?

a)

Type I survivorship curve

b)

Type II survivorship curve

c)

Type III survivorship curve

76.

Which type of survivorship curve represents an k-selected species?

a)

Type I survivorship curve

b)

Type II survivorship curve

c)

Type III survivorship curve

77.

Bacteria, algae, and dandelions are an example of

a)

r-selected species

b)

k-selected species

c)

s-selected species

78.

This type of species population remains close to carrying capacity (k) over long periods of time.

a)

r-selected

b)

k-selected

c)

s-selected

79.

This type of species population is controlled by density-dependent factors

a)

r-selected

b)

k-selected

c)

j-selected

80.

Which type of survivorship curve represents animals that have constant mortality?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

81.

As a population reaches carrying capacity what happens to mortality

a)

increases

b)

decreases

82.

The replacement-level fertility rate is ____ for developed countries and ____ for developing countries.

a)

1.6; 1.9

b)

2.5; 2.0

c)

2.0; 2.5

d)

2.1; 2.5

e)

1.8; 2.1

83.

The text suggests that one key demographic statistic is the percentage of people in a region that are under 15 years of age. Why is this statistic important?

a)

Young people buy lots of goods and services

b)

Young people will be the leaders of the future

c)

Young people will feel the effects of global warming.

d)

Young people are reckless and impulsive

e)

Young people are poised to move into their prime reproductive years.

84.

Populations whose age structure diagrams are narrower at the bottom than at the top have

a)

high death rates

b)

the same proportion of individuals in each age group

c)

a declining population

d)

a high growth rate

e)

all of the above

85.

Population size can be estimated using the formula

a)

CBR + Immigration + CDR + Emigration

b)

CBR + Immigration – CDR – Emigration

c)

CBR + Immigration + CDR – Emigration

d)

CBR – Immigration – CDR – Emigration

e)

CBR – Immigration + CDR – Emigration

86.

Which of the following statements about total fertility rate is correct

a)

TFR is equal to the crude birth rate minus the crude death rate.

b)

TFR is the average number of children each woman must have to replace the current population.

c)

TFR is generally higher in developed countries than in developing countries

d)

TFR is equal to the growth rate of a country

e)

TFR is the average number of children each woman will give birth to during her childbearing years.

87.
Which of the following have contributed to increased family planning worldwide?
  I. women's education
 II. increased income
III. advertising campaigns
a)
I, II, and III
b)
I and II only
c)
I and III only
d)
II and III only
88.
What kind of growth is this country experiencing?
a)
Exponential Growth
b)
Stable Growth
c)
Declining Growth
89.

Have the highest birth rates

a)

urbanization

b)

developed countries

c)

least-developed countries

d)

arable land

90.

Freshwater is ____,

a)

equal in amount to saltwater, on Earth.

b)

found in oceans and seas.

c)

a major source for drinking water

91.
The mountain lion is endangered for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
a)
habitat loss
b)
pest control
c)
being an apex predator
d)
invasive species
92.
Nitrogen fixing bacteria, lives in nodules on the root of a plant called
a)
Broccoli
b)
Legumes
c)
Beats
d)
Carrots
93.

When nitrogen gas is turned in to a form that plants and animals can use is called...

a)

Combustion

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Decomposition

d)

Nitrogen Fixation

94.

Plants take in carbon dioxide & release oxygen

a)

Carbon/Oxygen Cycle

b)

Nitrogen Cycle

c)

Water Cycle

95.
What is it called when plants give off water vapor as a waste product?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
transpiration
96.
During which stage do clouds form?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
precipitation
97.
Which stage does ground water try to return to the ocean or soak into the ground?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
precipitation
d)
run off
98.
To measure population density, you must divide the number of individuals living in a defined space by the
a)
area of the space
b)
birth and death rates
c)
carrying capacity
d)
height of the space
99.
Nesting birds often space themselves evenly from other nests. This pattern is called
a)
clumped dispersion.
b)
uniform dispersion.
c)
random dispersion
d)
scatter dispersion
100.
Which of these would NOT be true of a specialist species?
a)
They are more likely to go extinct during changes to an ecosystem. 
b)
They have a very narrow niche.
c)
They often lose in competition for resources to generalists. 
d)
They often feed on a very specific diet. 
101.

What type of age structure diagram represents a population with negative growth rate?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
102.

Countries undergoing rapid populations growth include which of the following?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

II and III

e)

I, II, and III

103.

Represents the biotic potential of the species

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

104.

Represents the maximum number of individuals that can be supported by a particular ecosystem on a long-term basis

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

105.

The current global human population is about 6.1 billion and is growing at an annual rate of 1.35 percent. If world population were to grow at this rate for the next year, approximately how many people would be added?

a)

8 × 105

b)

8 × 106

c)

8 × 107

d)

8 × 108

e)

8 × 109

106.

If a country has a crude birth rate of 24 per 1,000 and a crude death rate of 8 per 1,000, the natural annual percent increase of its population is

a)

0.6%

b)

1.6%

c)

3%

d)

16%

e)

32%

107.

Members of an r-selected species characteristically

a)

grow slowly

b)

produce few offspring

c)

reach sexual maturity quickly

d)

have long life spans

e)

are very protective of their offspring

108.

Which of the following characteristics in the table best supports the claim that:

Country A is a more developed country and that Country

B is a less developed country?

a)

population size

b)

land area

c)

infant mortality rate

d)

net migration rate

109.

The crude growth rate, r , of a population is calculated by

a)

multiplying the existing population size by life expectancy

b)

dividing the crude birth rate by 2

c)

dividing the doubling time by 70

d)

adding the crude birth rate to the crude death rate

e)

subtracting the crude death rate from the crude birth rate

110.

Cycads are gymnosperms that were diverse and abundant during the Mesozoic era. Extant species of cycads share many traits with those from the Mesozoic era. Cycads bear cones, are long-lived with slow growth rates, show late reproductive maturity, and have very few offspring. Based on this description, the cycads are

a)

K-strategists with a Type I survivorship curve.

b)

r-strategists with a Type III survivorship curve.

c)

K-strategists with a Type III survivorship curve.

d)

r-strategists with a Type II survivorship curve.

111.

If the population of a country grows at a rate of approximately 5 percent per year, the number of years required for the population to double is closest to

a)

5 years

b)

10 years

c)

15 years

d)

25 years

e)

35 years

112.

What is a generalist species?

a)

Species with a broad range of tolerance

b)

Species with a narrow range of tolerance

113.

an evolutionary event in which a significant percentage of a population or species is killed or otherwise prevented from reproducing

a)

population bottleneck

b)

mutation

c)

genetic resistance

d)

differential reproduction

e)

genetic recombination

114.

Which biome is best represented by this climatograph?

a)

Tundra

b)

Desert

c)

Tropical rainforest

115.

Which biome is best reresented by this climatograph?

a)

Tundra

b)

Desert

c)

Tropical rainforest

116.

The two different states of the Intertidal Zone include:

a)

Low tide and the splash zone

b)

Low tide and medium tide

c)

Low tide and high tide

d)

High tide and the splash zone

117.

Ecosystems provide the conditions for growing food.

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Supporting

d)

Cultural

118.

Habitats provide everything that an individual plant or animal needs to survive: food; water; and shelter.

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Supporting

d)

Cultural

119.

Ecosystems and biodiversity play an important role for many kinds of tourism which in turn provides considerable economic benefits and is a vital source of income for many countries.

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Supporting

d)

Cultural

120.

Insects and wind pollinate plants and trees which is essential for the development of fruits, vegetables and seeds.

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Supporting

d)

Cultural

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