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AP Gov Midterm (2021)

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

This case established supremacy of the U.S. Constitution and federal laws over state laws.

a)

McCulloch v. Maryland

b)

Gideon v. Wainwright

c)

Marbury v. Madison

d)

Shaw v. Reno

2.

What case declared that Congress may not use the commerce clause to make possession of a gun in a school zone a federal crime?

a)

U.S. v. Lopez

b)

Engel v. Vitale

c)

Wisconsin v. Yoder

d)

Roe v. Wade

3.

What case ruled that school sponsorship of religious activities violates the establishment clause?

a)

Engel v. Vitale

b)

Schenck v. United States

c)

McDonald v. Chicago

d)

Baker v. Carr

4.

What case ruled that compelling Amish students to attend school past the eighth grade violates the free exercise clause?

a)

Wisconsin v. Yoder

b)

Tinker v. Des Moines

c)

Citizens United v. FCC

d)

Shaw v. Reno

5.

Public school students have the right to wear black armbands in school to protest the Vietnam War was upheld by

a)

Tinker v. Des Moines

b)

Roe v. Wade

c)

McCulloch v. Maryland

d)

Brown v. Board of Educaton

6.

This case bolstered the freedom of the press, establishing a “heavy presumption against prior restraint” even in cases involving national security

a)

New York Times v. United States

b)

McDonald v. Chicago

c)

Citizens United v. FCC

d)

Marbury v. Madison

7.

What case ruled that speech creating a “clear and present danger” is not protected by the First Amendment?

a)

Schenck v. United States

b)

Tinker v. Des Moines

c)

U.S. v. Lopez

d)

McCulloch v. Maryland

8.

This case guaranteed the right to an attorney for the poor or indigent in a state felony case.

a)

Gideon v. Wainwright

b)

Wisconsin v. Yoder

c)

Miranda v. Arizona

d)

Baker v. Carr

9.

This case extended the right of privacy to a woman’s decision to have an abortion.

a)

Roe v. Wade

b)

McDonald v. Chicago

c)

Brown v. Board of Education

d)

New York Times v. United States

10.

This case ruled the Second Amendment right to keep and bear arms for self-defense is applicable to the states.

a)

McDonald v. Chicago

b)

Shaw v. Reno

c)

Citizens United v. FCC

d)

Marbury v. Madison

11.

What case ruled that race-based school segregation violates the equal protection clause?

a)

Brown v. Board of Education

b)

Wisconsin v. Yoder

c)

Gideon v. Wainwright

d)

Tinker v. Des Moines

12.

This case ruled that political spending by corporations, associations, and labor unions is a form of protected speech under the First Amendment.

a)

Citizens United v. FCC

b)

McDonald v. Chicago

c)

New York Times v. United States

d)

U.S. v. Lopez

13.

Which of the following accurately characterizes the main difference between elite theories and pluralist theories of politics in the United States?

a)

Elite theories argue that a single minority dominates in all policy areas; pluralist theories argue that many minorities compete in different policy areas.

b)

Elite theories argue that social status is the major source of political power; pluralist theories argue that wealth is the major source.

c)

Elite theories view government as efficient; pluralist theories view it as slow and wasteful.

d)

Elite theories concentrate on the role of interest groups; pluralist theories emphasize the role of individuals.

14.

The debates between Federalists and Anti-Federalists were primarily about which of the following issues?

a)

The scope of power of the central government

b)

The existence of slavery

c)

The right of the people to rebel

d)

The need to establish a standard currency

15.

The Declaration of Independence cites specific reasons for separating from British rule, including the British imposing taxes and maintaining a standing army without consent. Which of the following principles or ideas would these grievances be most related to?

a)

Natural rights such as life, liberty, and property

b)

The authority to create a centralized military among the colonies

c)

The incorporation of checks and balances among the branches of government

d)

Concurrent powers allowing the colonies to draft their own laws

16.

Which of the following is an accurate summary of James Madison's argument in The Federalist 10?

a)

A large republic presents more opportunities for groups to participate, compete, and limit each other.

b)

A large republic allows the federal government to dominate the state governments through the necessary and proper clause.

c)

A large republic is a direct democracy where the people have a direct vote in policy matters, which controls factions.

d)

A large republic makes it possible to abolish factions and concentrate all power at the national level.

17.

The use of ballot initiatives and referendums is most consistent with which model of democracy?

a)

Participatory Democracy

b)

Pluralist Democracy

c)

Elite Democracy

d)

Illiberal Democracy

18.

In a pluralist democracy, who has the most influence on government policy

a)

Interest Groups

b)

The average voter

c)

The wealthy and elite

d)

The Elderly

19.

Which of the following is the source of Congress' implied powers?

a)

Necessary and Proper Clause

b)

Commercial Clause

c)

Due Process Clause

d)

10th Amendment

20.

The concept that the government's powers should be predefined and restricted by a constitution is an example of

a)

Limited Government

b)

Popular sovereignty

c)

National Supremacy

d)

Natural rights

21.

The belief that political authority should rest with the people themselves is called ____.

a)

popular sovereignty

b)

political equality

c)

pluralism

d)

federalism

22.

Brutus was an example of an Anti-Federalist because he

a)

believed a centralized government posed a major threat to individual rights

b)

argued that a national military force was needed to deal with insurrections

c)

argued that the laws passed by the national government were supreme over state laws

d)

believed that compromise between the branches of government would ensure a limited government

23.

All of the following were weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation EXCEPT:

a)

Nine of the thirteen states had to approve all laws.

b)

A national court system ruled on the constitutionality of laws.

c)

Congress worked in committees without a chief executive.

d)

Congress could raise money by borrowing or by asking states for money.

24.

Which of the following was adopted to resolve the issue of representation in the House and Senate?

a)

Three-Fifths Compromise

b)

Virginia Plan

c)

New Jersey Plan

d)

Great Compromise

25.

The “Bill of Rights” is found in

a)

The Declaration of Independence.

b)

The Third Article of the Constitution

c)

Amendments to the Constitution

d)

Bills passed by Congress

26.

Which of the following statements best describes government under the Article of Confederation?

a)

The Confederation government established guidelines for setting new territories and admitting new states.

b)

The Confederation government was hampered in its ability to levy taxes.

c)

The Articles of Confederation had been written so that real power remained with the states.

d)

States could not make treaties without Congress’s approval.

27.

The Tenth Amendment to the Constitution has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to

a)

prevent states from taxing agencies of the federal government

b)

reserve powers to the states

c)

restrict the application of judicial review

d)

allow for the burning of the flag as an expression of protest

28.

Which of the following was stipulated in Article III of the Constitution?

a)

creation of the Supreme Court

b)

executive powers

c)

powers of Congress

d)

full faith and credit clause

29.

The importance of Shays' Rebellion to the development of the United States Constitution was that it

a)

revealed the necessity of adding the Bill of Rights to the Constitution

b)

demonstrated the intensity of anti-ratification sentiment within the thirteen states

c)

convinced the delegates attending the Constitutional Convention to accept the Connecticut Plan

d)

indicated that a strong national government was needed to protect property and maintain order

30.

Which of the following statements about Congress is true?

a)

Congress cannot override a presidential veto.

b)

According to Article V, a proposed constitutional amendment must be approved by 2/3 of the delegates of both houses of Congress.

c)

Congress can establish an official church of the United States.

d)

Congressional power over the bureaucracy is less than that of the president.

31.

All of the following issues were decided at the Constitutional Convention EXCEPT

a)

representation in the legislature

b)

voting qualifications of the electorate

c)

method of electing the President

d)

congressional power to override a presidential veto

32.
The legislative branch is established in
a)
Article IV
b)
Article VII
c)
Article I
d)
Article III
33.

Which of the following is the best example of a categorical grant?

a)

Money given to states for special education programs

b)

Money given to individuals in the form of tax rebates

c)

Money given to states unconditionally

d)

Money given to states to spend at their discretion on transportation

34.

The Americans with Disabilities Act, which provides protections for the disabled, is an example of

a)

a federal mandate

b)

horizontal federalism

c)

dual federalism

d)

state supremacy

35.

The Tenth Amendment to the Constitution has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to

a)

prevent states from taxing agencies of the federal government

b)

reserve powers to the states

c)

restrict the application of judicial review

d)

allow for the burning of the flag as an expression of protest

36.

Which of the following constitutional principles most directly addresses the relationship between the national and state governments?

a)

The Bill of Rights

b)

Separation of powers

c)

Representation

d)

Federalism

37.

Of the following, which has been used most to expand the power of the national government?

a)

The First Amendment

b)

The Fifth Amendment

c)

The habeas corpus clause of the Constitution

d)

The commerce clause of the Constitution

38.

The outcome of a conflict between the Constitution and the states is determined by

a)

the Great Compromise

b)

the supremacy clause

c)

Federalist #10

d)

judicial review

39.

Which of the following would least likely be favored by state governments?

a)

unfunded mandates

b)

categorical grants

c)

block grants

d)

revenue sharing

40.

States and localities have the most discretion in establishing policy when federal funding is derived from

a)

categorical grants

b)

matching grants

c)

block grants

d)

project grants

41.

Both the national and states’ governments can establish court systems. This is an example of

a)

reserved powers

b)

a mandate

c)

concurrent powers

d)

full faith and credit clause

42.

The Constitution grants Congress the power to establish post offices and post roads. This is an example of

a)

enumerated powers

b)

implied powers

c)

reserved powers

d)

concurrent powers

43.

Which of the following amendments reserves citizens the suffrage rights regardless of their race, color, or previous slave status.

a)

15th

b)

17th

c)

19th

d)

21st

44.

What did the 24th amendment eliminate?

a)

Poll taxes

b)

Voting rights based on gender

c)

Literacy tests

d)

Voting rights based on race

45.

Which amendment lowered the voting age to 18?

a)

26th

b)

27th

c)

28th

d)

29th

46.

Which of the following is an example of legislation that protects voting rights in the U.S.?

a)

Civil Rights Act of 1957

b)

Senate Bill 233

c)

House Bill 54

d)

Voting Rights Act of 1932

47.

"The impeachment of Trump doesn't matter to me because he's the Republican candidate, and I always vote Republican" would be an example of:

a)

Party-line voting

b)

Prospective voting

c)

Retrospective voting

d)

Rational choice

48.

"Nancy Pelosi's leadership in the House has been awful, I will vote Republican because of it" would be an example of:

a)

Retrospective voting

b)

Prospective voting

c)

Party-line voting

d)

Rational choice

49.

What conclusion can be drawn from analyzing the chart?

a)

Casting a vote is the primary way that most Americans participate in government.

b)

Volunteering for a political campaign is the way that most baby boomers participate in politics.

c)

Attendance at political rallies has increased in the last decade.

d)

The majority of Americans take get involved in the political process through donating money to a campaign.

50.

Typically, how does voter turnout for midterm elections compare to voter turnout in presidential elections?

a)

Turnout is significantly lower in midterm elections

b)

Turnout is significantly higher in midterm elections

51.

A political party that believes that the federal government should take a more active role in people's lives, particularly those who are in need.

a)

Democratic Party

b)

Republican Party

c)

Libertarian Party

d)

Socialist Party

52.

A political party that believes that the federal government should play a less active role in people's lives and that individuals can take care of themselves without government help.

a)

Republican Party

b)

Democratic Party

c)

Libertarian Party

d)

Socialist Party

53.

What is the primary goal of political parties?

a)

to get their candidates elected

b)

to create a national platform

c)

to collect campaign contributions

d)

to attract members who agree on issues

54.

When a candidate-centered campaign is run, what happens to the role of the political party management?

a)

It decreases

b)

It increases

c)

It stays the same

d)

It focuses on

55.

Which of these groups has the highest voter turnout

a)

65 and over voters

b)

18-24 year olds

c)

African American voters

d)

High school dropouts

56.

A realignment period for party systems happened between 1860-1896. During this time, which political party was responsible for freeing slaves and Reconstruction of the Union after the Civil War?

a)

Republicans

b)

Democrats

57.

Economics and demographics have always played a role in shaping the alignment of political parties. Starting in 1932, Democrats began dominating politics until the mid 1990s. What was the term used for this expansion of Democratic voters?


(Think about FDR....)

a)

New Deal Coalition

b)

Great Society Coalition

c)

New Frontier Coalition

d)

Square Deal Coalition

58.

What is a strategy an interest group might use to influence an election's outcome (results)?

a)

run TV and newspaper ads

b)

conduct public opinion polls

c)

pay candidates to quit running

d)

hire high-powered lobbyists to influence legislators

59.

What do lobbyists try to do?

a)

influence the decisions made by government officials

b)

ensure the federal budget balances

c)

help the President to choose Supreme Court justices and Cabinet members

d)

help Congress in writing legislation for the common good

60.

How do Political Action Committees (PACs) influence government?

a)

financially supporting causes and campaigns

b)

staffing Congressional offices

c)

advising the President

d)

sending written summaries of cases to the Supreme Court

61.

Why is the same event sometimes reported differently by different news networks?

a)

Newspapers and networks hold certain political beliefs (biases) that are shown in their reporting.

b)

Newspapers and networks don't get enough information to report events accurately.

c)

Some newspapers and networks just want to trick the public into believing things that aren't true.

d)

Political parties pay newspapers and news networks to make them look good, leading to false reporting.

62.

Why is the same event sometimes reported differently by different news networks?

a)

Newspapers and networks hold certain political beliefs (biases) that are shown in their reporting.

b)

Newspapers and networks don't get enough information to report events accurately.

c)

Some newspapers and networks just want to trick the public into believing things that aren't true.

d)

Political parties pay newspapers and news networks to make them look good, leading to false reporting.

63.

an electoral system that awards offices to the highest vote-getters without ensuring representation for voters in the minority; under this system, a slim majority of voters can control 100 percent of elected offices

a)

winner-take-all system

b)

electorate

c)

proportional representation

d)

caucus

64.

an election in which voters determine their party’s nominee for an elective office

a)

primary election

b)

open primary

c)

midterm election

d)

general election

65.

a public official seeking reelection to the position he or she currently occupies

a)

incumbent

b)

self-announcement

c)

party base

d)

swing voter

66.
  How many Electoral College votes do you need to win 
a)
270
b)
435
c)
535
d)
100
67.

Who can vote in a closed primary

a)

only declared party members

b)

all qualified voters may vote.

c)

voters must vote a split ticket.

d)

voters must complete separate ballots for both parties.

68.

Which is true about Super PACs?

a)

can receive unlimited donations and spend as much as they want

b)

are allowed to coordinate with candidates

c)

are not regulated by the FEC

d)

cannot use express advocacy

69.
The impact of the mass media on the public agenda can best be described as its ability to
a)
focus the public's attention on specific issues.
b)
tell people what opinions to have about those issues.
c)
tell people whom to vote for.
d)
can be used to focus government attention on specific problems or issues.
70.

The __________ problem occurs when people fail to join a groupbecause they can get the benefits the group offers without contributing to the group’s efforts.

a)

free-rider

b)

pluralist

c)

group coordination

d)

group formation

71.
Which of the following is a consequence of the rise of television broadcasting?
a)
Candidates are more capable of running for office on their own by appealing to people directly through TV.
b)
Individuals have a greater need for political parties to help them make decisions.
c)
Groups have greater access to spread their issues and messages to the public.
d)
Congress has received more television coverage compared to the other two branches of government.
72.
The Democratic and Republican candidates for president are formally nominated by the __________.
a)
national party conventions
b)
presidential caucuses
c)
national committees
d)
Electoral College
73.

Which of the following Supreme Court decisions made it dramatically easier for PACs to spend money in campaigns?

a)

Citizens United v. FEC

b)

Buckley v. Valeo

c)

Reed v. Reed

d)

Brison v. Kroger

74.
Which of the following is an interest group that lobbies on behalf of the elderly?
a)
AARP
b)
NAACP
c)
NRA
d)
AFL-CIO
75.
The Due Process Clause is the foundation for which of these?
a)
Reserved Powers
b)
Separation of Church and State
c)
Selective Incorporation
d)
Campaign Finance Reform
76.

Which of the following is true about the right of free speech, as currently interpreted by the Supreme Court?

a)

It protects the right to express opinions even without the actual use of words.

b)

It protects the use of language deemed obscene by the courts.

c)

It allows citizens to disobey laws that they believe to be unjust.

d)

It is protected from infringement by the federal government but not from infringement by state governments.

77.

The Supreme Court established the incorporation doctrine when the Court

a)

interpreted the Fourteenth Amendment as extending most of the requirements of the Bill of Rights to the states as well as the federal government

b)

interpreted the Ninth Amendment as requiring national health and worker-safety standards to protect the individual’s implied right of personal safety

c)

stripped the armed forces of their discretionary powers regarding military service for gay men, lesbians, and married people

d)

strengthened local police forces by granting them the power to investigate and prosecute federal offenses

78.

Most of the individual protections of the Bill of Rights now apply to the states because of the Supreme Court's interpretation of the Constitution's

a)

14th amendment

b)

supremacy clause

c)

necessary and proper clause

d)

10th amendment

79.

The Constitution and its amendments expressly prohibit all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Sex discrimination in the workplace

b)

Cruel and unusual punishment

c)

Double jeopardy

d)

Unreasonable searches and seizures

80.

The Supreme Court has ruled which of the following concerning the death penalty?

a)

The death penalty is not necessarily cruel and unusual punishment.

b)

A state may not impose the death penalty on a noncitizen.

c)

Lethal injection is the only constitutionally acceptable method of execution.

d)

The death penalty violates the Fifth Amendment of the Constitution.

81.

Which of the following principles protects a citizen from imprisonment without trial?

a)

Due process

b)

Checks and balances

c)

Popular sovereignty

d)

Separation of powers

82.

The establishment clause in the First Amendment does which of the following?

a)

Prohibits the setting up of a state church.

b)

Guarantees freedom of speech to all citizens.

c)

Allows citizens to enter freely into contracts with other citizens.

d)

Defines the concept of dual citizenship.

83.

The free-exercise clause protects

a)

voluntary prayer by student groups before school

b)

the president from forcibly revealing private conversations with staff

c)

individuals who, for religious reasons, refuse to pay Social Security taxes

d)

a person’s right to burn the American flag

84.

In Miranda v. Arizona, the United States Supreme Court declared that

a)

police must inform criminal suspects of their constitutional rights before questioning suspects after arrest

b)

illegal aliens have the same right to an education as United States citizens

c)

evidence seized during an illegal search cannot be used in court

d)

the death penalty is constitutional so long as juries are supplied with sentencing guidelines

85.

The federal Constitution guarantees all of the following rights to a person arrested and charged with a serious crime EXCEPT the right to

a)

negotiate a plea bargain

b)

remain silent

c)

be represented by a lawyer

d)

receive a speedy and public trial

86.

The “wall of separation” doctrine refers to the

a)

division of church and state

b)

division between levels of government

c)

unique powers possessed by each branch of government

d)

differentiation of municipal powers from county powers

87.

The Supreme Court overturned laws regulating birth control in Griswold v. Connecticut (1965) on the grounds that such laws violated the right to privacy. Why was this a controversial decision?

a)

The Court's decision clashed with the right of free exercise for those religiously opposed to birth control.

b)

The right to privacy is never mentioned by name in the Bill of Rights.

c)

The laws had been approved by an overwhelming majority of voters in Connecticut.

d)

The decision to overturn the law injected government rules into private business enterprises.

88.

Which of the following correctly describes the concept of prior restraint?

a)

The government attempting to prevent something from being published by the press

b)

The right of individuals to plan, coordinate, and execute peaceful methods of protest

c)

The punishment of individuals for making statements critical of the government

d)

The Supreme Court blocking government action on the grounds that it is unconstitutional

89.

When the process of incorporation is referred to as "selective," it is in reference to the fact that

a)

the Court only incorporates a right in some cases but not all.

b)

incorporation has happened on an amendment-by-amendment basis.

c)

extension of rights may be withheld from some groups, such as students.

d)

decisions from those cases do not set precedent for future cases.

90.

The Supreme Court is hearing an appeal of a man arrested and jailed for publicly advocating overthrowing the current president. The Supreme Court will likely find that

a)

his conviction should be overturned as a violation of his 1st amendment rights.

b)

his conviction should be overturned due to the exclusionary rule.

c)

his conviction should be upheld, as long as he was read his Miranda rights.

d)

his conviction should be upheld, due to his disregard for public safety.

91.

Which of the following is an example of a good faith exception, as it relates to the exclusionary rule?

a)

A search warrant was issued, but the judge forgot to sign it.

b)

There was a warrantless search, but eye-witnesses saw the suspect with the evidence.

c)

Evidence was obtained without a warrant but by a private citizen and not the police.

d)

The search warrant listed the wrong type of evidence the police were looking for.

92.

Which of the following cases most likely involves a violation of civil rights?

a)

Classifying people into brackets on the basis of income and taxing them at different rates

b)

Classifying people in any way, using any system that treats one group of people differently from another

c)

Classifying people and treating them differently on the basis of race or gender

d)

Giving adults more rights, such as voting or drinking alcohol, than the rights possessed by minors

93.

Dr. Martin Luther King's message in "Letter from Birmingham Jail" was heavily insistent upon which of the following?

a)

Using the Women's Rights movement as a model for African Americans

b)

Why grandfather clauses and poll taxes should be illegal

c)

The importance of due process

d)

Civil disobedience as a means to achieve a goal

94.

The extension of marriage rights to same-sex couples was done under which of the following justifications?

a)

Those rights fall under the equal protection clause of the 14th amendment.

b)

Denying those rights does not pass the intermediate scrutiny used for sex discrimination.

c)

The Civil Rights Act of 1964 was interpreted to outlaw such discrimination.

d)

A person's choice in spouse was a private matter, protected by the 4th amendment.

95.

As part of the Women's Right Movement, Title IX attempted to take the concept of equal protection under the law and extend it to the realm of

a)

private employment.

b)

college admissions.

c)

abortion rights.

d)

educational programs.

96.

The Right to Privacy is defined as an individuals right to be left alone and live life free from unwarranted publicity. Which of the following is a reason the Government can reasonably violate a person's right to privacy?

a)

When the police have a court-ordered warrant to go through your personal computer

b)

When the police want to get into your locked phone

c)

When the police knock on your door in the middle of the night

d)

When you get pulled over for speeding and they ask to go through your trunk

97.

This amendment protects a person from an unreasonable search by a police officer

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

4th

d)

5th

98.

Civil liberties are best described as

a)

protections of specific citizens' rights from encroachment by the government.

b)

protections against discrimination by the government and private citizens

c)

protections for various forms of expression that are vital to American political life

d)

protections specifically designed to protect minorities in the nation.

99.

Which of the following is true of the Voting Rights Act of 1965?

a)

It has been a major instrument for increasing the number of African American and other minority voters.

b)

It was unnecessary because the Fifteenth Amendment effectively guaranteed African Americans the right to vote.

c)

It has never been applied to any group except southern African Americans.

d)

It was declared unconstitutional by the United States Supreme Court in Shaw v. Reno.

100.

If a college’s admission policy to reserve twenty seats in its incoming class for applicants belonging to racial minority groups is challenged in the courts, a judge is likely to

a)

strike down the policy because reserving seats amounts to a quota system

b)

uphold the policy because it provides additional opportunities for minority applicants

c)

uphold the policy because only a small percentage of the total seats for incoming students are affected

d)

strike down the policy because it did not apply to women as well as racial minorities

101.

Millennials' political socialization was affected by the September 11th attacks by al-Qaeda, showing most clearly which effect on the formation of political views?

a)

The generational effect

b)

The lifecycle effect

c)

The effect of social media

d)

The effect of globalization

102.

Which of the following is an accurate comparison of Millennials and members of the Silent Generation?

a)

Millennials tend to believe the U.S. should stay out of foreign countries, while the Silent Generation sees the U.S. as a world guardian of democracy

b)

Millennials tend to favor tough punishments for criminals, while the Silent Generation favors lenient punishments for criminals.

c)

Millennials are generally opposed to same-sex marriage , while the Silent Generation generally supports same-sex marriage.

d)

Millennials tend to be Republicans, while the Silent Generation tends to be Democrats.

103.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between family and political opinions?

a)

Children's political opinions are heavily influenced by their parents, but not as much as they used to be.

b)

Children are rarely surveyed, so it is difficult to determine the relationship.

c)

Children who discuss politics at a younger age with parents have fewer political discussions with parents over time.

d)

Children are keenly aware of their parents' political opinions and invariably follow them.

104.

Which of the following is necessary for a public opinion poll to be valid?

a)

The poll must have a low margin of error

b)

The poll must be conducted by a responsible news organization

c)

The poll must use objective, open-ended questions

d)

The poll must include equal numbers of people from different demographic groups.

105.

A Republican candidate for U.S. Senate has hired a pollster who conducts a poll among likely voters across the state and collects a sample of over 2,500 respondents. She conducted her poll carefully, but her sample has 65% men and 35% women. What technique in measuring public opinion must the pollster use to make the poll accurately reflect public opinion?

a)

Stratification

b)

Randomization

c)

Enhancing the questions

d)

Ask additional respondents

106.

Which argument do supporters of supply-side economics make?

a)

Leaving more money in the citizens' pockets will stimulate the economy and generate government revenue through other taxes.

b)

The federal government should follow the ideas of John Maynard Keynes

c)

The more revenue the government takes in and spends the better off the economy will be

d)

The government should increase the supply of currency into circulation to bring down inflation

107.

Which of the following religious groups is correctly identified with the appropriate political socialization tendencies?

a)

Jewish = Democrats

b)

Evangelicals = Moderates

c)

Catholic = Republicans

d)

Atheists = Republicans

108.

Which of the following examples of geographic influence on political socialization is correct?

a)

Northeast tends to be more liberal Democrats

b)

Pacific Northwest tends to be more libertarian

c)

South is less influenced by conservative Christian values than the North

d)

Democrats have majority in the South in national elections

109.

A type of poll that is used to measure support for a candidate and to gather information about the issues that people care about is called a(n)

a)

benchmark poll

b)

exit poll

c)

entrance poll

d)

tracking poll

110.

This type of poll is used during the course of an election to allow a campaign to track issues and determine how a candidate is faring with voters.

a)

tracking poll

b)

exit poll

c)

entrance poll

d)

benchmark poll

111.

This type of poll is used to identify and analyze how different demographics actually voted in an election.

a)

exit poll

b)

tracking poll

c)

entrance poll

d)

benchmark poll

112.

This type of poll is used in national and statewide elections to help offer predictions as well as to gain insight into the thoughts and behaviors of voters.

a)

entrance poll

b)

exit poll

c)

tracking poll

d)

benchmark poll

113.

A good nationally representative sample size has about ______ respondents

a)

500

b)

1,500

c)

5,000

d)

150,000

114.

A margin of error is considered satisfactory if it is plus-or-minus

a)

4%

b)

6%

c)

8%

d)

10%

115.

A shift of support to a candidate or position holding the lead in a public opinion poll and therefore believe to be endorsed by many people is an example of the

a)

Bandwagon effect

b)

Bradley effect

c)

Brison effect

d)

Bolivar effect

116.

Most Americans align themselves on the ideological spectrum as a

a)

Moderate

b)

Liberal

c)

Conservative

d)

Libertarian

117.

A voter who generally oppose government intervention or regulation is considered a

a)

libertarian

b)

populist

c)

progressive

d)

moderate

118.

A person more open to allowing the government to act flexibly and expand beyond established constraints is called a

a)

liberal

b)

conservative

c)

moderate

d)

populist

119.

A voter who values following traditions and maintaining a reverence for authority is called a

a)

conservative

b)

liberal

c)

moderate

d)

progressive

120.

A Keynesian economist support an economic policy that supports the government creating levels of demand. What ideology is most likely to support this position?

a)

liberal

b)

conservative

c)

moderate

d)

libertarian

121.

How the government manages the supply and demand of its currency is called

a)

monetary policy

b)

fiscal policy

c)

discount policy

d)

inflation policy

122.

What agency is responsible for setting the monetary policy?

a)

Federal Reserve

b)

Federal Bureau of Investigation

c)

Federalist Papers

d)

Federal Express

123.

How would the Fed likely respond to fight inflation?

a)

Decrease the money supply, raise interest rates

b)

Decrease the money supply, lower interest rates

c)

Increase the money supply, lower interest rates

d)

Increase the money supply, raise interest rates

124.

Which of the following stances correctly matches the ideology about government surveillance?

a)

Conservatives tend to be more supportive of government surveillance, especially if the nation is under threat

b)

Liberals tend to be more supportive of government surveillance, especially if the nation is under threat.

c)

Moderates tend to favor stricter limits on government surveillance.

d)

Libertarians tend to favor more government involvement to protect national security.

125.

Which of the following stances correctly matches the ideology about right to privacy?

a)

liberals tend to think the government should not regulate private, personal matters

b)

conservatives tend to think the government should not regulate private, personal matters

c)

moderates believe the government needs to protect core values, even if it intrudes on some individual freedoms

d)

libertarians believe the government should increase funding for prison reform