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POLS 153 Fall 2025 - Semester Test

Total questions: 127

Worksheet time: 6hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What fundamental problem in democratic government does the concept of the "Fourth Branch" address?

a)

The difficulty of enforcing judicial decisions without executive cooperation

b)

The challenge of preventing legislative gridlock during political crises

c)

Who checks the government when all three official branches want to same thing

d)

The absence of direct citizen participation in constitutional amendments

2.

Why did the Founders protect "press" separately from "speech" in the First Amendment?

a)

They wanted to limit individual speech more than institutional publications

b)

They believed newspapers were more trustworthy than individual citizens

c)

Press institutions can investigate, verify, and reach millions while individuals can only reach those around them

d)

They feared that without separate protection, states would regulate newspapers differently

3.

What does James Madison's phrase "knowledge will forever govern ignorance" mean in the context of the Pentagon Papers case?

a)

Citizens with more education will always make better voting decisions

b)

When government possesses knowledge that citizens lack, true self-government becomes impossible

c)

Government officials must be more knowledgeable than the citizens they represent

d)

Democratic institutions inevitably accumulate more information than individual citizens

4.

How does the press as a "Fourth Branch" differ from the three constitutional branches of government?

a)

It was created by Article IV of the Constitution while others were created by Articles I-III

b)

It has formal powers to investigate and prosecute government officials

c)

It exists outside the government structure and checks all three branches through publication rather than formal powers

5.

Why is prior restraint considered more dangerous to democracy than subsequent punishment of the press?

a)

Prior restraint involves harsher penalties for journalists than subsequent punishment

b)

Courts are more likely to approve prior restraint than subsequent punishment

c)

Prior restraint prevents information from reaching the public at all, while subsequent punishment still allows citizens to learn the truth first

d)

Prior restraint requires less evidence for the government to prove its case

6.

What principle did Chief Justice Charles Evans Hughes establish in Near v. Minnesota regarding the relationship between press abuses and censorship?

a)

Press mistakes are less harmful to society than most criminal activities

b)

Newspapers should be completely immune from all legal consequences

c)

The danger of government censorship is worse than the problem of bad journalism

d)

Previous legal restraints on the press were based on outdated colonial laws

7.

What standard did the Supreme Court establish in Near v. Minnesota (1931) regarding prior restraint?

a)

Prior restraint is always constitutional when public officials are criticized

b)

Prior restraint requires a simple majority vote in both houses of Congress

c)

Prior restraint comes with a "heavy presumption against its constitutional validity"

d)

Prior restraint can be imposed by any state that passes appropriate legislation

8.

In the Pentagon Papers case, why did Justice William Brennan argue that prior restraint cannot be based on claims that publication "could" or "might" cause harm?

a)

Such predictions are typically made by officials without sufficient expertise

b)

Historical precedent shows these predictions are usually incorrect

c)

If vague possibilities were sufficient, government could censor anything by claiming potential problems

d)

The Constitution requires congressional approval before any harm can be considered

9.

What precedent did the Pentagon Papers decision establish regarding classified information?

a)

All classified documents automatically lose their protection after twenty years

b)

Government employees who leak classified information cannot be prosecuted

c)

Classification doesn't automatically prevent publication when information serves the public interest and shows government wrongdoing

d)

Courts must declassify any documents that reveal government wrongdoing

10.

How does the session length of South Dakota's Legislature compare to the U.S. Congress?

a)

Both meet for approximately the same number of days but South Dakota spreads sessions across the year

b)

South Dakota meets year-round like Congress but with more frequent recesses

c)

South Dakota meets for only 35-40 legislative days annually while Congress operates nearly year-round

d)

Congress meets for shorter periods but more frequently throughout the calendar year

11.

What is the key philosophical difference between a citizen legislature and a professional legislature?

a)

Citizen legislatures require members to have specific professional qualifications before serving

b)

Professional legislatures prohibit members from holding outside employment during their terms

c)

Citizen legislatures emphasize accessibility and community connection while accepting limitations in specialization, whereas professional legislatures emphasize expertise while accepting higher costs

d)

Citizen legislatures operate more efficiently because members can return to their regular jobs immediately

12.

What role does the Legislative Research Council play in South Dakota's citizen legislature model?

a)

It lobbies on behalf of citizens who cannot afford professional representation

b)

It votes on bills when legislators must return to their regular employment

c)

It provides nonpartisan bill-drafting assistance to help legislators translate policy ideas into proper legal language

d)

It conducts research exclusively for the majority party's legislative priorities

13.

What makes South Dakota's committee hearing process distinctive compared to many other states?

a)

Committee chairs can schedule multiple hearings for the same bill simultaneously

b)

Committees can vote on bills without holding any public hearings

c)

Nearly every bill introduced receives a public hearing unless the sponsor withdraws it

d)

Only committees with unanimous support are required to hold hearings

14.

What happens if a bill receives 17 yes votes and 15 no votes in the South Dakota Senate with 3 members absent?

a)

The bill passes because more members voted for it than against it

b)

The vote is postponed until all members are present to vote

c)

The bill fails because it didn’t receive the required 18 votes (simple majority of all elected members)

d)

The presiding officer casts the tie-breaking vote to determine the outcome

15.

What is the purpose of a conference committee in the legislative process?

a)

To hold additional public hearings when the first committee's hearing was insufficient

b)

To investigate allegations of procedural violations during floor debate

c)

To negotiate a compromise between different versions of a bill passed by each chamber

16.

How does the governor's line-item veto power differ from the regular veto power?

a)

Line-item vetoes cannot be overridden by the legislature while regular vetoes can be

b)

Line-item vetoes require only a simple majority to override while regular vetoes require two-thirds

c)

Line-item vetoes allow the governor to reject specific spending items in appropriations bills while signing the rest

d)

Line-item vetoes apply to all legislation while regular vetoes only apply to appropriations bills

17.

What is required for the South Dakota Legislature to override a gubernatorial veto?

a)

A simple majority vote in a joint session of both chambers

b)

Three-fifths vote in the chamber where the bill originated

c)

A two-thirds vote in each chamber separately (at least 24 senators and 47 representatives)

d)

A unanimous vote by the conference committee followed by simple majority in both chambers

18.

What happens if the governor takes no action on a bill that reaches the executive desk?

a)

The bill automatically dies after ten days without signature

b)

The bill returns to the legislature for reconsideration and additional debate

c)

The bill becomes law automatically after five days if the legislature is in session or fifteen days if adjourned

d)

The Secretary of State assumes authority to sign or veto the bill

19.

How does South Dakota's Republican supermajority affect the normal dynamics of legislative politics?

a)

It eliminates the need for committee hearings since outcomes are predetermined

b)

It allows the minority party to gain influence through coalition-building with moderate Republicans

c)

Meaningful political debates often occur within the Republican caucus between moderates and conservatives rather than between parties

d)

It requires bipartisan cooperation because constitutional amendments need support from both parties

20.

What two critical protections does the Fourth Amendment establish?

a)

The right to refuse questioning by law enforcement and the right to legal representation during searches

b)

Protection from self-incrimination during searches and the requirement for jury trials in search cases

c)

Protection of reasonable expectation of privacy and the requirement that most searches and seizures be reasonable

d)

The right to know who is searching your property and the right to observe all searches in progress

21.

What must law enforcement demonstrate to a judge in order to obtain a search warrant?

a)

Beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant committed the crime being investigated

b)

A preponderance of evidence suggesting that criminal activity has likely occurred

c)

Probable cause—a reasonable belief based on facts and evidence that a crime has been committed

d)

Reasonable suspicion that the person or location is connected to ongoing criminal activity

22.

What is the primary purpose of the exclusionary rule established in Mapp v. Ohio (1961)?

a)

To ensure that defendants receive fair trials by excluding prejudicial evidence

b)

To protect witnesses from having to testify about information they obtained illegally

c)

To deter police misconduct by preventing illegally obtained evidence from being used in court

d)

To exclude evidence that was obtained legally but is too inflammatory for juries to consider

23.

What does the "fruit of the poisonous tree" doctrine established in Wong Sun v. United States (1963) require?

a)

Any evidence collected from contaminated crime scenes must be excluded from trial

b)

Evidence obtained through unethical but legal means cannot be used in criminal prosecutions

c)

Evidence discovered as a result of an initial illegal search must also be excluded from trial

d)

Physical evidence must be preserved in its original condition or it becomes inadmissible

24.

What did the Supreme Court establish in Katz v. United States (1967) regarding Fourth Amendment protections?

a)

Privacy protections only apply to searches conducted inside private residences

b)

Technology-based surveillance is always considered a search requiring a warrant

c)

The Fourth Amendment "protects people, not places," meaning privacy expectations matter even in public spaces

d)

Government surveillance is permitted in any location where multiple people can observe your activities

25.

How did Carpenter v. United States (2018) modify the traditional third-party doctrine?

a)

It eliminated the third-party doctrine entirely for all types of digital information

b)

It required warrants for any information shared with businesses or corporations

c)

It created an exception for digital information like cell phone location data that reveals intimate details about people's lives

d)

It extended third-party doctrine protections to include all communications with technology companies

26.

What standard did Terry v. Ohio (1968) establish for brief investigatory stops by police?

a)

Police must have probable cause before stopping anyone on the street for questioning

b)

Officers can stop anyone in high-crime areas without any justification for the stop

c)

Police can briefly stop and question someone based on reasonable suspicion of criminal activity

d)

Law enforcement must obtain a warrant before conducting any stop-and-frisk procedure

27.

What limitation did Rodriguez v. United States (2015) place on traffic stops?

a)

Police cannot conduct traffic stops based solely on minor violations like broken taillights

b)

Officers must complete all searches within fifteen minutes of initiating the traffic stop

c)

Police cannot extend a traffic stop beyond the time needed to handle the original matter without reasonable suspicion

d)

Law enforcement must inform drivers of their right to refuse consent for vehicle searches

28.

Under what conditions does the plain view doctrine allow police to seize evidence without a warrant?

a)

When evidence is visible from any public location, regardless of how officers obtained their vantage point

b)

When officers accidentally discover evidence while conducting an unrelated lawful search

c)

When the officer is lawfully present, the incriminating nature is immediately apparent, and the officer has lawful access

d)

When the evidence would deteriorate or disappear if officers took time to obtain a warrant

29.

How do Fourth Amendment protections differ for students in schools according to New Jersey v. T.L.O. (1985)?

a)

Students have no Fourth Amendment rights on school property during school hours

b)

School officials must obtain warrants before searching students just like police officers

c)

Students have Fourth Amendment rights, but school officials only need reasonable suspicion rather than probable cause

d)

Schools can conduct random searches of all students without any individualized suspicion

30.

What makes border searches exceptional under Fourth Amendment jurisprudence?

a)

Border officials must obtain warrants but do not need to show probable cause

b)

Searches at borders require reasonable suspicion but not probable cause

c)

Officials can search people and vehicles at international borders without warrants or even probable cause

d)

Border searches receive the same protections as searches conducted in the interior of the country

31.

What is the difference between curtilage and open fields under Fourth Amendment law?

a)

Curtilage refers to public areas while open fields are privately owned property

b)

Both receive equal Fourth Amendment protection if they are located on private property

c)

Curtilage (area immediately surrounding a home) receives Fourth Amendment protection while open fields do not

d)

Open fields receive greater protection because people expect more privacy in remote areas

32.

What did Whren v. United States (1996) establish regarding pretextual stops?

a)

Pretextual stops violate the Fourth Amendment regardless of whether valid grounds existed

b)

Police must prove their actual motivation was legitimate for any traffic stop to be constitutional

c)

Pretextual stops are constitutional as long as officers had valid legal grounds, regardless of subjective motivation

d)

Officers can only conduct pretextual stops in high-crime areas where suspicion is reasonable

33.

What balance do the two religion clauses of the First Amendment establish?

a)

The right to practice any religion versus the government's power to tax religious institutions

b)

Federal authority over religious matters versus state control of religious education

c)

Preventing government-sponsored religion versus protecting individual religious practice

d)

Majority religious traditions versus minority religious communities seeking equal recognition

34.

What principle did Employment Division v. Smith (1990) establish regarding the Free Exercise Clause?

a)

Religious practices that violate criminal laws receive absolute protection under the First Amendment

b)

Government must provide religious exemptions from any law that burdens sincere religious beliefs

c)

Neutral laws of general applicability can be enforced even if they burden religious practice

d)

States cannot criminalize religious ceremonies that involve controlled substances under any circumstances

35.

How did Brandenburg v. Ohio (1969) refine the "clear and present danger" test from Schenck v. United States (1919)?

a)

It eliminated all restrictions on political speech regardless of the danger posed

b)

It allowed states to restrict speech that created any potential for future lawless action

c)

It established that speech can only be restricted if directed to inciting imminent lawless action and likely to produce it

d)

It permitted government to punish speech that advocates illegal activity even if action is not imminent

36.

The standard established by Tinker v. Des Moines (1969) for restricting student speech in schools is:

a)

The speech must cause a substantial disruption to the educational environment.

b)

Any speech that is offensive can be restricted.

c)

All student speech can be restricted at the discretion of the principal.

d)

Only political speech can be restricted.

37.

What distinction did New York Times v. Sullivan (1964) establish regarding defamation lawsuits?

a)

Private citizens must prove negligence while public figures face no restrictions on defamation claims

b)

All defamation claims require proof of financial harm before damages can be awarded

c)

Public figures must prove actual malice (knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard for truth) to win defamation cases

d)

Government officials cannot sue for defamation under any circumstances due to First Amendment protections

38.

How did subsequent cases limit the broad student speech protections established in Tinker v. Des Moines?

a)

Schools gained authority to restrict all political speech to prevent controversy in educational settings

b)

Student newspapers became subject to prior restraint if content might offend community members

c)

Schools can punish lewd speech, control school-sponsored expression, and restrict speech promoting illegal drug use

d)

Courts eliminated symbolic speech protections for students while maintaining verbal expression rights

39.

What forms can the constitutional right to petition the government take?

a)

Only formal written petitions signed by multiple citizens and submitted to Congress

b)

Exclusively lawsuits filed in federal courts challenging unconstitutional government actions

c)

Writing to officials, filing lawsuits, signing petitions, testifying before committees, and requesting investigations

d)

Solely organized lobbying efforts conducted by registered professional lobbyists

40.

What are time, place, and manner restrictions, and what requirements must they meet?

a)

Regulations that can ban speech based on controversial content if public safety is threatened

b)

Limitations that allow government to prohibit expression in any location it chooses

c)

Reasonable regulations on when, where, and how expression occurs that must be content-neutral and narrowly tailored

d)

Permanent restrictions on assembly rights in designated areas where protests have previously occurred

41.

What is the difference between public forums, limited public forums, and nonpublic forums?

a)

Public forums allow all speech, limited forums allow only political speech, and nonpublic forums prohibit expression entirely

b)

Public forums like parks have strongest speech rights, limited forums like school auditoriums have designated access, and nonpublic forums like military bases permit greater restrictions

c)

Public forums require permits for assembly, limited forums operate on first-come basis, and nonpublic forums are completely closed

d)

All three categories receive identical First Amendment protection but differ in ownership structure

42.

How did Garcetti v. Ceballos (2006) affect First Amendment protections for government employees?

a)

It expanded whistleblower protections to cover all statements made by public employees

b)

It eliminated speech restrictions on government employees both on and off duty

c)

It limited public employee speech protections when the speech is part of their official job duties

d)

It required government agencies to create formal channels for employee grievances

43.

What is the purpose of Article V of the Constitution?

a)

To establish the Supreme Court

b)

To establish the formal amendment process

c)

To create the Electoral College

d)

To outline presidential powers

44.

How many amendments have been proposed to the Constitution since 1789?

a)

27

b)

33

c)

1,000

d)

Approximately 11,770

45.

What percentage of proposed amendments have been ratified?

a)

10%

b)

5%

c)

1%

d)

0.25%

46.

What vote is required in Congress to propose a constitutional amendment?

a)

Simple majority in both houses

b)

Two-thirds vote in both houses

c)

Three-fourths vote in both houses

d)

Unanimous consent

47.

How many states are required to ratify an amendment?

a)

All 50 states

b)

A simple majority (26 states)

c)

Two-thirds (34 states)

d)

Three-fourths (38 states)

48.

Which method of ratification was used for the 21st Amendment?

a)

State ratifying conventions

b)

State legislatures

c)

National referendum

d)

Congressional approval only

49.

What is a "zombie amendment"?

a)

An amendment that was rejected

b)

An amendment approved by Congress but not ratified by states, with no time limit

c)

An amendment that expired

d)

An amendment that was repealed

50.

Which amendments are known as the "Reconstruction Amendments"?

a)

1st, 2nd, and 3rd

b)

10th, 11th, and 12th

c)

13th, 14th, and 15th

d)

16th, 17th, and 18th

51.

What did the 13th Amendment accomplish?

a)

Guaranteed voting rights

b)

Abolished slavery

c)

Established equal protection

d)

Created birthright citizenship

52.

What was the primary obstacle to enforcing the 15th Amendment?

a)

It was never ratified

b)

The Supreme Court ruled it unconstitutional

c)

Southern states found ways around it through literacy tests, poll taxes, and violence

d)

It only applied to federal elections

53.

What did the 16th Amendment authorize?

a)

Direct election of senators

b)

Federal income tax

c)

Women's suffrage

d)

Prohibition

54.

What did the 17th Amendment change?

a)

Presidential term limits

b)

How senators are elected (from state legislatures to popular vote)

c)

Voting age

d)

Prohibition

55.

What is the doctrine of stare decisis?

a)

The power to declare laws unconstitutional

b)

"Let the decision stand" - courts should follow previous rulings

c)

The right to appeal

d)

Judicial independence

56.

Which court has original jurisdiction in the federal system?

a)

Supreme Court

b)

Courts of Appeals

c)

District Courts

d)

Circuit Courts

57.

What is a writ of certiorari?

a)

A court order to appear

b)

A formal request asking the Supreme Court to review a case

c)

A guilty verdict

d)

An appeal to Congress

58.

What are amicus curiae briefs?

a)

Supreme Court decisions

b)

Lower court records

c)

"Friend of the court" briefs offering additional perspectives

d)

Presidential pardons

59.

What landmark case established judicial review?

a)

Brown v. Board of Education

b)

Marbury v. Madison

c)

Plessy v. Ferguson

d)

McCulloch v. Maryland

60.

What is judicial review?

a)

The Senate's confirmation of judges

b)

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional

c)

The impeachment process for judges

d)

Annual evaluation of court decisions

61.

What is judicial activism?

a)

Judges who strictly follow the Constitution's original meaning

b)

Justices who interpret the Constitution broadly, sometimes reshaping policy

c)

Judges who always defer to precedent

d)

Justices who refuse to hear controversial cases

62.

What is originalism?

a)

Creating new constitutional interpretations

b)

Interpreting the Constitution according to its original meaning when written

c)

Ignoring precedent

d)

Following foreign law

63.

What is living constitutionalism?

a)

Ignoring the Constitution completely

b)

Requiring constant amendments

c)

The view that the Constitution's meaning evolves over time

d)

Strict adherence to the Framers' intent

64.

What does it mean that the president must "take care that the laws be faithfully executed"?

a)

The president writes all federal laws

b)

The president ensures federal laws are properly enforced

c)

The president can ignore laws they disagree with

d)

The president controls state laws

65.

What is the Cabinet?

a)

The president's family advisors

b)

The heads of executive departments who advise the president

c)

Supreme Court justices

d)

Congressional leadership

66.

Executive orders are:

a)

directives issued by the President that have the force of law

b)

laws passed by Congress

c)

decisions made by the Supreme Court

d)

regulations created by federal agencies

67.

What is the difference between a treaty and an executive agreement?

a)

There is no difference

b)

Treaties require Senate approval; executive agreements do not

c)

Executive agreements are permanent; treaties are not

d)

Treaties are only for wartime

68.

What vote is required in the Senate to approve a treaty?

a)

Simple majority

b)

60 votes

c)

Two-thirds vote

d)

Unanimous consent

69.

What is the "bully pulpit"?

a)

A constitutional power to veto legislation

b)

The unique platform of the presidency to persuade the public and legislators

c)

The president's military authority

d)

Executive privilege

70.

What is a veto?

a)

A presidential pardon

b)

An executive order

c)

The president's power to reject a bill passed by Congress

d)

A treaty with foreign nations

71.

How can Congress override a presidential veto?

a)

Simple majority in both houses

b)

Two-thirds vote in both chambers

c)

Three-fourths vote

d)

Senate vote only

72.

What is the "aggregation principle" established in Wickard v. Filburn?

a)

States can regulate interstate commerce

b)

Congress can regulate individual activities that collectively have substantial effects

c)

Only large businesses can be regulated

d)

The president controls commerce

73.

What did the Supreme Court rule in United States v. Lopez?

a)

Congress has unlimited commerce power

b)

Gun possession in school zones exceeded Commerce Clause authority

c)

Only large businesses can be regulated

d)

The president controls commerce

74.

What is a "substantial effects test"?

a)

Testing if states agree with federal law

b)

Determining if an activity has substantial effect on interstate commerce

c)

Measuring economic growth

d)

Calculating tax revenue

75.

What is a progressive tax system?

a)

Taxes that only affect businesses

b)

A system where you pay a higher percentage as you earn more

c)

Taxes that decrease over time

d)

Flat taxes for everyone

76.

What are payroll taxes used for?

a)

Military spending

b)

Social Security and Medicare

c)

Education funding

d)

Infrastructure projects

77.

What was the "Goldilocks dilemma" faced by the Constitutional Convention?

a)

Choosing a capital city

b)

Creating an executive strong enough to be effective but not tyrannical

c)

Deciding how many states to include

d)

Determining the length of presidential terms

78.

What is "unilateral authority" as demonstrated by FDR?

a)

The power to declare war alone

b)

The ability to act using administrative power without constant Congressional approval

c)

The right to appoint judges

d)

The power to veto legislation

79.

What is the "imperial presidency" as described by Arthur Schlesinger?

a)

A presidency focused on foreign conquest

b)

A weak, ceremonial presidency

c)

An extremely powerful presidency that acts beyond constitutional boundaries

d)

A presidency controlled by Congress

80.

What is "impoundment"?

a)

Arresting political opponents

b)

Refusing to spend money that Congress had appropriated

c)

Vetoing legislation

d)

Issuing executive orders

81.

What is the "unitary executive theory"?

a)

The idea that all power belongs to Congress

b)

The theory that the president has complete control over the executive branch

c)

The concept that states have equal power

d)

The belief in weak presidential power

82.

What is the "ratchet effect" regarding presidential power?

a)

Power shifts between branches equally

b)

Presidential power decreases over time

c)

Presidential power expands easily but rarely contracts

d)

Congress gains power from presidents

83.

What is "institutional pride" as it relates to checks and balances?

a)

Loving your country

b)

Each branch defending its constitutional prerogatives regardless of partisan alignment

c)

Presidential popularity

d)

Congressional voting records

84.

What has undermined the institutional competition the Framers counted on?

a)

Economic depression

b)

Foreign wars

c)

Partisan polarization - members of Congress seeing themselves as party members first

d)

Technological change

85.

What was the key principle established in Wickard v. Filburn?

a)

States can regulate commerce

b)

The aggregation/cumulative effects doctrine

c)

The president controls agriculture

d)

Farmers are exempt from federal law

86.

How did Heart of Atlanta Motel v. United States connect to interstate commerce?

a)

The motel was located in multiple states

b)

It advertised nationally and served travelers from across the country

c)

It only served local customers

d)

It was owned by the federal government

87.

What was significant about Ollie's Barbecue in Katzenbach v. McClung?

a)

It was the largest restaurant chain in America

b)

It served only interstate travelers

c)

About 46% of its food came from out-of-state suppliers

d)

It was located on an interstate highway

88.

What is judicial restraint?

a)

Judges who create new policies

b)

The philosophy that courts should defer to the Constitution's exact words and established precedent

c)

Requiring unanimous decisions

d)

Limiting the number of cases heard

89.

What is the difference between a concurring opinion and a dissenting opinion?

a)

They are the same thing

b)

Concurring opinions are always longer

c)

Concurring opinions agree with the result but for different reasons; dissenting opinions disagree with the majority

d)

Only the Chief Justice can write concurring opinions

90.

What is the difference between the deficit and the national debt?

a)

They are the same thing

b)

The deficit is larger than the debt

c)

The deficit is how much more the government spends than collects in one year; the debt is the total amount owed

d)

The deficit is owed to other countries; the debt is owed domestically

91.

What percentage of federal revenue comes from federal income tax?

a)

25%

b)

33%

c)

About 50%

d)

75%

92.

What is a marginal tax rate system?

a)

Everyone pays the same percentage

b)

Only the wealthy pay taxes

c)

You pay different percentages on different portions of your income

d)

Taxes that only apply to certain states

93.

What are the three main types of federal government revenue?

a)

Sales tax, property tax, and income tax

b)

Federal income tax, payroll taxes, and corporate taxes

c)

Tariffs, fees, and fines

d)

State contributions, bonds, and donations

94.

Which president is the ONLY one since 1969 to achieve budget surpluses?

a)

Ronald Reagan

b)

George W. Bush

c)

Bill Clinton

d)

Barack Obama

95.

What benefits of the national debt did Baby Boomers and Gen X receive that younger generations will not?

a)

higher minimum wages

b)

major tax cust during peak earning years and generous Social Security/Medicare benefits

c)

free college education

d)

guaranteed employment

96.

According to our notes, what is the moral question about generational equity?

a)

whether young people should vote

b)

whether older generations should receive benefits

c)

whether it's ethical for one generation to vote themselves tax cuts and leave the bill to the next generation

d)

whether taxes should exist at all

97.

What will likely happen to Social Security and Medicare benefits for younger generations?

a)

they will increase significantly

b)

they will stay exactly the same

c)

they will be reduced - young people pay in but receive less or nothing

d)

they will be privatized completely

98.

Right-leaning economic policy prefers:

a)

government ownership of banks

b)

free-market competition

c)

price controls

99.

Which ideology supports the maximum individual freedom in both economics and personal life?

a)

conservatism

b)

libertarianism

c)

socialism

100.

Wealth distribution that meets everyone's basic needs is most typical of:

a)

conservative theory

b)

socialism

c)

anarchism

101.

Which party favors less government interference in business and banking?

a)

Republican Party

b)

Democratic Party

c)

Green Party

102.

Which principle is most clearly stated in the Declaration of Independence?

a)

natural rights

b)

checks and balances

c)

judicial review

103.

"Governments derive their just powers from the consent of the governed" illustrates:

a)

divine right

b)

popular sovereignty

c)

judicial review

104.

Which compromise allowed states to count a portion of enslaved people for representation?

a)

Missouri Compromise

b)

Three-Fifths Compromise

c)

Connecticut Compromise

105.

Which system awards all of a state's electors to the candidate with the most votes?

a)

proportional

b)

winner-take-all

c)

Congressional district method

106.

Which document highlights the dangers of direct democracy and mob rule?

a)

Declaration of Independence

b)

Federalist No. 10

c)

Brutus I

107.

Which document emphasized natural rights and the right to revolution?

a)

Constitution

b)

Declaration of Independence

c)

Bill of Rights

108.

The major Enlightement influence on natural rights in the Declaration of Independence was:

a)

Baron de Montesquieu

b)

John Locke

c)

Thomas Hobbes

109.

Madison thought the strongest branch needing extra checks was:

a)

Legislative

b)

Judicial

c)

Executive

110.

What is a characteristic of Authoritarian governments?

a)

minimal regulation of personal life

b)

no government restrictions

c)

strong government control over personal decisions

111.

Shays's Rebellion was significant because:

a)

proved the success of the Articles

b)

demonstrated the need for a strong federal government

c)

reduced partisanship

112.

According to Federalist No. 10, what is the most common source of faction?

a)

religion

b)

unequal distribution of property

c)

executive power

113.

Project Redmap is associated with:

a)

Republican control of state legislatures and gerrymandering

b)

Democratic Party reforms

c)

popular vote movements

114.

What is the effect of gerrymandering?

a)

ensures equal representation

b)

can make it harder for moderate candidates to win

c)

forces both parties to collaborate

115.

The social contract is:

a)

law passed by Congress

b)

agreement by people to submit to government for protection of rights

c)

created by Federalists

116.

Which ideology supports the maximum individual freedom in both economics and personal life?

a)

conservatism

b)

libertarianism

c)

socialism

117.

The Electoral College was created as a compromise between:

a)

House and Senate

b)

direct popular vote and congressional selection

c)

two-party and multi-party systems

118.

According to Federalist 10, a large republic controls factions by:

a)

reducing diversity

b)

making it difficult for any single faction to dominate

c)

removing liberty

119.

What is a faction, according to Federalist 10?

a)

groups supporting the government

b)

a group united by common intersts opposed to the rights of others

c)

the legislative branch only

120.

A key trait of a republic, according to Federalist 10:

a)

delegation of power to elected representatives

b)

no limits on majority rule

c)

all citizens serve in government

121.

Pluralist democracy is best described as:

a)

citizens join groups to amplify voices and compete for influence

b)

judges picking policies

c)

universal elite control

122.

Under the Articles of Confederation, Congress could NOT:

a)

organize territorial expansion

b)

tax citizens directly or enforce laws

c)

request help from states

123.

Federalism is:

a)

only national government holds power

b)

power shared between national and state governments

c)

only local officials can rule

124.

When is it justified to abolish a government, according to the Declaration?

a)

after a long train of abuses against rights

b)

after one bad law is passed

c)

when the majority disagrees

125.

Madison's solution for controlling factions was:

a)

forcing everyone to have the same beliefs

b)

a large republic with diverse intersts and elected representatives

c)

granting full power to one branch

126.

Madison opposed pure democracy because:

a)

no government power

b)

majority tyranny over minorities

c)

only wise leaders elected

127.

The Great Compromise created:

a)

a unicameral legislature

b)

a bicameral Congress with population in the House and equal state votes in the Senate

c)

direct election of judges