wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Final Exam Practice

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following structures is found in a eukaryotic cell, but not a prokaryotic cell?

a)

Capsule

b)

Endospore

c)

Flagellum

d)

Mitochondrion

e)

Peptidoglycan

2.

Bacteria performing fermentation will create ____ ATP (net)

a)

2

b)

4

c)

20

d)

36

e)

38

3.

This structure helps Gram-negative bacteria avoid osmotic lysis.

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Cell wall

c)

Contractile vacuole

d)

Outer membrane

e)

Ribosome

4.

Which of the following taxonomic groups is the largest (contains the most organisms)?

a)

Class

b)

Domain

c)

Family

d)

Kingdom

e)

Order

5.

One of the important characteristics of active transport is:

a)

It can only move substances from high to low concentration

b)

It can only move substances from outside to in

c)

It only occurs in eukaryotes, not prokaryotes

d)

It requires energy

e)

It results in antibody production

6.

This structure can be used by pathogenic bacteria to attach to epithelial cells:

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Cell wall

c)

Endospores

d)

Fimbriae

e)

Ribosomes

7.

Which of the following products are made during glycolysis?

a)

ATP

b)

NADH

c)

Pyruvic acid

d)

A and B

e)

All of the above

8.

An important part of the definition of a catalyst is

a)

It must be a reactant in the reaction

b)

It must be made of biological macromolecules

c)

It must increase the activation energy barrier

d)

It must raise the energy level of the products

e)

It must speed up the chemical reaction

9.

One difference between a Gram-positive cell wall and a Gram-negative cell wall is

a)

The Gram-negative cell has more DNA

b)

The Gram-negative cell has more endospores

c)

The Gram-negative cell is more susceptible to penicillin

d)

The Gram-positive cell has a thicker layer of peptidoglycan

e)

The Gram-positive cell has linear chromosomes instead of circular ones

10.

The Krebs cycle will produce ____ ATP molecules, for each glucose used.

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

10

e)

38

11.

The kind of reaction that breaks down amylose into glucose is called:

a)

Anabolic

b)

Dehydration synthesis

c)

Endergonic

d)

Hydrolysis

e)

Plasmolysis

12.

The amount of energy required to get an exergonic reaction started is called:

a)

Activation energy

b)

Binding energy

c)

Free energy

d)

Potential energy

e)

Spontaneous energy

13.

Organisms in the phylum Firmicutes are all

a)

Cocci

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Gram-positive

d)

Pathogenic

e)

Rod-shaped

14.

Non-competitive inhibitors of enzymes attach to

a)

ATP

b)

The active site of an enzyme

c)

The allosteric site of an enzyme

d)

The product

e)

The substrate

15.

This organism is a yeast:

a)

Bordatella pertussis

b)

Penicillium notatum

c)

Plasmodium falciparum

d)

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

e)

Treponema pallidum

16.

This enzyme is responsible for connecting Okazaki fragments during DNA replication:

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primase

e)

RNA polymerase

17.

A mesophile will likely grow best at which of the following temperatures?

a)

0 °C

b)

10 °C

c)

37 °C

d)

50 °C

e)

85 °C

18.

This chemical is an oxidizing agent:

a)

Benzalkonium

b)

Ozone

c)

Penicillin

d)

Triclosan

e)

Vesphene

19.

This technique will completely sterilize a liquid by killing or removing all cells:

a)

Autoclaving

b)

Desiccation

c)

Flash pasteurization

d)

Freezing

e)

Osmotic pressure

20.

This is the protein on the target cell that HIV uses for attachment:

a)

CD4

b)

CD8

c)

CXCR4

d)

gp16

e)

gp120

21.

Transcription begins at a/an

a)

Operator

b)

Operon

c)

Promoter

d)

Start codon

e)

Terminator

22.

This step of the viral cycle is the most important in determining the type of cell that can be infected:

a)

Assembly

b)

Attachment

c)

Integration

d)

Release

e)

Synthesis

23.

In the PCR process, what guides the DNA polymerase to replicate the desired DNA sequence?

a)

DNA helicase

b)

DNA ligase

c)

DNA polymerase ***

d)

DNA primers

e)

Heat

24.

When a codon in a gene changes from coding for an amino acid to coding for a different amino acid, this is called a

a)

Deletion mutation

b)

Frameshift mutation

c)

Missense mutation

d)

Nonsense mutation

e)

Silent mutation

25.

Antimicrobial drugs typically have this property:

a)

Bacteriostatic

b)

Dissolve membranes

c)

General

d)

Safe for internal use

e)

Strong oxidizing agent

26.

During which step of the viral cycle does budding happen?

a)

Attachment

b)

Integration

c)

Release

d)

Synthesis

e)

Uncoating

27.

In gene editing, an RNA molecule is used to target the specific site in the DNA. This RNA is called:

a)

Cas9

b)

CRISPR

c)

Helicase

d)

Ligase

e)

Primer

28.

Which of the following terms best describes an organism that can use both aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration?

a)

Aerotolerant anaerobe

b)

Facultative anaerobe

c)

Hyperthermophile

d)

Obligate aerobe

e)

Obligate anaerobe

29.

During which of the following growth phases are cells beginning to starve?

a)

Death phase

b)

Lag phase

c)

Log phase

d)

Prodromal phase

e)

Stationary phase

30.

Which of the following can be found in all viruses?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Phospholipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Ribosomes

e)

RNA ***

31.

In a parasitic relationship, which of the following happens?

a)

Both partners are harmed

b)

Both partners benefit

c)

Neither partner has any harm or benefit

d)

One partner benefits, the other partner is harmed

e)

One partner benefits, the other partner is neither harmed nor helped

32.

Which of the following is an important and practical method of preventing nosocomial infections in a hospital?

a)

Do not allow any visitors to people staying for more than one day

b)

Eliminate all diseases from society

c)

Prevent babies and the elderly from entering the hospital

d)

Quarantine or separate patients who have serious communicable infections

e)

Require everyone entering the hospital to take broad-spectrum antibiotics

33.

During the incubation period of disease,

a)

The pathogen is reproducing without any symptoms present

b)

The person feels some nonspecific symptoms

c)

The person is almost completely recovered from the disease

d)

The person is experiencing clear signs and symptoms of the disease

e)

The person is starting to feel better after the illness, but is still clearly sick

34.

Although the West Nile virus was first reported in California in 2002, it has now established itself here, and there are reported cases every year. Which of the following terms best applies to West Nile virus in California?

a)

Endemic

b)

Epidemic

c)

Pandemic

d)

Prevalent

e)

Sporadic

35.

Fomites are involved in which kind of transmission?

a)

Direct contact

b)

Indirect contact

c)

Sexual

d)

Vector

e)

Vehicle

36.

Which of the following is an important difference between endotoxins and exotoxins?

a)

Exotoxins are attached to the bacterial cell, endotoxins are released into the environment

b)

Exotoxins are made of proteins, endotoxins are made of lipid ***

c)

Exotoxins are made only by Gram-negative cells, endotoxins are made only by Gram-positive cells

d)

Exotoxins target human cells, endotoxins target other bacterial cells

e)

Exotoxins typically trigger a overreactive immune response, endotoxins can have many different actions depending on the type of endotoxin

37.

A micro-organism that is part of the normal microbiota, but can cause disease under certain circumstances, is best called:

a)

Commensal

b)

Contagious

c)

Mutualistic

d)

Nosocomial

e)

Opportunistic

38.

During the inflammatory response, this physiological response causes the redness that occurs:

a)

Diapedesis

b)

Formation of scar tissue

c)

Pyrogens traveling to the hypothalamus

d)

Sweating

e)

Vasodilation

39.

This man was able to identify and limit the spread of purpeural fever in a hospital in Austria.

a)

Ignaz Semmelweiss

b)

James Watson

c)

John Snow

d)

Louis Pasteur

e)

Robert Koch

40.

Normal microbiota protect us from pathogenic bacteria by producing bacteriocins which kill other bacteria. This is an example of _________

a)

Antibody mediated immunity

b)

Commensalism

c)

Lysogeny

d)

Microbial antagonism

e)

Parasitism

41.

Which step of phagocytosis is inhibited by organisms like Streptococcus pneumoniae, which contains slippery capsules?

a)

Attachment to the pathogen

b)

Display of the antigens

c)

Finding the pathogen

d)

Fusion of the lysosome and phagosome

e)

Ingestion of the pathogen

42.

This is an example of a neurotoxin:

a)

Cholera toxin

b)

Diphtheria toxin

c)

Endotoxin

d)

Staphylococcal enterotoxin

e)

Tetanus toxin

43.

Beta-lactam drugs interfere with the production of

a)

DNA

b)

Folic acid

c)

Peptidoglycan

d)

Phospholipids

e)

RNA

44.

Gut dysbiosis is a risk factor in which of the following diseases/conditions?

a)

Autism

b)

Depression

c)

Diabetes

d)

Schizophrenia

e)

All of the above

45.

This is part of the body’s first line of defense:

a)

Hyaluronidase

b)

IgG

c)

IgM

d)

Neutrophils

e)

Stomach acid

46.

This disease is caused by a + sense RNA virus:

a)

Bubonic plague

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Influenza

d)

Rabies

e)

West Nile fever

47.

These are the cells of the specific immune response that are responsible for activating B cells:

a)

APCs

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Plasma cells

d)

Th cells

e)

Th2 cells ***

48.

Which of the following antibody types is most abundant in mucus and other secretions?

a)

IgA

b)

IgD

c)

IgE

d)

IgG

e)

IgM

49.

This disease is typically spread by zoonotic transmission:

a)

Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Influenza

d)

Meningococcal meningitis

e)

Rabies

50.

This disease is primarily transmitted by vector transmission:

a)

Bacterial conjunctivitis

b)

Bacterial vaginosis

c)

Bubonic plague

d)

Hepatitis B

e)

HIV/AIDS

51.

The humoral immune response is primarily involved in producing:

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Antibodies

c)

Fever

d)

Inflammation

e)

Tc cells

52.

This property of antibodies is responsible for preventing tetanus in people who have been vaccinated by the tetanus vaccine:

a)

Agglutination

b)

Complement activation

c)

Neutralization

d)

Opsonization

e)

Oxidation

53.

The primary immune response takes about _______ days to reach a peak antibody response:

a)

24 hours

b)

3 days

c)

2 weeks

d)

60 days

e)

6 months

54.

The name of the protein on the surface of B cells that presents antigens after digestion is called:

a)

APC

b)

BCR

c)

CD4

d)

MHC

e)

TCR

55.

The name of the protein on the surface of B cells that specifically recognizes antigens is called:

a)

APC

b)

BCR

c)

CD4

d)

MHC

e)

TCR

56.

Which of the following is a typical sign of meningococcal meningitis?

a)

Inability to drink water

b)

Light colored stools

c)

Nausea ***

d)

Persistent headache

e)

Rash on the lower extremities

57.

A newborn baby appears to be sick. A quick blood test reveals the presence of both IgG and IgM. Based on this, which of the following is true?

a)

The baby does not have an infection, since IgG and IgM are normal in a newborn

b)

The baby has an infection due to the presence of both IgM and IgG

c)

The baby has an infection due to the presence of IgG

d)

The baby has an infection due to the presence of IgM***

e)

None of the above—it is not possible to predict based on this information

58.

Passive immunization means:

a)

A person develops immunity after an infection

b)

A person dies before he can develop immunity

c)

A person is given a shot containing antibodies

d)

A person is vaccinated against tetanus or influenza

e)

A person is vaccinated using a live virus vaccine

59.

These cells are responsible for making antibodies:

a)

APCs

b)

CD4 cells

c)

Plasma cells

d)

Tc cells

e)

Th2 cells

60.

This vaccine is a live virus vaccine:

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Influenza (the shot)

c)

Measles

d)

Polio (here in the US)

e)

Tetanus

61.

(Extra Credit) If a person has a fever of 102°C, and they complain of feeling cold, which of the following is most likely true?

a)

Their temperature is going higher

b)

Their temperature is going lower

c)

Their temperature is staying the same

62.

(Extra Credit) In general, which of the following microbes is the largest?

a)

Archaea

b)

Bacteria

c)

Helminths

d)

Protozoa

e)

Viruses

Similar Resources on Wayground

Unit 1 - Introduction to A&P Exam Review

65 questions

Unit 1 - Introduction to A&P Exam Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade - University

Ecology EOC Review

63 questions

Ecology EOC Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade - University

Amanda's BIOL 1107 Final Review

67 questions

Amanda's BIOL 1107 Final Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Nervous system review

62 questions

Nervous system review

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade - University

UAS Histologi I (Teori)

60 questions

UAS Histologi I (Teori)

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

2ND QTR EXAM REVIEW IN SCIENCE-GRADE 9

58 questions

2ND QTR EXAM REVIEW IN SCIENCE-GRADE 9

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade - University

Endo Exam 1 - Adrenal Cortex - Jones

66 questions

Endo Exam 1 - Adrenal Cortex - Jones

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Exam 3 Review!!

66 questions

Exam 3 Review!!

quiz

Worksheet

•

University