wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Villalobos' 2nd Study Guide

Total questions: 57

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The lowest temperature at which all of the microorgranisms in a particular liquid suspension will be killed in 10 minutes is called the...

a)

theremal death point

b)

thermal death time

c)

decimal reduction time

d)

decimal reduction point

2.

Which one of the following is not used to preserve foods?

a)

sulfur dioxide

b)

sodium nitrite

c)

potassium sorbate

d)

biguanides

3.

Which chemical is used to prevent spoilage in wine?

a)

sulfur dioxie

b)

calcium propionate

c)

sorbic acid

d)

sodium nitrate

4.

In hospitals, the presence of _________ in blood, vomitus, and feces influences the selection of disinfectants.

a)

organic matter

b)

endospores

c)

inorganic matter

d)

odors

5.

Direct flaming is one of the simplest methods of

a)

dry heat sterilization

b)

dessication

c)

pasteurization

d)

autoclaving

6.

Which agents exert antimicrobial activity via oligodynamic action?

a)

aldehydes

b)

heavy metals

c)

peroxugens

d)

nitrates

7.

The recommended optimum concentration of ethanol to use as a biocide is...

a)

100%

b)

70%

c)

50%

d)

25%

8.

Which treatment is intended to lower microbial count on eating and drinking utensils to save public health levels?

a)

sanitization

b)

sterilization

c)

pasteurization

d)

antisepsis

9.

Heat resistant bacteria that survive pasteurization are

a)

fermented

b)

pathogenic

c)

anaerobic

d)

thermoduric

10.

Damage to which one of the following structures causes cellular contents to leak into the surrounding medium?

a)

cell wall

b)

plasma membrane

c)

glycocalyx

d)

nucleoid

11.

Which one of the following damages the plasma membrane of a cell and was the first used by Lister to control surgical infections?

a)

phenolics

b)

halogens

c)

ethylene oxide

d)

alcohol

12.

The destruction of vegetative pathogens is called...

a)

sanitization

b)

antisepsis

c)

sterilization

d)

disinfection

13.

Which method kills microorganisms primarily by the coagulation of denaturation?

a)

moist heat

b)

radiation

c)

dessication

d)

filtration

14.

Most disinfectants work better in _________ solutions..

a)

cold

b)

warm

c)

acidic

d)

organic

15.

Currently, which one of the following methods of evaluating disinfectants is used as a standard best-practice method?

a)

use-dilution test

b)

use-diffusion test

c)

disk-dilution test

d)

disk-diffusion test

16.

One of the few liquid chemical disinfectants that can be considered a sterilizing agent and is also used for embalming is

a)

alcohol

b)

iodine

c)

glutaraldehyde

d)

plasma

17.

Of the 64 codons, how many are not sense codons?

a)

61

b)

4

c)

3

d)

64

18.

A group of 3 nucletoides on mRNA is called a(n)

a)

codon

b)

anticodon

c)

exon

d)

intron

19.

DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides specifically and only to the _____________ end of growing DNA strand.

a)

2'

b)

5'

c)

3'

d)

4'

20.

Approximately what percentage of substances found by the Ames test to be mutagenic, are also carinogenic in animals? (is in book)

a)

90%

b)

100%

c)

25%

d)

45%

21.

Mutations in which one or a few nucleotide pairs are deleted or interested in the DNA are called _____________ mutations

a)

frameshift

b)

point

c)

nonsense

d)

base-pair

22.

Which type of plasmids carry genes for sex pili and for the transfer of the plasmid to another cell?

a)

conjugative plasmids

b)

dissimilation plasmids

c)

tansposons plasmids

23.

Which one of the following enzymes joins DNA strands, joins Okazaki fragments, and mends gaps in the DNA backbone during excision repair?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

DNA ligase

d)

DNA gyrase

24.

Single stranded RNA molecules that inhibit protein production in eukaryotic cells are known as...

a)

tRNAs

b)

mRNAs

c)

rRNAs

d)

miRNAs

25.

Transcription begins when RNA polymerase binds to the DNA at the....

a)

intron

b)

start codon

c)

terminator

d)

promoter

26.

The process for gene transfer which requires cell to cell contact and a particular type of plasmid is called

a)

conjugation

b)

transduction

c)

crossing over

d)

transformation

27.

What is the most common type of mutation which involves single base pairs?

a)

base substitution

b)

nonsense mutation

c)

frameshift mutation

d)

missense mutation

28.

The process in which bacterial DNA is transferred from a donor cell to a recipient cell inside a bacteriophage is called

a)

transduction

b)

transformation

c)

conjugation

d)

crossing over

29.

Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell via ____________.

a)

a bacteriophage

b)

naked DNA in a solution

c)

sexual reproduction

d)

crossing over

30.

A group of genes, transcribed together and controlled by one promoter defines a(n)

a)

repressor

b)

operon

c)

inducer

d)

recombinant

31.

Which process converts one parental double-stranded DNA molecule to 2 identical offspring molecules?

a)

transformation

b)

transcription

c)

replication

d)

translation

32.

Thymine dimers can be repaired by light-repaired enzymes known as

a)

gyrases

b)

ligases

c)

methylases

d)

photolyases

33.

What is the process that turns on the transcription of a gene or genes?

a)

induction

b)

repression

c)

translation

d)

replication

34.

Which molecules recognize specific codons and transport amino acids to translate those specific codons?

a)

tRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

DNA

d)

mRNA

35.

Ionizing radiation causes

a)

insertions and deletions

b)

thymine dimers

c)

nitrogenous base substitutions

d)

DNA strand breaks

36.

Between 60% and 80% of genes are not regulated by the cell, but are __________ in nature.

a)

constitutive

b)

continuous

c)

degenerative

d)

repressed

37.

Which of the following is not an end-product of fermentation?

a)

Lactic acid

b)

Ethyl alcohol

c)

Pyruvic acid

d)

Glycerol

38.

Uses CO2 for carbon and H2 for energy.

a)

Chemoautotroph

b)

Chemoheterotroph

c)

Photoautotroph

d)

Photoheterotroph

39.

Whats the difference between a Competitive inhibitor and a Noncompetitive inhibitor?

a)

There isn't any

b)

NC Inhibitor bind on an allosteric site, rather than the active site

c)

NC Inhibitor binds on the active site rather than an allosteric site

d)

NC Inhibitor doesn't bind at all

40.

Which selection best defines substrate and active site?

a)

Substrate: molecule that binds to the active site of enzyme,active site:region where an enzyme and substrate bind

b)

substrate: region where an enzyme and substrate bind, active site:molecule that binds to the active site of enzyme

41.

Lyase is used for...

a)

removal of atoms without hydrolysis

b)

rearrangement of atoms

c)

joining of molecules; uses ATP

d)

transference of functional groups

42.

Holoenzyme is composed of __________ plus ___________

a)

apoenzyme;cofactor

b)

apoenzyme;factor

c)

cofactor;catalysts

d)

cofactor;enzyme

43.

Apoenzyme is a...

a)

protein

b)

pyruvic acid

c)

cofactor

d)

nonprotein component

44.

Which of the following are products of the Kreb's Cycle

a)

NADPH

b)

NADH

c)

ATP

d)

FADH2

e)

Water

45.

Which of the following is not true about anaerobic respiration?

a)

It involves glycolysis only

b)

It involves the Krebs cycle.

c)

It involves the reduction of nitrate.

d)

It generates ATP.

46.

Organisms that thrive in high salt environments are classified as ___

a)

psychrophiles

b)

halophiles

c)

hyperthermophiles

d)

alkalophiles

47.

Bacteria that love the cold...

a)

Thermophiles

b)

Mesophiles

c)

Psychrophiles

d)

Halophiles

48.

These are all regarding temperature except...

a)

Psychrophiles

b)

Halophiles

c)

Thermophiles

d)

Mesophiles

49.

Temperature and pH affect cell growth

because...

a)

they can speed up protein/enzyme function

b)

they affect protein/enzyme function

c)

acid fermentation

d)

they don't affect bacterial growth

50.

Which of these is NOT a chemical requirement for growth of a bacteria?

a)

Carbon

b)

Oxygen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Sulfur

51.

Which of these is aerotolerant anaerobe?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

5

d)

2

52.

Which of the following is in the correct order from the most general to the most specific?

a)

kingdom-phylum-class-order-family-genus-species

b)

kingdom-phylum-class-order-family-species-genus

c)

species-phylum-class-order-family-genus-shape

d)

kingdom-phylum-class-order-family-gram-species

53.

In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the

a)

specific epithet

b)

genus

c)

family

d)

order

54.

Which of the following do you expect to be most resistant to high temperatures? (endospores)

a)

Bascillus subtillis

b)

E. Coli

c)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

d)

staphylococcus aureus

55.

Which of the following is not gram positive?

a)

bacillus

b)

staphylococcus

c)

mycobacterium

d)

treponema

56.

Which of the following is not gram negative?

a)

e.coli

b)

micrococcus

c)

Klepsiella pneumonaie

d)

serratia

57.

Endospores work as a _________ mechanism.

a)

defense; they protect against the environment

b)

offense; they attack antibodies

c)

reproduction; they spread their DNA around their surrondings

Similar Resources on Wayground

2nd 9 Weeks Exam

55 questions

2nd 9 Weeks Exam

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - University

DHE 121 Week 6

54 questions

DHE 121 Week 6

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Ujian Akhir Praktikum Biokimia 2021

60 questions

Ujian Akhir Praktikum Biokimia 2021

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Electromagnetics

53 questions

Electromagnetics

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Pharm Week 2

52 questions

Pharm Week 2

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Naruto

54 questions

Naruto

quiz

Worksheet

•

5th Grade - Professio...

Basic Concept (Units – II, IV & V)

60 questions

Basic Concept (Units – II, IV & V)

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade - University

Quiz: Introduction to MSE

53 questions

Quiz: Introduction to MSE

quiz

Worksheet

•

University