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Elephants Midterm Practice

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which phrase best describes a scientific question that is open-ended?

a)

Requires a brief single-word answer

b)

States a fact without needing evidence

c)

Leads to a yes or no answer

d)

Demands an explanation with supporting reasons

2.

The driving question focuses on how organisms get what they need to live and survive. Which need is essential for all organisms?

a)

Daily social interaction

b)

Constant high temperatures

c)

Access to video entertainment

d)

Energy and matter for metabolism

3.

Identify the dispersion pattern of elephants in the wild.

a)

Uniform across habitats

b)

Random across the range

c)

Clumped around resources

d)

Evenly spaced territories

4.

Which term best describes the number of individuals in a population at a given time?

a)

Population size

b)

Population dispersal

c)

Population distribution

d)

Population density

5.

What does population density measure in ecological studies?

a)

How evenly resources are distributed

b)

How tightly packed individuals are

c)

How far individuals migrate yearly

d)

How many species share a habitat

6.

Which dispersal pattern shows individuals grouped in family units or around resources?

a)

Uniform pattern

b)

Clumped pattern

c)

Diffuse pattern

d)

Random pattern

7.

Territorial plants competing for equal access to water would most likely exhibit which pattern?

a)

Uniform spacing

b)

Random spacing

c)

Circular spacing

d)

Clumped spacing

8.

Which factor is density-dependent and becomes more likely as population density increases?

a)

Disease transmission

b)

Earthquake occurrence

c)

Season length

d)

Sunlight intensity

9.

Smaller populations are at greater risk of which genetic problem?

a)

Enhanced gene flow

b)

Improved mutation rates

c)

Perfect adaptation to climate

d)

Inbreeding and loss of diversity

10.

Which statement best explains why ecologists monitor population size over time?

a)

To predict future changes

b)

To label habitats by color

c)

To reduce all predators

d)

To increase tourist visits

11.

Which dispersal pattern is expected in wind-dispersed plants like dandelions?

a)

Uniform distribution

b)

Clumped distribution

c)

Linear distribution

d)

Random distribution

12.

The worksheet asks for possible limiting factors affecting elephants. Which option lists a valid ecological limiting factor?

a)

Poaching reducing adult survivorship

b)

Increased smartphone use by tourists

c)

New zoo openings in distant cities

d)

Faster internet in rural communities

13.

Which statement best distinguishes biotic from abiotic factors in an ecosystem?

a)

Biotic are chemical resources; abiotic are populations

b)

Biotic are climate features; abiotic are predators

c)

Biotic are physical forces; abiotic are organisms

d)

Biotic are living components; abiotic are nonliving

14.

Which example is an abiotic limiting factor for elephants in the Tsavo region?

a)

Competition with zebras for forage

b)

Elephant disease spreading in herds

c)

Lion predation on juvenile elephants

d)

Seasonal drought reducing water availability

15.

Bottom-up regulation primarily limits populations by which mechanism?

a)

Increased deaths from predators at high trophic levels

b)

Restricted access to resources like food

c)

Territorial behavior reducing reproduction

d)

Sudden weather events causing mortality

16.

Top-down regulation is best illustrated by which scenario?

a)

Nutrient scarcity reducing plant growth

b)

Pollution decreasing habitat quality

c)

Predators causing more deaths in prey

d)

Drought lowering water sources

17.

Which factor is density-dependent?

a)

Disease spreading as population grows

b)

Hurricane impacting all individuals equally

c)

Cold snap reducing survival regardless of size

d)

Volcanic eruption causing habitat loss

18.

Which factor is density-independent?

a)

Food scarcity intensifying as numbers climb

b)

Wildfire affecting a forest regardless of crowding

c)

Competition increasing when space is limited

d)

Parasite transmission rising with herd size

19.

If elephant density is highest near the Galana River, which explanation fits?

a)

Soils are rockier and less fertile

b)

Water and vegetation are more abundant

c)

Predators are more numerous there

d)

Weather is harsher near the river

20.

Dead organisms are considered which type of factor and why?

a)

Abiotic because they are physical objects

b)

Biotic because they were once living

c)

Abiotic because they are not alive now

d)

Biotic because they are chemical resources

21.

Which pair correctly matches category and example?

a)

Biotic: rainfall patterns

b)

Top-down: nutrient shortage

c)

Bottom-up: predator control

d)

Density-independent: flood event

22.

Which statement about density-dependent factors is accurate?

a)

They are always abiotic environmental forces

b)

They act the same regardless of population

c)

They only occur at low trophic levels

d)

They intensify as population size increases

23.

What is the most likely reason poachers target elephants with tusks rather than tuskless elephants?

a)

Tuskless elephants are easier to find

b)

Tusked elephants run slower than tuskless

c)

Tusks attract more predators than tusklessness

d)

Tusks can be sold for ivory profit

24.

What trend does the graph indicate about tusklessness after the Mozambican Civil War?

a)

Tusklessness disappeared entirely after war

b)

No change in tusklessness after war

c)

Lower proportion of tuskless elephants after war

d)

Higher proportion of tuskless elephants after war

25.

Which explanation best connects poaching pressure to increased tusklessness frequency?

a)

Civil war directly causes genetic mutations for tusklessness

b)

Selective killing of tusked elephants increases tuskless survivors

c)

Predators remove tuskless elephants, increasing tusked frequency

d)

Tuskless elephants produce less offspring under stress

26.

In natural selection, what is a selective pressure in the context of elephant tusklessness?

a)

A seasonal behavior unrelated to survival

b)

A laboratory method to measure alleles

c)

A random mutation occurring without cause

d)

An environmental factor that changes survival

27.

Which trend best describes female tusklessness in areas with heavy poaching compared with areas with less poaching?

a)

Higher percentages under heavy poaching

b)

No clear relationship observed

c)

Equal percentages across all areas

d)

Lower percentages under heavy poaching

28.

If tuskless females survive poaching more often, what happens to the allele frequency for tusklessness over generations?

a)

It remains unchanged over time

b)

It increases in the population

c)

It cycles randomly each year

d)

It decreases in the population

29.

Choose the best reasoning that links the claim and evidence in a CER: heavy poaching increases tuskless females.

a)

Poachers target tusked elephants, so tuskless females survive and pass the allele

b)

Migration brings tuskless elephants from distant regions without selection

c)

Poachers protect tuskless elephants, reducing genetic diversity

d)

Culling selects elephants randomly, keeping allele frequency constant

30.

Which statement best describes natural selection?

a)

Populations stop changing once well adapted

b)

All individuals survive and reproduce equally

c)

Organisms with beneficial traits leave more offspring

d)

Individuals change traits to fit environments

31.

In the VISA framework, what does Variation refer to?

a)

Traits differ among individuals in a population

b)

Traits are identical due to shared ancestry

c)

Traits are chosen by organisms intentionally

d)

Traits change only after environmental shifts

32.

Which process most directly explains Inheritance in natural selection?

a)

Predators removing weaker individuals

b)

Beneficial traits passed from parents to offspring

c)

Environments forcing traits to appear

d)

Individuals learning behaviors during life

33.

Why do not all individuals survive and reproduce?

a)

Limited predators and abundant food

b)

Predators or competition for resources

c)

Universal access to shelter and mates

d)

Stable climates and constant temperatures

34.

In differential survival and reproduction, which outcome occurs?

a)

All traits spread at equal rates

b)

Individuals with certain traits leave more offspring

c)

Environments favor all individuals equally

d)

Mutations disappear after one generation

35.

What happens to allele frequencies when a trait increases survival or reproduction over many generations?

a)

They increase for beneficial alleles

b)

They stay constant in the population

c)

They eliminate all genetic variation

d)

They decrease due to random chance

36.

Which statement best describes a keystone species in an ecosystem?

a)

A species that feeds only at the top trophic level

b)

A species that migrates seasonally across regions

c)

A species with the largest population in a habitat

d)

A species whose presence stabilizes many interactions

37.

What is the main goal of using DNA profiling in the CSI Wildlife case?

a)

Determine elephant migration routes across Africa

b)

Measure tusk growth rates in captive elephants

c)

Identify individual elephants from genetic samples

d)

Estimate global elephant population sizes

38.

In genetics, what does STR stand for?

a)

Sequential Tandem Ranges

b)

Static Transfer Ratio

c)

Single Transcript Region

d)

Short Tandem Repeats

39.

On a gel electrophoresis image, what do the visible bands represent?

a)

Protein concentrations by mass

b)

Cell counts from tissue samples

c)

DNA fragments of specific sizes

d)

Enzyme activity in reaction wells

40.

Which source can provide elephant DNA for profiling in forensic contexts?

a)

Leaf residues from feeding

b)

Blood, feces, and hair samples

c)

Sound recordings of calls

d)

GPS tags from collars

41.

What is the relationship between DNA fragment size and migration distance in an agarose gel?

a)

Larger fragments migrate farther distances

b)

Smaller fragments migrate farther distances

c)

Migration distance increases with GC content

d)

All fragments migrate equal distances

42.

After running the gel, how could you tell which lane contains the largest fragment?

a)

The band appears brightest under UV

b)

The band has the widest smear pattern

c)

The band is farthest from the well

d)

The band remains closest to the well

43.

If two bands at Marker C are the same size in one individual, what genotype is indicated?

a)

Hemizygous on one chromosome

b)

Heterozygous with two alleles

c)

Homozygous for that STR locus

d)

Triploid across the genome

44.

Would STR profiles of sibling elephants be more similar or less similar than profiles of unrelated elephants?

a)

More similar due to shared alleles

b)

Less similar due to competition

c)

Exactly identical across markers

d)

Unpredictable without age data

45.

Elephant populations differ genetically due to what primary factor affecting relatedness?

a)

Predator pressure differences among habitats

b)

Differences in tusk harvesting methods

c)

Geographic distance and separation time

d)

Seasonal diet variation across regions

46.

Forest and savanna elephants diverged over 2.5 million years ago. Which profiles should be more similar?

a)

Two forest elephants far apart

b)

Two forest elephants in close range

c)

Forest and nearby savanna elephants

d)

Two savanna elephants in one herd

47.

Elephants are considered a keystone species. Protecting them primarily helps ecosystems by what mechanism?

a)

Increasing rainfall via trunk spray

b)

Maintaining habitats through browsing and seed dispersal

c)

Stopping volcanic soil erosion

d)

Reducing soil bacteria diversity

48.

Why do geographically isolated populations often show distinct genetic profiles?

a)

Equal mating across continents

b)

Constant migration every season

c)

Limited gene flow over long time

d)

Identical mutation rates everywhere

49.

In conservation research, which prompt asks you to explain actions taken to protect a species and who is involved?

a)

Success: status and future potential

b)

Plan: actions, people, timing, place

c)

Problem: causes of endangerment

d)

Questions: remaining uncertainties

50.

Which statement best describes the role of ATP in a living system?

a)

ATP senses and adjusts the pH in the cellular environment.

b)

ATP identifies and repairs weak components of cells and tissues.

c)

ATP measures and provides heat to increase reaction rates in cells.

d)

ATP captures and transfers energy released by the breakdown of glucose.

51.

Which process uses the products of photosynthesis as reactants?

a)

active transport

b)

cellular respiration

c)

DNA replication

d)

protein synthesis

52.

Which statement best explains why cellular respiration in plants and other organisms is dependent on photosynthesis?

a)

Photosynthesis is one of the final steps in cellular respiration.

b)

Photosynthesis provides the materials that fuel cellular respiration.

c)

Photosynthesis absorbs excess energy produced by cellular respiration.

d)

Photosynthesis absorbs materials that are catalyzed during cellular respiration.

53.

Which two statements correctly describe one similarity and one difference between cellular respiration and photosynthesis?

1. Cellular respiration and photosynthesis both involve water.

2.Cellular respiration uses sugar, and photosynthesis produces sugar.

  1. 3. Cellular respiration and photosynthesis both use light to produce energy.

  2. 4. Cellular respiration requires light energy, and photosynthesis requires chemical energy.

a)

statements 1 and 2

b)

statements 1 and 4

c)

statements 2 and 3

d)

statements 3 and 4

54.
What are the products of aerobic respiration?
a)
Glucose and oxygen
b)
Carbon dioxide and water
c)
Lactic acid
d)
Carbon monoxide
55.
The purpose of cellular respiration is to make
a)
food from energy
b)
ATP from glucose
c)
heat for the organism
d)
oxygen
56.

In an energy pyramid, energy _______ as you move up the pyramid.

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

c)

Changes up and down

d)

Stays the same

57.

In this energy pyramid, which organism has the least amount of energy available?

a)

Herbivores

b)

Carnivores

c)

Producers

d)

Top Predator

58.

If there is 1000 Kcal available in the producers in trophic level 1, how much energy is available in the herbivores in trophic level 2?

a)

1000 Kcal

b)

1 Kcal

c)

100 Kcal

d)

10 Kcal

59.

If carbon dioxide is removed from a plant’s environment, what would you expect to happen to its production

of high-energy sugars?

a)

More sugars will be produced.

b)

No sugars will be produced.

c)

The same number of sugars will be produced but without carbon dioxide.

d)

Carbon dioxide does not affect the production of high-energy sugars in plants.

60.

An endangered species is

a)

a species growing on public land.

b)

a species in danger of extinction.

c)

an organism brought to a place where it has not lived before.

d)

a species that has disappeared entirely.