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APES Semester 1 Final Exam Review

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following terrestrial biomes has the highest net primary productivity?

a)

Desert

b)

Tropical Rain Forest

c)

Taiga

d)

Savanna

2.

Which of the following biogeochemical cycle is shown in the diagram?

a)

Carbon Cycle

b)

Nitrogen Cycle

c)

Water (Hydrologic) Cycle

d)

Phosphorus Cycle

3.

Which of the following biogeochemical cycle is shown in the diagram?

a)

Carbon Cycle

b)

Nitrogen Cycle

c)

Water (Hydrologic) Cycle

d)

Phosphorus Cycle

4.

The total rate of photosynthesis in a given area is...

a)

Primary Producer

b)

Gross Primary Productivity

c)

Net Primary Productivity

d)

Cellular Respiration

5.

The energy available to consumers determined by subtracting the energy used by plants from the total energy transformed by the process of photosynthesis.

a)

Cellular Productivity

b)

Net Primary Productivity

c)

Gross Primary Productivity

d)

Cellular Respiration

6.

Based on the second law of thermodynamics, how much biomass of phytoplankton would be needed to produce 1 kilogram (kg) of large fish in this food web?

a)

1 kg

b)

10 kg

c)

100 kg

d)

1000 kg

7.

Which of the following biogeochemical cycle is shown in the diagram?

a)

Carbon Cycle

b)

Nitrogen Cycle

c)

Water (Hydrologic) Cycle

d)

Phosphorus Cycle

8.

Which of the following ecosystem services is categorized as regulating?

a)

Drinking water, timber, medicines

b)

Water purification, pest control, pollination

c)

Recreation and education

d)

Photosynthesis, soil formation, nutrient cycling

9.

Based on the theory of island biogeography, which of the following islands would most likely have the highest number of species living on it?

a)

Large island, far from mainland

b)

Large island, close to mainland

c)

Small island, far from mainland

d)

Small island, close to mainland

10.

Which of the following can be used to assess the biological diversity of an area?

a)

Population size of each species and area occupied by each population

b)

Ratio of r-strategists to K-strategists and life expectancy of K-strategists

c)

Genetic variation within each species and number of species present

d)

Minimum population area and minimum viable population size

11.

Which of the following best shows the process of evolution?

a)

A lizard's color becomes brown as it sits on a log.

b)

A bear goes into hibernation.

c)

A population of foxes increases as more prey becomes available.

d)

A population of mosquitoes develops resistance to a pesticide.

12.

A pond is sampled once a year, and its species richness is measured. What best indicates the pond is being adversely affected by a nearby development?

a)

An uncommon species has become more numerous.

b)

An increase in low-tolerance species has occurred.

c)

A decrease in high-tolerance species has occurred.

d)

The biodiversity of the pond has decreased.

13.

During which stage of the demographic transition shown above does a population begin to experience an explosive increase in growth?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

14.

A country with an age distribution like that shown in the figure above, is most likely a country that...

a)

is experiencing rapid growth

b)

is experiencing slow or no population growth

c)

is a less-developed country

d)

is experiencing a high death rate

15.

What is the carrying capacity of the ecosystem?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

16.

Which of the following characteristics is most closely associated with a country that demonstrates the age structure in the diagram shown?

a)

There is a low infant mortality rate.

b)

A high percentage of the population has access to medical care.

c)

There is a low population growth rate.

d)

There is a high total fertility rate.

17.

Which of the following are associated with a decrease in a country's total fertility rate?

a)

Limited access to health care

b)

Poor nutrition

c)

Limited access to clean water

d)

Delay in age of first marriage and increased

contraceptive use

18.

Which of the following characteristics are associated with a more developed country?

a)

Large population size

b)

Large land area

c)

Low infant mortality rate

d)

High emigration rate

19.

If a country has a crude birth rate of 24 per 1,000 and a crude death rate of 8 per 1,000, the natural annual percent increase of its population is...

a)

1.6%

b)

16%

c)

-1.6%

d)

32%

20.

If the population of a country grows at a rate of approximately 5 percent per year, the number of years required for the population to double is closest to...

a)

5 years

b)

10 years

c)

15 years

d)

25 years

21.

Members of an r-selected species characteristically...

a)

produce few offspring

b)

have long life spans

c)

produce few offspring

d)

reach sexual maturity quickly

22.

This map illustrates...

a)

A transform boundary

b)

A convergent boundary

c)

A divergent boundary

d)

A subduction zone

23.

Which soil sample is most permeable?

a)

Soil Sample A

b)

Soil Sample B

c)

Soil Sample C

d)

Not possible to determine

24.

Which soil sample would be hold the most water and be best for lining a landfill?

a)

Soil Sample A

b)

Soil Sample B

c)

Soil Sample C

d)

Not possible to determine

25.

What causes warm, moist air to rise at the equator and descend at the 30o N and S latitudes?

a)

Heat from the ocean

b)

Heat from the sun

c)

Cool air from the trade winds

d)

The Coriolis Effect

26.

Which of the following can cause an increase in water pollution in a watershed?

a)

An increase in the number of grasses, trees, and shrubs

b)

An increase in the natural systems near a watershed

c)

An increase in stormwater runoff in urban areas

d)

A decrease in the number of impervious surfaces near the watershed

27.

In this picture...

a)

It is summer in the northern hemisphere, because it receives the most direct sunlight.

b)

It is summer in the southern hemisphere, because it receives the most direct sunlight.

c)

The Arctic Circle receives no daylight.

d)

There is 12 hours of daylight and 12 hours of darkness each day at the Equator.

28.

Which of the following factors is fundamentally responsible for seasons on Earth?

a)

The varying distance of Earth from the Sun

b)

The tidal pull of the Sun and Moon

c)

The tilt of Earth's axis of rotation

d)

The latitudinal variation in temperature and precipitation

29.

Which timber-harvesting method leads to a loss of biodiversity and a fragmented habitat?

a)

Clear-cutting

b)

Selective cutting

c)

Slash and burn clearing

d)

Shelter-wood cutting

30.

Which of the following scenarios best explains the concept of the tragedy of the commons?

a)

Fish farming produces fish through selective breeding to produce a cheap source of protein.

b)

A collapse of the fishing industry leads to a loss of fishing-related jobs.

c)

A decline in fish populations cause declines in fish predators, affecting the entire food chain.

d)

Fish are shared resources; as industry competes for fish, the resources are depleted.

31.
Which of the following can naturally "fix" atmospheric nitrogen so plants can utilize it?
a)
only bacteria
b)
bacteria and lightening
c)
herbivores
d)
carnivores
32.
Sea floor spreading is caused by
a)
transform boundaries
b)
convergent boundaries
c)
divergent boundaries
d)
earthquakes
33.
Negative Feedback Loops:
a)
amplify processes
b)
prevent small changes from getting larger
c)
are initiated during childbirth
d)
are found only in plants
34.
The relationship between a zebra and a tick
a)
Mutualism
b)
Parasitism
c)
Commensalism
35.
In what process is Carbon transformed into chemical energy?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Respiration
c)
Primary Production
d)
Secondary Production
36.

The introduction of an invasive (exotic) species affects biodiversity negatively if the species;

a)

has a faster growth rate than native species

b)

outcompetes the native species for resources

c)

carries a new pathogen into the native species habitat

d)

all of the above.

37.
What is THE most major cause of extinction today?
a)
habitat destruction by humans
b)
poaching
c)
disease
d)
hunting
38.
What is the role of the snake in this food web?
a)
Primary consumer
b)
Secondary consumer
c)
Tertiary consumer
d)
Producer
39.

An environmental limiting factor such as predation, disease, and competition that depends on the number of members in a population per unit

a)

dispersion

b)

density- independent factor

c)

density- dependent factor

d)

population growth rate

40.

Economically valuable services or resources provided by environmental systems are referred to as ___________________.

a)

ecosystem services

b)

environmental conservation

c)

resource depletion

d)

Tragedy of the Commons

41.
Mountains are created when....
a)
Two continental plates collide
b)
Two oceanic plates pull apart
c)
An Oceanic plate subducts under a Continental Plate
d)
Two continental plates pull apart
42.

VOCAB: The average number of children a female member of a population has during her lifetime

a)

total fertility rate

b)

replacement fertility rate

c)

growth rate

d)

death rate

43.

Which of the following leads to a decrease in birthrates among women?

a)

Higher Education

b)

High Infant Mortality Rate

c)

No Prenatal Care

d)

No contraceptives

44.
What is the carrying capacity of the following graph?
a)
1000
b)
8000
c)
800
d)
600
45.

Using the rule of 70, a population growing at 1% would double in

a)

7 years

b)

10 years

c)

25 years

d)

70 years

e)

not enough information given

46.

Which phase of the demographic transition is marked by decreasing birth rates and low death rates?

a)

Phase 1 (Pre-Industrial)

b)

Phase 2 (Transitional)

c)

Phase 3 (Industrial)

d)

Phase 4 (Post-Industrial)

47.
Which of the following IS a negative environmental impact associated with affluence?
a)
disregard for the environmental effects of consuming resources
b)
lowered infant mortality ratemigration to the citys
c)
migration to the city
d)
technological innovation
48.
Why is topsoil darker than all other levels of soil?
a)
It contains all the darker colored minerals
b)
It contains volcanic rock
c)
It contains more organic matter
d)
It contains bits of burned trees
49.
a soil layer with physical and chemical properties that differ from those soil layers above and below it
a)
soil profile
b)
soil horizon
c)
humus
d)
deposition
50.
The layer of soil which the topsoil is found.
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
51.
Which type of soil can hold the greatest amount of water?
a)
sand
b)
silt
c)
clay
d)
loam
52.

Soil that is 50% sand, 10 % silt and 40% clay is

a)

sandy loam

b)

loamy sand

c)

sandy clay

d)

sandy clay loam

53.
How much energy is available to be passed on to the next trophic level in an ecosystem?
a)
100%
b)
10%
c)
50%
d)
75%
54.

What is the tragedy of the commons?

a)

the general idiocy of the average human

b)

The failure to create a sense of shared responsibility

c)

the prevalence of extreme poverty in the developing world

d)

destruction of shared resources through self-serving behavior

55.

Organisms that have a large effect on the abundance and type of organisms in an ecosystem

a)

nonnative species

b)

invasive species

c)

keystone species

d)

indicator species

56.

The variety of genes, species, ecosystems and ecosystem processes

a)

biodiversity

b)

species evenness

c)

species richness

d)

ecology

57.

Species that are near extinction

a)

indicator

b)

keystone

c)

endangered

d)

threatened

58.

What is the purpose of the endangered species act?

a)

protect endangered species

b)

identify endangered species

c)

put a plan in place to help the populations for endangered species

d)

all of these

59.

Which of the following is not an environmental indicator?

a)

Biodiversity

b)

Food Production

c)

Evolution

d)

Human Population

e)

Resource Depletion

60.

What is an abiotic component?

a)

eagle

b)

human

c)

tree

d)

rock

61.

An accurate definition of Sustainability is

a)

meeting population needs

b)

meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to survive

c)

meeting the needs of the future without worrying about todays

d)

meeting the food needs of animals

62.

The image is of a(n):

a)

El Nino event

b)

La Nina event

c)

Non-El Nino (normal conditions)

63.
El Nino occurs when the tropical ocean waters are warmer in which ocean?
a)
Atlantic
b)
Indian
c)
Pacific
d)
Arctic
64.

Which of the following is NOT and ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning Services

b)

Regulating Services

c)

Cultural Services

d)

Economic Services

65.

Fruits, fish, and livestock are all examples of what type of ecosystem service?

a)

Economic

b)

Provisioning

c)

Regulating

d)

Cultural

66.

Music, art, and architecture born from interactions with nature are all examples of what type of ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Cultural

d)

Supporting

67.

Which of the following would be an example of a regulating service?

a)

Nutrient cycling

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Drinking water from a creek

d)

Bees pollinating flowers

68.

The movement of deep, cold, nutrient filled water to the surface of the ocean is..

a)

Ocean Current

b)

Upwelling

c)

Deep Currents

d)

Surface Currents

69.

Why is upwelling important?

a)

Upwelling regulates ocean temperature

b)

Upwelling provides nutrient rich water that sustains life

c)

Upwelling controls the tides

d)

Upwelling helps sailors to navigate the seas

70.
When surface currents meet continents they ___?
a)
Stop moving
b)
Are deflected (change paths)
c)
Continue in the direction they were going
71.

What are a circular system of currents in the Earth's major oceans?

a)

ocean current

b)

gyre

c)

upwelling

d)

conveyor belt

72.
Surface currents are mainly caused by
a)
The Coriolis Effect
b)
Cold and Warm Water
c)
Convection
d)
Wind
73.
The deflection of currents due to Earth's rotation is called the
a)
Rotation Effect
b)
Current Effect
c)
Coriolis Effect
d)
Deflection Effect
74.
Cold ocean currents generally come from
a)
The North Pole 
b)
The South Pole
c)
The Equator
d)
Both North and South Poles
75.

This climograph is likely from which climate zone?

a)

Tundra/Continental

b)

Desert

c)

Tropical Rainforest

d)

Temperate Forest

76.
a)

Mountain shadow effect

b)

Raining effect

c)

Precipitation Effect

d)

Rain Shadow Effect

77.
Ocean acidification begins with 
a)
pollution from ships
b)
carbon dioxide released from combustion
c)
dumping of waste from cities into the ocean
78.
Carbon dioxide and seawater combine to form
a)
calcium carbonate
b)
carbon monoxide
c)
carbonic acid 
79.
Earth’s biomes are divided into _________ biomes, and __________biomes
a)
terrestrial, aquatic
b)
hot, cold
c)
north, south
d)
east, west
80.

According to the diagram, which of the following both have large amounts of precipitation?

a)

desert & tropical rain forest

b)

seasonal forest & tundra

c)

tundra & desert

d)

tropical rain forest & temperate rain forest

81.
The area of the map shaded in yellow represents which of the following terrestrial biome
a)
Coniferous Forrest
b)
Deciduous Forrest 
c)
Desert
d)
Tundra
82.
Which of these is NOT a marine biome?
a)
open ocean
b)
deep ocean floor
c)
seashore
d)
wetlands
83.
If the end of a river or stream overflows, what is that area called?
a)
pond
b)
beach
c)
gulf
d)
wetlands
84.
Salt marshes play a large role in the aquatic food web and the delivery of nutrients to coastal waters.
a)
true
b)
false
85.
When water soaks down through the soil.
a)
deposition
b)
erosion
c)
infiltration
d)
sediment
86.

Soil, vegetation, & rocks that are removed to get to an ore deposit below

a)

reserve

b)

ore

c)

overburden

d)

tailings

87.

Commercially valuable deposits of concentrated minerals

a)

tailings

b)

ore

c)

overburden

d)

metals

88.
Area where earth's lithospheric plates are pushed together
a)
divergent plate boundary
b)
transform plate boundary
c)
convergent plate boundary
d)
earthquake
89.
Area in which oceanic lithosphere is carried downward under a continent at a plate boundary
a)
convergent plate boundary
b)
divergent plate boundary
c)
transform boundary
d)
subduction zone
90.
Tailings are
a)
minerals found in metamorphic rock
b)
magma ore resulting from seafloor spreading
c)
the remaining supply of metals on Earth
d)
the waste material from mining
91.
Which type of mining is usually most directly harmful to miners?
a)
sub-surface mining
b)
open pit mining
c)
placer mining
d)
strip mining
92.
Reclamation is.....
a)
not required in the US.
b)
a process that causes significant environmental damage.
c)
returning the land back to its original condition after mining
d)
required for every country and every type of mine in the world.
93.
All of the land that drains into a particular body of water is called a(n):
a)
watershed
b)
bedrock
c)
island
d)
aquifer
94.
What does the graph represent?
a)
Emigration
b)
Exponential growth
c)
Immigration
d)
Logistic Growth
95.
Which factor is a density-dependent limiting factor on the population of a species?
a)
seasonal variation
b)
natural disasters
c)
unusual weather
d)
predation
96.
Which threat to biodiversity is being displayed?
a)
overexploitation
b)
invasive species
c)
pollution
d)
habitat fragmentation
97.
Which of these would NOT be true of a specialist species?
a)
They are more likely to go extinct during changes to an ecosystem. 
b)
They have a very narrow niche.
c)
They often lose in competition for resources to generalists. 
d)
They often feed on a very specific diet. 
98.
________ grow slowly over time, cares for its young over a long period of time and is usually near the carrying capacity of its ecosystem.
a)
K-strategists
b)
R-strategists
c)
Uniform strategists
d)
environmentalists
99.
J-Shaped curves
a)
show a decline after an increase
b)
display populations that have reached carrying capacity
c)
represent exponential growth
d)
does not depend on the numbe rof resources
100.

A metropolitan region of 100,000 people has 2000 births, 500 deaths, 200 emigrants, and 100 immigrants over a 1-year period. Its population growth rate is

a)

1.2 percent.

b)

1.4 percent

c)

1.6 percent.

d)

1.8 percent.

e)

2.0 percent.

101.

Populations whose age structure diagrams are narrower at the bottom than at the top have

a)

high death rates

b)

the same proportion of individuals in each age group

c)

a declining population

d)

a high growth rate

e)

all of the above

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