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Worksheets

AP Chemistry Revu

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 4hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT isoelectronic with the other species?

a)

S2-

b)

Br-

c)

Kr

d)

Sr2+

2.

Which of the following subshells has the lowest energy?

a)

4d

b)

5s

c)

5p

d)

5f

3.

Which of the following has the lowest 2nd ionization energy?

a)

N

b)

Mg

c)

K

d)

Cl

4.

Which element has the largest atomic radius?

a)

B

b)

Al

c)

Ca

d)

Mg

5.

Which element has electrons in the greatest number of subshells when it is in its ground state?

a)

C

b)

Na

c)

Ar

d)

Fe

6.

Which element could #3 be based on ionization energy?

a)

Na

b)

Mg

c)

Al

d)

Si

7.

What is ionization energy?

a)

How well an atom attracts electrons in a chemical bond

b)

The relative size of an atom

c)

An atom that has gained or lost an electron

d)

The amount of energy it takes to remove an electron from the valence shell of an atom

8.

Which of the following is NOT true about ionic compounds?

a)

They conduct electricity when in the liquid state

b)

They are comprised of positive and negative ions

c)

They are ductile (can be made into wire)

d)

They are brittle (break easily)

9.

Which Lewis dot structure shows exactly two unshared pairs of valence electrons?

a)

H2S

b)

CO2

c)

NH3

d)

CBr4

10.

What is the shape of PCl5?

a)

Tetrahedral

b)

Octahedral

c)

Trigonal pyramidal

d)

Trigonal bipyramidal

11.

What type of hybridization does C have in CH2OH?

a)

sp

b)

sp2

c)

sp3

d)

sp3d

12.

How many sigma and pi bonds are in C2H2?

a)

3 sigma and 1 pi

b)

3 sigma, 2 pi

c)

4 sigma, 1 pi

d)

4 sigma, 2 pi

13.

Which of the following would require resonance structures to satisfactorily describe the bonding?

a)

H2O

b)

NO3-

c)

CO2

d)

OH-

14.

Which molecule is nonpolar?

a)

NH3

b)

OF2

c)

SF4

d)

PF5

15.

What is the oxidation state of S in Na2SO4?

a)

-2

b)

+2

c)

+4

d)

+6

16.

Which of the following is NOT soluble in water?

a)

NaSO4

b)

AgBr

c)

Ca(NO3)2

d)

BaSO4

17.

Which of the following would have a positive ΔS?

a)

H2O (g) → H2O (l)

b)

O2 (g) → O2 (aq)

c)

CO2 (s) → CO2 (g)

d)

Cl2 (aq) → Cl2 (s)

18.

A cube of ice is added to some hot water in a rigid, insulated container, which is then sealed. There is no heat exchange with the surroundings. What has happened to the total energy when the system reaches equilibrium?

a)

ΔH increases

b)

ΔH decreases

c)

ΔH remains the same

19.

What is the correct coefficient for O2 when this reaction is balanced?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

6

d)

10

20.

Which of the following is NOT a strong base?

a)

NaOH

b)

RbOH

c)

Al(OH)3

d)

Ca(OH)2

21.

A bronsted lowry acid

a)

produces hydroxide ions in a solution

b)

is a proton donor

c)

produces hydrogen ions in a solution

d)

is a proton acceptor

22.

A bronsted lowry base

a)

produces hydroxide ions in a solution

b)

is a proton donor

c)

produces hydrogen ions in a solution

d)

is a proton acceptor

23.
HCl + NaOH → 
a)
NaH + ClOH
b)
NaCl + H2
c)
NaCl + H2O
d)
NaCl + Cl2
24.
I am titrating 1M HCl with 1M NaOH.  I have 25mL of HCl. How much NaOH will I need?
a)
2.5mL
b)
5mL
c)
25mL
d)
50mL
25.
what is the reading on this burette?
a)
4.40mL
b)
3.50mL
c)
3.60mL
d)
4.50mL
26.
I have 25mL of 1M HCl which neutralises 20mL of NaOH. What is the concentration of the NaOH?
a)
0.8 M
b)
1 M
c)
1.25 M
27.
Identify the products of the chemical equation
3 LiOH + H3PO4 →
a)
Li3PO4 + 3 H2O
b)
LiPO4 + 3 H2O
c)
Li(PO4)3 + 3 H2O
d)
BOY + La + N2
28.
How many moles of Ca(OH)2 are needed to neutralize three moles of HCl? 
a)
8
b)
1.5
c)
6
d)
3
29.
Which of the following is a conjugate acid/base pair?
a)
HCl/OCl-
b)
H2SO4/SO42-
c)
NH4+/NH3
d)
H3O+/OH-
30.
What explains the very high melting and boiling point of water
a)
Strong dipole-dipole bonds between water molecules
b)
Strong hydrogen bonds between water molecules
c)
Dispersion forces which are present in all molecules
d)
Asymmetrical shape of the polar bonds.
31.

Which of the following has hydrogen bonding?

a)

HBr

b)

NO2

c)

H2S

d)

NH3

32.
What is the basis of a metallic bond?
a)
the attraction of neutral metal atoms.
b)
the attraction between protons and neutrons.
c)
the attraction between positive metal ions and interlocking electrons.
d)
the attraction between positive metal ions and free floating electrons.
33.
a)

rate = k[CO]2[O2]2

b)

rate = k[CO]2[O2]

c)

rate = k[CO][O2]2

d)

rate = k[CO][O2]1/2

34.
A catalyst:
a)
should be eliminated when we solve elementary reaction steps of a proposed reaction mechanism simultaneously
b)
should always be introduced and eliminated in the first elementary step of a proposed reaction mechanism
c)
lowers the amount of energy released by an exothermic reaction
d)
lowers the amount of energy added to a reaction 
35.

bonds broken

a)

exothermic

b)

endothermic

36.

The enthalpies of combustion of C(s), H2(g) and C4H9OH(l) (in kJmol-1) are as follows

C(s) + O2(g) -> CO2(g) ∆H=a

H2(g) + ½O2(g) -> H2O(l) ∆H=b

C4H9OH(l) + 6O2(g) -> 4CO2(g) + 5H2O(l) ∆H=c

What is the enthalpy change for the reaction shown below?

4C(g) + 5H2(l) + ½O2(g) -> C4H9OH(l)

a)

c – 4a – 5b

b)

2a + 10b - c

c)

4a + 5b - c

d)

2a + 5b + c

37.

How grams of oxygen are present in a 30.0 gram sample of potassium chlorate, KClO3 (MM = 122.55g/mol)?

a)

7.83 grams

b)

150.45 grams

c)

36.8 grams

d)

3.83 grams

e)

11.8 grams

38.

A particle with 15 protons and 18 electrons would be symbolized as:

a)

P3+

b)

Ar

c)

Ar3-

d)

P3-

e)

Ar3+

39.

When the equation for the combustion of ethane, C2H6, is correctly balanced, the coefficient on oxygen is:

a)

3

b)

7

c)

1

d)

5

e)

9

40.

By knowing the number of electrons in a neutral atom, you should also be able to determine

a)

the number of protons in the neutral atom

b)

the mass of the neutral atom

c)

the number of neutrons in the neutral atom

d)

the atomic number of the neutral atom

e)

two of these choices

41.

Which of the following arrangements represent different isotopes of the same element?


1) 12 protons, 11 neutrons, 12 electrons

2) 11 protons, 12 neutrons, 11 electrons

3) 10 protons, 12 neutrons, 12 electrons

4) 11 protons, 12 neutrons, 10 electrons

5) 12 protons, 12 neutrons, 12 electrons

a)

None of these qualify

b)

All of these qualify

c)

1 and 5

d)

2, 3, 4 and 5

e)

2 and 4

42.

A particle X contains 10 electrons, seven neutrons and has a net charge of 3-. The particle is:

a)

a neon ion

b)

none of these are correct

c)

an oxide ion

d)

obviously polyatomic

e)

a nitride ion

43.

For which of the following compounds does 0.400 mol have a mass of 12.8 grams?

a)

CCl4

b)

C4H10

c)

CO2

d)

CH3OH

e)

CH4

44.

The answer choices below provide the first four ionization energies for four different metals. Identify the answer choice that could produce a binary oxide where the ratio of the metal to oxygen is one to one.

a)

IE1 = 578 kJ/mol; IE2 = 1817 kJ/mol; IE3 = 2745 kJ/mol; IE4 = 11577 kJ/mol

b)

IE1 = 419 kJ/mol; IE2 = 3052 kJ/mol; IE3 = 4420 kJ/mol; IE4 = 5877 kJ/mol

c)

IE1 = 590 kJ/mol; IE2 = 1145 kJ/mol; IE3 = 4912 kJ/mol; IE4 = 6491 kJ/mol

d)

IE1 = 633 kJ/mol; IE2 = 1235 kJ/mol; IE3 = 2388 kJ/mol; IE4 = 7091 kJ/mol

45.

Which of the following answer choices provides a correct prediction and justification for relative differences in the first ionization energies of hydrogen and lithium?

a)

The first IE for lithium is greater than that of hydrogen because lithium has more protons in its nucleus

b)

The first IE for lithium is greater than that of hydrogen because the radius of the 1s orbital in lithium is smaller than the 1s orbital in hydrogen.

c)

The first IE for lithium is less than that of hydrogen because lithium has a smaller atomic radius.

d)

The first IE for lithium is less than that of hydrogen because hydrogen has a smaller atomic radius.

46.

Which of the following statements provides a correct prediction about the PES data for silicon?

a)

Removing an electron from the 1s orbital in a neutral silicon atom would requires less entergy than removing an electron from the 2s orbital in a neutral silicon atom.

b)

Removing an electron from the n=2 shell in a neutral silicon atom would require the same amount of energy.

c)

Removing an electron from the 3s orbital in a neutral silicon atom would require less energy than removing an electron from a 3p orbital in a neutral silicon atom.

d)

Removing an electron from a 2p orbital in a neutral silicon atom would require more energy than removing at electron from a 3p orbital in a neutral silicon atom.

47.

Calculate ΔEN for Pb-S

a)

1.1

b)

-0.1

c)

0.1

d)

3.7

48.

Which type of bond is created between C-N?

a)

Polar Covalent

b)

Non-polar Covalent

c)

Ionic

d)

Metallic

49.

Which type of bond is created between Na-I?

a)

Polar Covalent

b)

Non-polar Covalent

c)

Ionic

d)

Metallic

50.

Based on electronegativies, which of the following would you expect to be most ionic?

a)

N2

b)

NaF

c)

CO

d)

there is no way to tell

51.

The Lewis structure of N2H2 shows __________.

a)

a nitrogen-nitrogen triple bond

b)

a nitrogen-nitrogen single bond

c)

each nitrogen has one lone pair

d)

each nitrogen has two lone pairs

e)

each hydrogen has one lone pair

52.

In the nitrite ion (NO2-), __________.

a)

both bonds are single bonds

b)

both bonds are double bonds

c)

both bonds are the same because of resonance

d)

there are 20 valence electrons

e)

there is one single and one double bond

53.

A valid Lewis structure of _______ cannot be drawn without violating the octet rule.

a)

NF3

b)

IF3

c)

PF3

d)

SbF3

e)

SO42-

54.

In the resonance form of ozone shown, the formal charge on the central oxygen atom is _______.

a)

0

b)

+1

c)

-1

d)

+2

e)

-2

55.

The Lewis structure of the CO32- ion is

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
56.

The ion NO- has _____ valence electrons.

a)

10

b)

12

c)

14

d)

15

e)

16

57.

Choose the correct shape for H2S

a)

Tetrahedral

b)

Trigonal pyramidal

c)

Bent

d)

Trigonal planar

58.
The following molecules all contain polar bonds however only one is a polar molecule.  Which one?
a)
CCl4
b)
CO2
c)
NH3
d)
CH4
59.
What is the VSPER shape of PCl5
a)
See-saw
b)
trigonal planar
c)
octahedral
d)
trigonal bipyramidal
60.
The interaction energy of two hydrogen atoms is shown on the graph above. Which of the answer choices displayed on the graph best represents the bond length of the H2 molecule?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
61.

The ability of an atom in a molecule to attract electrons is best quantified by the ______.

a)

electronegativity

b)

paramagnetism

c)

diamagnetism

d)

electron change-to-mass ratio

e)

first ionization energy

62.

Which atom can accommodate an octet of electrons, but doesn't necessarily have to accommodate an octet?

a)

N

b)

C

c)

H

d)

O

e)

B

63.

Bond enthalpy is __________.

a)

always negative

b)

always positive

c)

sometimes positive and sometimes negative

d)

always zero

e)

unpredictable

64.

As the number of covalent bonds between two atoms increases, the distance between the atoms ______ and the strength of the bond between them ______.

a)

increases, increases

b)

decreases, decreases

c)

increases, decreases

d)

decreases, increases

e)

is unpredictable

65.
How are compounds with metallic bonds similar to ionic compounds? 
a)
Both tend to have double and triple bonds
b)
Both tend to have low boiling points 
c)
Both tend to have poor conductivity
d)
Both tend to have high melting points 
66.

How many sigma and pi bonds are there in C2H2? (the structure will be ordered HCCH)

a)

1 sigma and 1 pi

b)

3 sigma and 1 pi

c)

3 sigma and 2 pi

d)

2 sigma and 3 pi

67.
CCl4, CO2, PCl3, PCl5, SF6
Which of the following does not describe any of the molecules above?
a)
Trigonal pyramidal
b)
Octahedral
c)
Square planar
d)
Tetrahedral
68.

Copper (II) nitride, Cu3N2, has the following bonding:

a)

ionic

b)

metallic

c)

nonpolar covalent

d)

polar covalent

69.

Carbon dioxide, CO2, has the following bonding:

a)

lattice of positive and negative ions held together by electrostatic forces

b)

closely packed lattice with delocalized electrons throughout

c)

strong single covalent bonds with weak intermolecular forces

d)

strong multiple covalent bonds with weak intermolecular forces

70.

Which of the following typically has the lowest melting point?

a)

Metals

b)

Covalent network solids

c)

Ionic compounds

d)

Covalent molecules

71.

Which of the following probably has the highest solubility in water?

a)

Metals

b)

Covalent network solids

c)

Ionic compounds

d)

Covalent molecules

72.

Which of the following probably has the highest solubility in hexane, C6H14?

a)

Metals

b)

Polar covalent molecules

c)

Ionic compounds

d)

Nonpolar covalent molecules

73.

Of the following molecules, which is the most polar?

a)

CO

b)

CO2

c)

O2

d)

HF

e)

F2

74.

Which of the following has the lowest melting point?

a)

Zn

b)

SiO2

c)

CaCl2

d)

C2H6

75.
Intermolecular force present in HCl?
a)
dipole dipole
b)
dispersion
c)
H-bond
d)
ionic
76.
Type of intermolecular force present in I2, Br2, and Cl2.
a)
dipole dipole
b)
H-bond
c)
dispersion
d)
metallic
77.
What information do we look for on the periodic table if we  want to examine intermolecular forces?
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
electronegativity
d)
ionization 
78.
What explains the very high melting and boiling point of water
a)
Strong dipole-dipole bonds between water molecules
b)
Strong hydrogen bonds between water molecules
c)
Dispersion forces which are present in all molecules
d)
Asymmetrical shape of the polar bonds.
79.
Which of these typically increases when intermolecular forces increase?
a)
Boiling Point
b)
Melting Point
c)
Viscosity
d)
All of these
80.
Rank these in order of strength:
covalent bond
London forces
hydrogen bond
dipole-dipole attraction
a)
dipole-dipole>covalent bond>hydrogen bond>London
b)
London>dipole-diple>hydrogen bond>covalent bond
c)
covalent bond>hydrogen bond>dipole-dipole>London
d)
hydrogen bond>dipole-dipole>London>covalent bond
81.
What best explains the difference in melting points between Cl2 (-101.5) and F2 (-219)?
a)
Increased mass (polarizability) of chlorine
b)
Increased electronegativity of fluorine
c)
Increased number of electrons in chlorine
d)
Decrease metallic character of fluorine
82.

According to kinetic molecular theory, in which of the following gases will the root mean square speed of the molecules be the highest at 200ºC?

a)

SF6

b)

H2O

c)

HCl

d)

Cl2

e)

None, the molecules of all gases have the same root mean square speed at any given temperature.

83.
A sample of gas with a volume of 30.0 mL at 25.0oC is heated to 50.0oC.  What is the new volume of the gas?
a)
60.0 mL
b)
15.0 mL
c)
27.5 mL
d)
32.5 mL
84.

A gaseous mixture containing 7.0 moles of nitrogen, 2.5 moles of oxygen, and 0.5 moles of helium exerts a total pressure of 0.90 atmosphere. What is the partial pressure of the nitrogen?

a)

0.13 atm

b)

0.27 atm

c)

0.63 atm

d)

0.90 atm

85.

NH4NO3(s) → N2O(g) + 2 H2O(g)


A 0.03 mol sample of NH4NO3(s) is placed in a 1 L evacuated flask, which is then sealed and heated. The NH4NO3(s) decomposes completely according to the balanced equation above. The total pressure in the flask measured at 400 K is closest to which of the following? ( The value of the gas constant, R, is 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1)

a)

3 atm

b)

1 atm

c)

0.5 atm

d)

0.1 atm

86.

Which of the following is an assumption of the kinetic-molecular theory of gases?

a)

Collisions between gas particles are inelastic.

b)

Gases consist of closely spaced particles.

c)

Gas particles move around in an orderly manner.

d)

The temperature of a gas depends on the average kinetic energy of the gas particles.

87.

1. Under which conditions does a real gas behave very much like an ideal gas?

a)

high temperature and low pressure

b)

high temperature and high pressure

c)

low temperature and high pressure

d)

low temperature and low pressure

88.

1. Liquids are more ordered than gases because liquids have ?

a)

Weaker Intermolecular Forces And Lower Mobility Of The Particles

b)

stronger intermolecular forces and lower mobility of the particles.

c)

weaker intermolecular forces and greater mobility of the particles

d)

stronger intermolecular forces and greater mobility of the particles

89.

Chromatography separates solutions on the basis of _____ while distillation separates solutions on the basis of ______.

a)

IMFs; solubility

b)

solubility; conductivity

c)

IMFs; boiling point

d)

boiling point; solubility

90.

A dissolved solute that does not form ions is

a)

a nonelectroyte

b)

a weak electrolyte

c)

a strong electrolyte

d)

insoluble

91.

Which of the following occurs as temperature increases?

a)

solubility decreases

b)

solubility increases

c)

solubility remains the same

d)

molarity doubles

92.
A student extracts the colour from some green smarties and uses paper chromatography to separate components colours. She finds blue has a Rf =0.38 and yellow Rf =0.75 this suggests 
a)
the yellow is more strongly adsorbed onto the stationary phase and is less solublein the mobile phase.
b)
the yellow is more strongly adsorbed onto the stationary phase and is more soluble in the mobile phase.
c)
the blue is more strongly adsorbed onto the stationary phase and is less solublein the mobile phase.
d)
the blue is more strongly adsorbed onto the stationary phase and is less solublein the mobile phase.
93.
A certain photon of light has a wavelength of 4.22x10-7nm. What is the frequency? (v=c/λ)
a)
7.11x1014 Hz
b)
7.11Hz
c)
1.41x10-15
d)
-1.41x1015
94.
Select the correct order of waves on the EMS 
a)
Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
b)
Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio
c)
Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio
d)
Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
95.

Is this a chemical or physical process? CO2(g) → C(s) + O2(g)

a)

chemical

b)

physical

c)

both chemical and physical

96.

What coefficients balance this equation? ___Na + ___ZnI2 → ____NaI + ___Zn

a)

1,2,1,2

b)

2,1,2,1

c)

2,2,2,1

d)

1,1,2,1

97.

What are the spectator ions in this reaction? Fe+3(aq) + 3Cl-1(aq) + Na+1(aq) + OH-1(aq) → Fe(OH)3(s) + Na+1(aq) + Cl-1(aq)

a)

Fe+3 and Cl-1

b)

Na+1 and Cl-1

c)

Fe+3 and Na+

d)

Na+1 and OH-1

98.

What is the net ionic equation for this reaction? Fe+3(aq) + 3Cl-1(aq) + Na+1(aq) + OH-1(aq) → Fe(OH)3(s) + Na+1(aq) + Cl-1(aq)

a)

Fe+3 (aq) + OH-1(aq) → Fe(OH)3(s) 

b)

Na+1(aq) + Cl-1(aq) → NaCl(aq)

c)

Fe+3(aq) + 3Cl-1(aq) + Na+1(aq) + OH-1(aq) → Fe(OH)3(s) + Na+1(aq) + Cl-

99.
What precipitate forms when you mix lead (II) nitrate with sodium chloride?
a)
sodium nitrate 
b)
lead (II) chloride 
c)
sodium lead
d)
chloride nitrate 
100.
In the reaction Zn + H2O → ZnO2 + H2 which element is oxidized? 
a)
Zinc
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Oxygen
d)
None
101.
What is oxidation number of P in K3PO4?
a)
+1
b)
+5
c)
-2
d)
0
102.
The sum of all oxidation numbers in a neutral compound is ___.
a)
0
b)
1
c)
-1
d)
depends on the compound
103.
If an atom loses electrons during a chemical reaction, the atom was:
a)
Oxidized
b)
Reduced
c)
Neutralized
d)
Precipitated
104.

Which of the following is an Arrhenius Acid?

a)

LiOH

b)

CO32-

c)

OH-

d)

H3PO4

105.

The conjugate base of H2SO4 is ___.

a)

H2SO3

b)

HSO4-1

c)

H3SO4+1

d)

SO4-2

106.

NH3 + H2O ↔ NH4+ + OH-

What is H2O in this reaction?

a)

acid

b)

base

c)

conjugate acid

d)

conjugate base

107.

____ Zn + _____HCl → _____ ZnCl2 + _______H2


If 70.50 g of Zn and 71.65 g of HCl are combined, what is the limiting reactant?

a)

Zn limits

b)

HCl limits

c)

ZnCl2 limits

d)

H2 limits

108.

Identify the species reduced in the following reaction.


Fe(s) + 2 Ag+(aq) → Fe2+(aq) + 2 Ag(s)

a)

Fe

b)

Ag

c)

none of these

d)

None of the above

109.

Given the following: NH3(aq) + HCl(aq) ⇄ NH4+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

The Brønsted-Lowry acids in the reaction represented above are

a)

NH3(aq) and NH4+(aq)

b)

HCl(aq) and NH4+(aq)

c)

HCl(aq) and Cl-(aq)

d)

NH3(aq) and HCl(aq)

110.
Which of the following does NOT form a precipitate?
a)
Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) →
b)
Sr(NO3)2 (aq) + K2SO4(aq) →
c)
AgNO3(aq) + Na2S(aq) →
d)
 Pb(NO3)2(aq) + AgNO3(aq) →
111.
Which statement is true:
Mg → Mg2+ + 2e–
a)
Mg gains 2 electrons
b)
Mg2+ loses 2 electrons
c)
Mg loses 1 electron
d)
Mg loses 2 electrons
112.

A sample of a gas (5.0 mol) at 1.0 atm is expanded at constant temperature from 10.0 L to 15.0 L. The final pressure is ___ atm.

a)

1.5 atm

b)

15 atm

c)

0.67 atm

d)

3.3 atm

e)

7.5 atm

113.

SO2 (5.0 g) and CO2 (5.0 g) are placed in a 750 mL container at 50.0ºC. The partial pressure of SO2 in the container is ____ atm.

a)

1.60 atm

b)

2.76 atm

c)

4.02 atm

d)

0.192 atm

e)

6.78 atm

114.

Convert 191 mmHg to atm.

a)

145000 atm

b)

0.251 atm

c)

890 atm

d)

3.55 atm

e)

1.23 x 103 atm

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