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MI Review2021

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If the micropipette in this image is a P20 (which measures volumes from 2-20 microliters), how many microliters could it measure?

a)

0.98

b)

9.8

c)

98

d)

980

2.

You must immerse the barrel of the micropipette in fluid, when taking in liquid

a)

true

b)

false

3.

Do you prefer this type of quiz or Kahoot?

a)

I prefer Kahoot

b)

I prefer Quizizz

c)

I have no preference

d)

Both are good

4.

When using a micropipette it is important hold the pipette (a)   when drawing the liquid into the tip.

5.
There are _________ uL in 1 mL.
a)
1
b)
10
c)
100
d)
1000
6.

Convert 2.0mL to uL.

a)

2,000,000 µL

b)

2000 µL

c)

0.0020 µL

d)

0.20 µL

7.

What tool would you use to measure 325 μl?

a)

P-20

b)

P-200

c)

P-1000

8.

This is a p200 micropipette.

How many microliters will this micropipette take up?

a)

500 uL

b)

50 uL

c)

5.0 uL

d)

0.5 uL

9.
The whiplike tail on some bacteria that help them move
a)
Nucleoid
b)
Pili
c)
Flagella
d)
Cilia
10.
The three main shapes of bacteria are all of the following EXCEPT
a)
rod shaped (bacilli)
b)
spherical (cocci)
c)
octagon (octilli)
d)
spiral (spirilla)
11.
All bacteria have DNA. 
a)
true
b)
false
12.

How are bacterial cells different from the cells of eukaryotes?

a)

The bacteria are prokaryotes, and the genetic material is not contained in the nuclei.

b)

The bacteria are eukaryotes, and the genetic material is not contained in the nuclei.

c)

The bacteria are prokaryotes, and the genetic material is contained in the nuclei.

d)

The bacteria are eukaryotes, and the genetic material is contained in the nuclei.

13.

Select the example of an antibiotic.

a)

vaccine

b)

pathogen

c)

penicillin

d)

antibody

14.

Select the disease which can be treated with antibiotics.

a)

Cold

b)

Influenza

c)

COVID 19

d)

Bacterial infection

15.

Select the example of something which does not cause antibiotic resistance.

a)

Not finishing a course of antibiotics.

b)

Giving antibiotics to live stock (animals we eat).

c)

Using antibiotics when we don't need them.

d)

Finishing a course of antibiotics.

16.

Antibiotic resistance is a huge problem because the antibiotics we have now to fight bacteria will not work. Therefore we will need to make new kinds of .......... to fight the new types of ...........

a)

antibiotics, bacteria

b)

bacteria, antibiotics

c)

antibodies, bacteria

d)

antibiotics, viruses

17.

The rate that bacteria develop antibiotic resistance at can be sped up by:

a)

Exposure to lower levels of antimicrobials than prescribed

b)

2.Exposure to broad-spectrum antibiotics (which aren’t specific to a microbe)

c)

3.Overuse of antibiotics in foods/agriculture

d)

4. All of the above

18.

Examples of antibiotics:

a)

Penicillin

b)

Tetracyclines

c)

Neomycin

d)

All of the above

19.

Broad spectrum antibiotics are good because:

a)

They Kill many different pathogenic bacteria

b)

They are really cheap to buy

c)

They cause antibiotic resistance

d)

None of the above

20.

Broad spectrum antibiotics are bad because:

a)

They kill many different pathogenic bacteria

b)

They are really cheap to buy

c)

They can increase the rate of development of antibiotic resistance

d)

All of the above

21.
The three main shapes of bacteria are all of the following EXCEPT
a)
rod shaped (bacillus)
b)
spherical (coccus)
c)
octagon (octilli)
d)
spiral (spirillus)
22.
A disease causing organism
a)
pathogen
b)
poison
c)
vaccine
d)
prokaryote
23.
Based on the figure, which antibiotic inhibited the growth of the bacteria the most?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
24.

The area where bacteria cannot survive because of the antibiotic inhibits or kills it is called:

a)

zone of inhibition

b)

zone of prohibition

c)

the friend zone

d)

zone of unhappiness

25.
The antibiotic resistance trait can be passed from one bacterium to another during:
a)
conjugation
b)
retaliation
c)
flagellination
d)
pili parties
26.

People are increasing the rate at which bacteria populations are acquiring antibiotic resistance by:

a)

taking antibiotics only when they need them

b)

putting antibiotics into our food and environment

c)

not sharing antibiotics with others

27.

Which of the following is a strain of antibiotic resistant bacteria?

a)

RSPCA

b)

NRA

c)

MRSA

d)

GCSE

28.

What can we do to reduce the rate of development of antibiotic resistant strains of bacteria

a)

Always finish a course of antibiotics

b)

Only take antibiotics when they are really needed

c)

Take antibiotics whenever it is possible

d)

Reduce the amount of antibiotics given to animals in the farming industry

29.

This is a graph from initial infection B. Were the bacteria wiped out?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

It's impossible to tell

30.

People are making antibiotic resistance worse by:

a)

Taking antibiotics only when they need them

b)

Not finishing the full course of prescribed antibiotics

c)

Not sharing antibiotics with others

d)

Taking antibiotics for when they have a virus

31.

Antibiotic resistant bacteria can

a)

Survive

b)

Reproduce

c)

Pass on the resistant gene to their offspring

d)

All of the above

32.
Based on the figure, which antibiotic inhibited the growth of the bacteria the most?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
33.
Plates should be incubated
a)
agar side up
b)
agar side down 
c)
it doesn't matter
34.

When working with bactera, what is the first thing you should do?

a)

put on gloves

b)

wash your hands

c)

sterilize your workspace

35.

How many antibiotics does this bacteria seem to be resistant to?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

All of them

d)

None of them

36.

Over time, bacteria can become resistant to antibiotics. Why can this be considered harmful for humans?

a)

It is harmful to humans because all bacteria are bad and humans won’t be able to eat food with bacteria in it anymore.

b)

It is harmful to humans because when we get sick from bacteria that are resistant to antibiotics we won’t have anything to help make us better.

c)

It is harmful to humans because bacteria are only killed with antibiotics and if we don’t have antibiotics humans will get sick and die.

d)

No antibiotic is effective because bacteria are usually resistant to any antibiotic that has been used before.

37.
If you go to a doctor and are prescribed antibiotics you probably have an illness cause by a 
a)
virus
b)
bacteria
c)
host cell
d)
macrophage
38.

Resistance is best defined as...

a)

An organism that is unaffected by a toxin / chemical

b)

A bug that is stronger than a chemical

c)

A bacteria that has the ability to digest an antibiotic

d)

An organism that does not undergo any type of natural selection

39.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following go with "active immunity?"

a)

It includes antibodies that come from someone else

b)

One example is the antibodies found in a mother's breast milk

c)

It includes the antibodies that your body makes after being exposed to an infectious bacteria / virus

d)

One example is when vaccines cause your body to make antibodies for a certain sickness

40.
What are practical uses for the ELISA test?
a)
pathogens
b)
Ebola
c)
AIDS
d)
All of the above
41.

What is a primary antibody?

a)

Patient's antibody and initial step in ELISA

b)

Antibody with bound enzyme

c)

The most important antibody

d)

a chicken antibody

42.

Why is there an enzyme attached to the secondary antibody?

a)

They link to the proteins used

b)

The catalyze reactions

c)

They provide a colormetirc indication of antigen exposure

d)

They are used to detect DNA

43.

Why did you need to wash the wells after every step?

a)

To remove unbound antibodies so there will be no false results

b)

To clean out the wells to see the color change

c)

Because it is fun

d)

To target bacteria that may stick to the plastic

44.
Why did you assay your samples in duplicates?
a)
To act as a control of the assay
b)
Reproducibility of results
c)
To test for pipetting errors
d)
All of the above
45.

When a positive + result occurs in an ELISA, then one could conclude that...

a)

a + good indication of the patient's health

b)

the antibody for the particular pathogen is present

c)

it is a false + and no illness

d)

an enzyme is present

46.
Why is a positive and negative control necessary in the setup of ELISA?
a)
positive controls are equal to negative controls 
b)
ELISA is subject to errors; if controls fail the results are untrustworthy
c)
ELISA is a well run test that typically does not need controls
d)
negative and positive controls are needed to exclude all results
47.
What does the symbol μL stand for?
a)
nanoliters
b)
milliters
c)
microliters
d)
muliters
48.
The basic 4 steps of the ELISA are:
bind antigen to well
add primary antibody (Ab) and wash
add secondary Ab/enzyme and wash
add substrate
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
49.

The colorimetric agent in the direct ELISA changes color from ________ to ___________.

a)

clear to blue

b)

clear to red

c)

blue to orange

d)

clear to green

50.
Antibodies not only protect us from infections, they can also be used in laboratories to determine whether or not a patient has or has had a disease.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
51.
This antibiotic inhibits the supercoiling of DNA in bacteria
a)
Beta-Lactam Antibiotics
b)
Floriquinones
c)
Sulfonamides
d)
Tetracyclines 
52.

Career that incorporates computer computational skills with biological data

a)

genetic counseling

b)

bioinformatics

c)

molecular biologist

d)

audiologist

53.
________ have surface _________ where _______ attach
a)
pathogens, antigens, antibodies
b)
antigens, antibodies, pathogens
c)
pathogens, antibodies, antigens
d)
antibodies, antigens, pathogens
54.

2.) PCR is used to

a)

cut DNA

b)

clone cells

c)

copy DNA sequences

d)

create recombinant DNA

55.

External ear consists of

a)

Pinna, auditory canal and ear drum

b)

Eustachian tube and oval window

c)

Vestibule, semicircular canals and cochlea

d)

Malleus, incus and stapes

56.

The ear functions for ___________.

a)

balance

b)

hearing

c)

both balance and hearing

57.

Where is the Cochlea located

a)

The Inner Ear

b)

The Middle Ear

c)

The Outer Ear

58.
When sound waves cause the eardrum to vibrate, these vibrations are immediately passed on to the_________.
a)
outer ear and ear canal
b)
inner ear
c)
tiny hairs
d)
three small bones in the middle ear
59.
Identify the order in which sound travels through the ear 
a)
hammer, stirrup, anvil, eardrum, ear canal
b)
ear canal, eardrum, hammer, stirrup, anvil 
c)
ear canal, eardrum, hammer, anvil, stirrup
d)
eardrum, ear canal, hammer, anvil, stirrup
60.
The malleus, incus, and stapes are collectively called the
a)
maculae
b)
otoliths
c)
semicircular canals
d)
ossicles
61.

The image shows bone conduction(]) and air conduction (X) for the left ear of a patient. The best analysis would be?

a)

Patient has mild to moderate sensorineural hearing loss.

b)

Patient has no hearing loss evident.

c)

Patient has mild to moderate conductive hearing loss.

d)

Hearing loss can not be determined in only one ear.

62.

This is a picture of:

a)

Audiograss

b)

Audiogran

c)

Audiogram

d)

Selfie

63.

a person who can advise patients about their hearing health and recommend any treatment that they might need

a)

a teacher

b)

an audiologist

64.

Provide the most appropriate analysis for the audiogram below.

a)

moderate to severe conductive hearing loss at mid to high frequency in both ears,

b)

mild to severe sensorineural hearing loss at most frequencies in both ears

c)

sensorineural hearing loss only at high frequencies in both ears

d)

conductive hearing loss at all frequencies in both ears

65.

Does this audiogram represent normal hearing or hearing loss?

a)

normal hearing

b)

mild hearing loss

c)

severe hearing loss

66.

How would you describe the hearing loss demonstrated in this audiogram?

a)

Moderate hearing loss in right ear at high frequencies

b)

Moderate hearing loss in right ear at low frequencies

c)

Moderate hearing loss in left ear at high frequencies

d)

Moderate hearing loss in left ear at low frequencies

67.

Which intervention would be most appropriate for someone w/ moderate hearing loss in both ears?

a)

cochlear implant

b)

hearing aid

c)

tubes

d)

labrinthyectomy

68.

How would you describe this patient's hearing loss based on the audiogram?

a)

severe hearing loss in the lower frequencies

b)

mild hearing loss in the higher frequencies

c)

mild hearing loss in low frequencies

d)

severe loss in high frequencies in the right ear

69.

Which audiogram matches mild-to-moderate hearing loss in both ears from otitis media?

a)

A

b)

B

70.

Provide the most appropriate analysis for the audiogram below.

a)

moderate to severe conductive hearing loss at mid to high frequency in both ears,

b)

mild to severe sensorineural hearing loss at most frequencies in both ears

c)

sensorineural hearing loss only at high frequencies in both ears

d)

conductive hearing loss at all frequencies in both ears

71.

This test is a useful tool for evaluating a person's ability to understand speech when there is significant background noise.

a)

speech-in-noise test

b)

Rinne test

c)

audiogram

d)

Can you hear me now test