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Worksheets

Higher Human Biology - Unit 1

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which two units make up the backbone of DNA

a)

Ribose sugar

b)

Deoxyribose sugar

c)

Phosphate

d)

Bases

2.

Which base pairing is correct?

a)

Adenine to Guanine

b)

Cytosine to Thymine

c)

Adenine to Thymine

d)

Guanine to Thymine

3.

What are primers?

a)

Single stranded random sequences of nucleotides

b)

Single stranded sequences of nucleotides which are complementary to a target sequence

c)

Double stranded random sequences of nucleotides

d)

Double stranded sequences of nucleotides which are complementary to a target sequence

4.

Which enzyme is used to join fragments on the lagging strand?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Catalase

5.

Why can both strands of DNA not be replicated continuously?

a)

DNA nucleotides can only be replicated in a 3'-5' direction

b)

DNA polymerase can only act on one strand at a time

c)

There is not enough space for both strands to be copied

d)

DNA nucleotides can only be replicated in a 5'-3' direction

6.

What type of reaction builds up larger molecules from smaller ones?

a)

Catabolic

b)

Inhibition

c)

Anabolic

7.

What type of inhibition occurs when an inhibitor molecule binds to the active site of the enzyme and stops the substrate from binding?

a)

Feedback inhibition

b)

Non-competitive inhibition

c)

Competitive inhibition

8.

What is the type of inhibition that occurs when an inhibitor binds to a different part of the enzyme and changes the active site shape?

a)

Feedback inhibition

b)

Non-competitive inhibition

c)

Competitive inhibition

9.

Which coloured line indicates the reaction rate of a competitive inhibitor?

a)

Purple

b)

Orange

c)

Green

10.

What type of RNA carries a copy of the genetic code from the nucleus to the ribosome for protein synthesis?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

11.

The process of editing a primary transcript to produce a mature RNA transcript is called?

a)

RNA dicing

b)

RNA primers

c)

RNA splicing

d)

RNA polymerase

12.

A mutation which involves part of a chromosomes attaching to another chromosome (not its partner) is called what?

a)

Translocation

b)

Duplication

c)

Deletion

d)

Inversion

13.

The insertion of an extra nucleotide into a DNA sequence results in what?

a)

Missense mutation

b)

Frameshift mutation with non functional protein

c)

Frameshift with functional protein

d)

Chromosome structure mutation

14.

What are examples of single gene mutation? Select all

a)

Duplication

b)

Insertion

c)

Deletion

d)

Substitution

15.

Where does the citric acid cycle take place in the cell?

a)

Inner membrane of the mitochondria

b)

Matrix of the mitochondria

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleus

16.

Where does the electron transport chain take place in the cell?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Inner membrane of the mitochondria

c)

Matrix of the mitochondria

d)

Nucleus

17.

Where does respiration take place in the absence of oxygen?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Inner membrane of the mitochondria

c)

Matrix of the mitochondria

d)

Nucleus

18.

In the final stage of the electron transport chain, what do hydrogen ions and electrons combine with to form water?

a)

CO2

b)

ATP synthase

c)

Oxygen

d)

NAD

19.

Select all the substances that are produced in the citric acid cycle.

a)

NADH

b)

Oxygen

c)

ATP

d)

CO2

20.

Acetyl CoA joins with ________ to form citrate.

a)

Dehydrogenase

b)

NAD

c)

Oxaloacetate

d)

ATP

21.

Muscle fibres which rely on mainly glycolysis are called...

a)

Slow twitch

b)

Fast twitch

22.

Which sport would be associated with fast twitch muscle fibres?

a)

Marathon running

b)

Sprinting

c)

Cross country skiing

d)

Walking

23.

Which muscle fibre uses fat as its energy store?

a)

Fast twitch

b)

Slow twitch

24.

Which substance is produced in order to regenerate NAD in absence of oxygen?

a)

Pyruvate

b)

Lactate

c)

NADH

d)

Dehydrogenase

25.

During glycolysis, dehydrogenase enzymes catalyse the

a)

removal of hydrogen ions and electrons from NADH

b)

removal of hydrogen ions and electrons from citrate

c)

transfer of hydrogen ions and electrons to glucose

d)

transfer of hydrogen ions and electrons to NAD

26.

Glycolysis takes place in the mitochondrion

a)

True

b)

False

27.

In proteins, amino acids are joined together by:

a)

polypeptide bonds

b)

weak hydrogen bonds

c)

peptide bonds

d)

sulphur bridges

28.

Mature RBCs have no nucleus and no mitochondria. Which of the following processes can be carried out by a mature RBC?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Cell division

c)

Protein synthesis

d)

Electron transport chain

29.

Which of the following substances must be present in a living cell for glycolysis to occur

a)

Glucose and ATP

b)

ATP and oxygen

c)

Glucose and oxygen

d)

ATP, Glucose and oxygen

30.

Which of the following substances must be present in a living cell for glycolysis to occur

a)

Glucose and ATP

b)

ATP and oxygen

c)

Glucose and oxygen

d)

ATP, Glucose and oxygen

31.

The mitochondrion has two membranes

a)

True

b)

False

32.

In respiration, the end products are

a)

hydrogen and carbon dioxide

b)

water and ATP

c)

oxygen and ATP

d)

pyruvate and water

33.

The energy in ATP is stored in which bond?

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

d)

4th

34.

Which of the following should stop a cell from dividing excessively?

a)

A hormone

b)

An enzyme

c)

Apoptosis

d)

A regulatory signal

35.

In RNA, uracil pairs with thymine

a)

True

b)

False

36.

New nucleotides can only be added to a strand of DNA

a)

to the deoxyribose sugar at the 3' end

b)

to the phosphate group at the 3' end

c)

to the deoxyribose sugar at the 5' end

d)

to the phosphate group at the 5' end

37.

Which of the following are required for DNA replication?


1. DNA polymerase

2. Ligase

3. Phosphase

4. RNA polymerase

5. ADP

6. DNA nucleotides

a)

1, 2, 3, 5 and 6

b)

All of them

c)

1, 2, 5 and 6

d)

1, 2 and 6

38.

The lagging strand of new DNA is formed by continuous replication

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Which organelle in an animal cell is the site of protein synthesis?

a)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b)

ribosome

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

40.

When a cell becomes differentiated, it produces ________ specific to its function by turning on and off genes.

a)

Stem cells

b)

Proteins

c)

Characteristics

d)

Genes

41.

This type of stem cell can differentiate into any type of cell.

a)

Pluripotent

b)

Multipotent

42.

Which type of stem cell would be described as multipotent?

a)

Tissue/adult stem cell

b)

Embryonic stem cell

43.

This type of stem cell can differentiate into many types of cells in the body.

a)

Pluripotent

b)

Multipotent

44.

Which type of stem cell would be found in a blastocyst?

a)

Pluripotent

b)

Multipotent

45.

Select all places where tissue/adult stem cells could be found.

a)

Blastocyst

b)

Bone marrow

c)

Embryo

d)

Skin

46.

Select all of the potential therapeutic uses of stem cells below.

a)

Cornea repair

b)

Skin grafts

c)

Study how diseases develop

d)

Drug testing

47.

Select the correct statement.

a)

Embryonic stem cells and tissue stem cells can become any type of cell.

b)

Embryonic stem cells can become any type of cell while tissue stem cells give rise to more limited range of cell types.

c)

Tissue stem cells can become any type of cell while embryonic stem cells give rise to more limited range of cell types.

d)

Embryonic stem cells and tissue stem cells give rise to a limited range of cell types.

48.

Self renewal means that stem cells produce more ________ stem cells.

a)

Specialised

b)

Unspecialised

49.

Which is a use of stem cells in research?

a)

Repair of damaged organs

b)

Regeneration of skin

c)

Drug testing

50.

Select all of the potential therapeutic uses of stem cells below.

a)

Cornea repair

b)

Skin grafts

c)

Degenerative diseases

d)

Cancer treatment

51.

Where would tissue/adult stem cells be found?

a)

Blastocyst

b)

Bone marrow

c)

Embryo

52.

What kind of cell leads to formation of gametes?

a)

Germline

b)

Somatic

c)

Embryonic

53.

Germline cells can divide by

a)

Mitosis only

b)

Meiosis only

c)

Mitosis and meiosis

54.

What is the name for the basic units which make up strands of DNA?

a)

Phosphates

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Sugars

d)

RNA

55.

The two strands of DNA are held together by which kind of bonds?

a)

Peptide bonds

b)

Strong bonds

c)

Hydrogen bonds

56.

What are DNA nucleotides made up of?

a)

A deoxyribose sugar, phosphate and a base

b)

A ribose sugar, phosphate and base

c)

A deoxyribose sugar, phosphate and ATP

57.

Which of these enzymes are not needed for DNA replication?

a)

Ligase

b)

Amylase

c)

DNA polymerase

58.

In DNA replication, the fragments of DNA which have been replicated discontinuously are joined together using what?

a)

Ligase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Amylase

59.

What are primers?

a)

Single stranded random sequences of nucleotides

b)

Single stranded sequences of nucleotides which are complementary to a target sequence

c)

Double stranded sequences of nucleotides which are complementary to a target sequence

60.

How would we describe the direction of leading and lagging strand?

a)

Parallel

b)

Anti-parallel

61.

Replication occurs _______ on the leading strand.

a)

Continuously

b)

Discontinuously

62.

Which enzyme controls the sugar-phosphate bonding of the nucleotides into the DNA strand?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Ligase

c)

Amylase

d)

Phosphate

63.

What is the difference between the 3' and 5' end?

a)

3' end contains a base, 5' end contains a phosphate

b)

5' end contains a phosphate, 3' end contains a deoxyribose sugar

c)

3' end contains a phosphate, 5' end contains a sugar

d)

3' end contains a phosphate, 5' end contains a base

64.

What is stage X called?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

RNA splicing

65.

What is stage Y called?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

RNA splicing

66.

What is stage Z called?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

RNA splicing

67.

A primary transcript is a strand of

a)

RNA comprising just exons

b)

DNA comprising just exons

c)

RNA comprising introns and exons

d)

DNA comprising introns and exons

68.

Which of the following occurs during RNA splicing?

a)

Introns are added

b)

Exons are added

c)

Exons are removed

d)

Introns are removed

69.

What is W?

a)

Polypeptide

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

70.

What is X?

a)

Polypeptide

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

71.

What is Y?

a)

Polypeptide

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

72.

Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription?

a)

AUGCUU

b)

ATGCTT

c)

GCATCC

d)

GCAUCC

73.

A triplet of mRNA is called a

a)

Codon

b)

Anticodon

c)

Amino acid

d)

Peptide bond

74.

What do ribosomes consist of?

a)

Protein only

b)

rRNA and protein

c)

mRNA and protein

d)

tRNA and protein

75.

What do we call the string of amino acids created at the end of translation?

a)

Protein

b)

Anticodon

c)

Polymerase

d)

Polypeptide