wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

AM Final Review 25-26

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The largest WAN is the internet.
a)
True
b)
False
2.
A computer network require both hardware and software.
a)
True
b)
False
3.
Even large networks have only one server.
a)
True
b)
False
4.
An extranet is designed for the exclusive use within an organization.
a)
True
b)
False
5.
A gateway connects networks using different communications.
a)
True
b)
False
6.

Networks are usually classified using three different properties

a)

Topologies

b)

Protocol

c)

Architecture

d)

All of these

7.

The word MODEM stands for

(a)  

8.

Full Form of FTP

a)

File Transfer Protocol

b)

File Transport Protocol

c)

File Tender Protocol

d)

None of these

9.

Different Network Methods are

a)

LAN

b)

MAN

c)

WAN

d)

Wireless LAN's and WAN's

e)

All of these

10.

The term Bandwidth refers to

a)

The Method you use to connect to internet

b)

The amount of data that can be downloaded via radio waves

c)

The number of minutes you use while online

d)

The maximum amount of data that can be transferred at any time via an internet connection

11.

A Computer Network is a system of

a)

A whole lot of individual machines working on their own

b)

Data transfer and information storage

c)

Sharing devices like scanners

d)

Two or more computing devices connected to one another

12.

Hardware needed to connect to a computer to the internet is

a)

Internet Explorer

b)

CAT 5 cabling

c)

NIC

d)

Servers

e)

WAT

13.

Which one of the following is a typical example of a web address

a)

c:/computers.za

b)

http:telko@info.uk

c)

http://www.eaglewood.co.za

d)

alex@intellect.co.za

14.

Communication medium transfers data and information between computing devices in a network.communication media include:

a)

Routers

b)

UTP

c)

Fibre optic

d)

Coaxial cable

e)

Wifi

15.

Which of the following statements describes characteristics of the IP protocol?

a)

Operates without a dedicated end-to-end connection and uses best effort in delivering packets.

b)

Detects and retransmits packets if errors occur.

c)

Re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end.

d)

Guarantees delivery of packets to the destination network.

16.

Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?

a)

destination MAC address

b)

destination IP address

c)

destination port number

d)

source MAC address

17.

What layer of the TCP/IP protocol model determines the best path through the network?

a)

application

b)

transport

c)

internet

d)

network access

18.

What is the purpose of the default gateway address configured on a host?

a)

To allow traffic that is destined for another network to be forwarded to the router for network determination and delivery.

b)

To forward traffic within the same network.

c)

To broadcast messages out to other hosts on the same network.

d)

To connect to the DHCP server.

19.

Which message delivery type is used when all devices need to receive the same message?

a)

static

b)

unicast

c)

multicast

d)

broadcast

20.

What is the term that is used to describe the particular type of information provided at each layer of a networking model?

a)

frame

b)

packet

c)

protocol data unit (PDU)

d)

segment

21.

What type of message is sent to a specific group of hosts?

a)

unicast

b)

multicast

c)

broadcast

d)

static

22.

Which layer of the OSI and TCP/IP models defines services to segment and reassemble data for individual communications between end devices?

a)

application

b)

network

c)

transport

d)

Data Link

23.

Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium by the NIC of a host?

a)

File

b)

Packet

c)

Frame

d)

Segment

24.

Which model is used to describe how data communication occurs between hosts?

a)

Server-centric model

b)

Workgroup model

c)

Peer-to-peer model

d)

OSI reference model

25.

Which type of devices transmit data across a network or to other networks?

a)

Peer to peer networks

b)

Client servers

c)

End devices

d)

Intermediary devices

26.

Which of the following statements accurately describes a client/server network?

a)

Files are store on a server and security is centrally managed.

b)

Files are stored on each client and shared to other clients.

c)

Less scalable than a peer to peer network.

d)

Lower cost than a peer to peer network.

27.

To which group of network components Ethernet, fiber, and wireless belong?

a)

Devices

b)

Services

c)

Media

d)

Interfaces

28.

What is the name that Cisco gives for the creation of global communities of social, commercial, political, and personal interactions over the Internet?

a)

Social networking

b)

The human network

c)

Limitless networks

d)

Supernetting

29.

Which type of network topology identifies all of the networks belonging to an organization?

a)

System topology

b)

Virtual topology

c)

Physical topology

d)

Logical topology

30.

Which type of network infrastructure provides transfers data to users and end devices within a small geographical area such as a college campus?

a)

Wide Area Network (WAN)

b)

Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

c)

Local Area Network (LAN)

d)

Storage Area Network (SAN)

31.

Which type of network provides a private connection for employees into LANs and WANs that belongs to an organization?

a)

Extranet

b)

Intranet

c)

Borderless network

d)

Border network

32.

Which type of device determines the route that messages should take to deliver to different networks?

a)

Switch

b)

Firewall

c)

Router

d)

Hub

33.

What is the term that defines the speed of a network by measuring how many bits per second of the data the network can deliver?

a)

Lag Time

b)

Delivery Speed

c)

Congestion

d)

Bandwidth

34.

Which of the following network security requirements is used to protect data from being accessed and read by unauthorized users?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Availability

c)

Integrity

d)

Redundency

35.

Which term describes the state of a network when the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity?

a)

Optimization

b)

Congestion

c)

Synchronization

d)

Convergence

36.

Which internet connection type provides always-on, high-bandwidth connectivity?

a)

Dial-Up

b)

Cellular

c)

Satellite

d)

DSL

37.

What network feature would allow an employee to gain secure remote access to a company network?

a)

VPN

b)

BYOD

c)

ACL

d)

IPS

38.

Which method of reliable network construction ensures that as more users and applications increase on a network that performance is not compromised?

a)

Fault Tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

Security

d)

Quality of Service (QoS)

39.

Which of the following is a benefit of cloud computing?

a)

Investment in new infrastructure is required in order to access the cloud.

b)

Applications can be accessed over the Internet by individual users or businesses using any device, anywhere in the world.

c)

A business can connect directly to the Internet without the use of an ISP.

d)

Devices can connect to the Internet through existing electrical wiring.

40.

Which method of reliable network construction is used to assign priority of audio and video communications to allow uninterrupted service over a network?

a)

Fault Tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

Quality of Service (QoS)

d)

Security

41.

What is the specialized security software or hardware that protects a network from unauthorized access?

a)

Router

b)

Switch

c)

IPS

d)

Firewall

42.

What is the term for computer programs that attack your computer?

a)

Malware

b)

DangerDroids

c)

RudeBots

d)

Dangerware

43.

Who should know your passwords?

a)

Only you!

b)

Your best friends

c)

Anyone

44.

What is Phishing?

a)

Fishing while talking on the phone.

b)

Fake emails or websites that look like real emails and websites and try to steal your data.

45.

Which of these indicates a website is secure?

a)

You found the website on Google or clicked it from a link in an email.

b)

A little lock icon next to the website address.

c)

The website shows a company name and logo and looks real.

46.

You need to connect a network adapter to a switch. You need the connection to be able to send and receive data at the same time. What type of connection should you use?

a)

Half duplex

b)

Gigabit

c)

Full duplex

d)

Simplex

47.

What type of device sets up different collision domains for each device connected to it, allowing the networked devices to run in Full Duplex without collisions?

a)

Switch

b)

Router

c)

Repeater

d)

Hub

48.

You need to find the MAC address of the network adapter for the computer you are currently working on. What command line command will give you the information you need?

a)

ipconfig

b)

grep

c)

ipconfig/all

d)

arp

49.

You need to set up 750 computers on the same network. Which IP class is the best option?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

50.

You need to subnet a 192.168.10.0 network using a class C network. What will be the subnet mask?

a)

255.0.0.0

b)

255.255.0.0

c)

255.255.255.0

d)

255.255.255.255

51.

Which of the following security threats includes suspicious activity, such as reviewing someone’s screen display without permission?

a)

Malware

b)

Shoulder surfing

c)

Phishing

d)

Password cracking

52.
Which of the following connections provide data with the MOST secure protection from interception?
a)
Wired
b)
WiFi
c)
IR
d)
Cellular
53.

151: Two companies want to share data by using the Internet. Which type of network provides the solution?

a)

Ethernet

b)

Intranet

c)

Extranet

d)

Perimeter

54.

154: A Media Access Control (MAC) address identifies a/an:

a)

UPnP device.

b)

Local broadcast domain.

c)

Network interface card (NIC).

d)

Local area network (LAN).

55.

Actual speed of a network is limited by 3 factors: ___________ at which the devices on the end of the cable try to send data.

a)

cabling, wave length, and the speed

b)

cabling, cable length, and the transmission

c)

cabling, cable length, and the speed

56.

____________ is how many bits are actually transferred between two computers in a given time.

a)

Bandwidth

b)

Thoroughput

c)

Throughput

d)

Banwidth

57.

_____________ rate may vary over time due to network conditions; _______________ does not vary over time.

a)

Thoroughput, Bandwith

b)

Throughput, Bandwidth

c)

Throughput, Banwidth

d)

Throughput, Bandwith

58.

What is the function of the kernel of an operating system?

a)

The kernel provisions hardware resources to meet software requirements.

b)

The kernel is an application that allows the initial configuration of a Cisco device.

c)

The kernel provides a user interface that allows users to request a specific task.

d)

The kernel links the hardware drivers with the underlying electronics of a computer.

59.

Which connection method is used to access a Cisco 2960 switch when performing an initial configuration?

a)

Use the console port to locally access the switch from the serial or USB interface of the PC.

b)

Use the AUX port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC.

c)

Use Telnet to remotely access the switch through the network..

d)

Use Secure Shell to remotely access the switch through the network.

60.

Which connection method to an intermediary device sends the commands in plain text?

a)

Telnet

b)

Console

c)

SSH

d)

AUX

61.

Which intermediary device connection method encrypts the user ID, password, and session information?

a)

Telnet

b)

AUX

c)

SSH

d)

Console

62.

Which of the following host name is valid on Cisco IOS devices?

a)

Floor(15)

b)

HO Floor 17

c)

RM-3-Switch-2A4

d)

Branch2!

63.

What is the purpose of configuring a Message of the Day (MOTD) in an intermediary device?

a)

To configure a device so that only the users in the Admin group can telnet to it.

b)

To configure a device so that the message will display when a user enters the enable command.

c)

To force users of the Admin group to enter a password for authentication.

d)

To display a message when a user accesses the switch.

64.

Which of the following applications is used to configure an intermediary device when connecting with a console cable?

a)

Telnet Emulation Software

b)

SSH Configuration Software

c)

Remote Configuration Software

d)

Terminal Emulation Software

65.

Which of the following command(s) restricts the user exec access to a Cisco IOS device through a console cable?

a)

Line vty 0 15


password Letmein


login

b)

Line con 0


password Letmein


login

c)

Enable secret password Letmein

d)

Enable private-password Letmein

66.

Which command prevents someone from viewing passwords configured for remote connections within the running configuration?

a)

line con 0

password cisco

login

b)

line vty 0 15

password cisco

login

c)

service password-encryption

d)

enable secret cisco

67.

How many binary bits exist within an IPv6 address?

a)

32

b)

64

c)

128

d)

256

68.

Which destination IPv4 address does a DHCPv4 client use to send the initial DHCP Discover packet when the client is looking for a DHCP server?

a)

127.0.0.1

b)

224.0.0.1

c)

255.255.255.255

d)

the IP address of the default gateway

69.

How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?

a)

252

b)

254

c)

255

d)

256

70.

What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk?

a)

Twisting the wires together into pairs.

b)

Terminating the cable with special grounded connectors.

c)

Encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath.

d)

Wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs.

71.

Which statement describes crosstalk?

a)

The distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting.

b)

The distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires.

c)

The loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point.

d)

The weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths.

72.

Which statement describes throughput?

a)

The measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time.

b)

The measure of the usable data transferred across the media.

c)

The theoretical capacity of a particular medium to carry data.

d)

The total amount of time it takes to get from one device to another.

73.

Which statement describes attenuation?

a)

The loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point.

b)

The distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting.

c)

The weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths.

d)

The distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires.

74.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 receives a packet destined for the IP address 192.168.2.10. Out which interface will R1 forward the packet?

a)

FastEthernet0/0

b)

FastEthernet0/1

c)

Serial0/0/0

d)

Serial0/0/1

75.

Refer to the exhibit.Which route from the PC1 routing table will be used to reach PC2?

a)

Network destination 0.0.0.0

b)

Network destination 127.0.0.1

c)

Network destination 192.168.10.0

d)

Network destination 192.168.10.10

76.

What type of access control is used for Wireless?

a)

CMSA/Collision Avoidance

b)

CMSA/Collision Detection

c)

CMSA/Media Control

d)

CMSA/Media Access

77.

What is the default subent mask for the Class C network?

a)

255.255.254.0

b)

255.255.252.0

c)

255.255.255.128

d)

255.255.255.0

78.

What are the network address and the broadcast address for a host with the IP Address below?


175. 104. 225. 135 / 27

a)

Network Address: 175.104.225.128

b)

Network Address: 175.104.225.0

c)

Broadcast Address: 175.104.225.159

d)

Broadcast Address: 175.104.225.255

79.

Based on the topology given, how many subnets are needed?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

6

d)

5

80.

Clase A

a)

1 - 126

b)

128 - 191

c)

192 - 223

d)

224 - 239

e)

240 - 254

81.

Clase B

a)

1 - 126

b)

128 - 191

c)

192 - 223

d)

224 - 239

e)

240 - 254

82.

Clase C

a)

1 - 126

b)

128 - 191

c)

192 - 223

d)

224 - 239

e)

240 - 254

83.

Why would a technician enter the command copy startup-config running-config?

a)

To remove all configurations from the switch

b)

to make a changed configuration the startup configuration

c)

to copy the existing configuration into RAM

d)

to save an active configuration into NVRAM

84.

Which is the command to configure a banner to be displayed when connecting to a switch?

a)

banner $ Keep out $

b)

banner motd $ Keep out $

c)

display $ Keep out $

d)

login banner $ Keep out $

85.
A switch was configured as shown. A ping to the default gateway was issued, but the ping was not successful. Other switches in the same network can ping this gateway. What is a possible reason for this?
a)
The ip default-gateway command has to be issued in the VLAN interface configuration mode.
b)
The VLAN IP address and the default gateway IP address are not in the same network.
c)
The no shutdown command was not issued for VLAN 1.
d)
The local DNS server is not functioning correctly.
86.
A router has a valid operating system and a configuration stored in NVRAM. When the router boots up, which mode will display?
a)
global configuration mode
b)
user EXEC mode
c)
setup mode
d)
ROM monitor mode
87.

To a session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

a)

Telnet

b)

Console

c)

SSH

d)

AUX

88.

Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the command hierarchy?

a)

end

b)

exit

c)

Ctrl-Z

d)

Ctrl-C

89.

Which information does the show startup-config command display?​

a)

the IOS image copied into RAM

b)

the bootstrap program in the ROM

c)

the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM

d)

the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM

90.

How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?

a)

It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.

b)

It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.

c)

It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch.

d)

It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.

91.

What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a PC?

a)

if the TCP/IP stack is functioning on the PC without putting traffic on the wire

b)

if there is connectivity with the destination device

c)

the path that traffic will take to reach the destination

d)

what type of device is at the destination

92.

Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?

a)

Virtual terminal

b)

console line

c)

privileged EXEC

d)

AUX port

93.

Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)

a)

All router commands are available

b)

Global configuration mode can accessed by entering the enable command

c)

the device prompt for this mode ends with the ">" symbol

d)

interfaces and routing protocols can be configured

e)

Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed

94.

When a hostname is configured through the Cisco CLI, which three naming conventions are part of the guidelines? (Choose three.)

a)

The hostname should be written in all lower case characters

b)

The hostname should contain no spaces

c)

the hostname should begin with a letter

d)

the hostname should be fewer than 64 characters in length

e)

the hostname should end with a special character

95.

How is the privileged EXEC mode access secured on a switch?

a)

enable class

b)

secret class

c)

enable secret class

d)

service password-encryption

96.

What is stored in the NVRAM of a Cisco router?

a)

the Cisco IOS

b)

the running configuration

c)

the bootup instructions

d)

the startup configuration

97.
Each side of a router is
a)
a different network
b)
the same network
c)
in the same IP subnet range
d)
connected to a single end device
98.

stands for name server lookup command, is a network utility command used to obtain information about internet servers.

a)

ipv4

b)

ipconfig

c)

nslookup

d)

ipv6

99.

is a Command Prompt which is used to get the network packet being sent and received and the number of hops required for that packet to reach to target.

a)

ping

b)

ipconfig

c)

tracert

d)

nslookup

100.

is a program that emulates the input field in a text-based user interface screen with the Windows graphical user interface (GUI).

a)

IPCONFIG

b)

ping

c)

command prompt

d)

DOS

101.

All computers that are connected to a network and participate directly in network communication are classified as...Pick 2

a)

Hosts

b)

Clients

c)

Servers

d)

Routers

102.

This number identifies the host within a particular network.

a)

MAC Address

b)

Local Address

c)

IP Address

d)

Subnet Mask

103.

An example of client software

a)

Email

b)

Browser

c)

File

d)

All of the Above

104.

Client and server software usually run on separate computers, but it is also possible for one computer to be used for both roles at the same time. What is this relationship called...

a)

Pair to Pair

b)

Pear to Pear

c)

PC to PC

d)

Peer to Peer

105.

What type of network is used in the diagram?

a)

LAN

b)

client/server

c)

peer to peer

d)

PAN

106.
Wired networks are faster than wireless.
a)
True
b)
False
107.

Identify the image shown

a)

Router

b)

Hub

c)

Switch

108.

192.168.10.3 is an example of..

a)

Subnet mask

b)

IP address

c)

Gateway

109.
Which one is an intermediary device?
a)
Bus
b)
Switch
c)
Desktop Computer
d)
Ethernet Cable
110.

Modern networks primarily use three types...What type uses Electrical pulses...

a)

Copper

b)

Fiber

c)

Wireless

111.
Mbps is known as...
a)
Megabits per second
b)
Megabytes per second
c)
Gigabits per second
112.

a small hardware device that joins multiple computers together within one local area network (LAN).

a)

Network Switch

b)

Network Hub

c)

Router

113.

What does DNS mean?

a)

Dinosaur!

b)

Domain Name System

c)

Domain Not Safe

d)

Driver Not Secured

114.

Which type of address are exposed to the Internet?

a)

Public

b)

Private

115.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

a)

letmein

b)

secretin

c)

lineconin

d)

linevtyin

116.

a networking device whose software and hardware are usually tailored to the tasks of routing and forwarding information.

a)

Router

b)

Modem

c)

Hub

d)

Spaceship

117.

What does HTTPS stand for?

a)

Hyper Transfer Text Protocol Secure

b)

Hippo Tick Tests Perfectly Synchronized

c)

Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure

d)

Hyper Text Transfer Prototype Secure

118.

The data link layer takes the packets from _________ and encapsulates them into frames for transmission.

a)

network layer

b)

physical layer

c)

transport layer

d)

application layer

119.

Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data link functions that depend upon the type of medium?

a)

logical link control sublayer

b)

media access control (MAC) sublayer

c)

network interface control sublayer

d)

error control sublayer

120.

In CSMA/CD, it deals with

a)

detection of collision after collision has occurred,

b)

preventing collision

121.
What is the PDU for layer 2 in the OSI model?
a)
Packet
b)
Frame
c)
Bits
d)
Data
e)
Segment
122.

Which of the following devices resides at the data link layer of the OSI model?

a)

Router

b)

Passive hub

c)

Ethernet switch

d)

Repeater

123.

OSI stands for __________

a)

a) operating system interface

b)

b) open system interconnection

c)

c) optical service implementation

d)

d) open service Internet

124.

A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

a)

physical layer

b)

presentation layer

c)

data link layer

d)

network layer

125.

Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?

a)

the two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading

b)

they prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection

c)

the allow for full-duplex connectivity

d)

they increase the speed at which the data can travel

126.

What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?

a)

it is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling

b)

it is able to be installed around sharp bends

c)

it is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling

d)

it is usually cheaper than copper cabling

127.

Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?

a)

rollover

b)

console

c)

crossover

d)

strait-through

128.

What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?

a)

preforming error detection on received frames

b)

transmitting bits across the local media

c)

controlling access to the media

d)

exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media

129.

What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?

a)

Controlling access to media.

b)

Transmitting bits across the local media.

c)

Exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media.

d)

Performing error detection on received frames.

130.

Which statement correctly describes network latency?

a)

The measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time.

b)

The measure of the usable data transferred across the media.

c)

The capacity of a particular medium to carry data.

d)

The total amount of time it takes to get from one device to another.

131.

Which of the following is the widely used medium for networking due to relatively low cost, ease of use, and fast networking speeds?

a)

Unshielded Twisted-Pair (UTP)

b)

Fiber-optic

c)

Coaxial Cable

d)

Wireless

132.
A network consists of five computers, all running Windows 10 Professional. All the computers are connected to a switch, which is connected to a router, which is connected to the Internet. Which networking model does the network use?
a)
Star-bus
b)
Ring
c)
Hybrid
d)
Peer-to-Peer
133.

The word MODEM stands for

(a)  

134.
Which type of network wiring is the most commonly used?
a)
STP cable
b)
coax cable
c)
UTP cable
d)
single mode fiber optic cable
135.
What is the correct wiring scheme for a 568B?
a)
O, O/W, G. B/W, B, B/W, Br, Br/W
b)
Br, Br/W, G, B/W, B, G/W, O, O/W
c)
O/W, O, G/W, B, B/W, G, Br/W, Br
d)
 G/W, G, O/W, B, B/W, O, Br/W, Br
136.
What are the two general types of fiber optic cable found in current networking environments?
a)
Red and Green
b)
Singlemode and Multimode
c)
High-frequency and Low-frequency
d)
Narrowband and Wideband
137.
This term refers to a port setting which allows an interface to send and receive data at the same time.
a)
Half Duplex
b)
Full Duplex
c)
Full Monty
d)
Full Override
138.

Data is transmitted on copper cables as _________________.

a)

electrical pulses

b)

microwaves

c)

patterns of light

d)

sound waves

139.

Category 5 UTP cable supports data transmission rates of up to _________.

a)

10 Mbps

b)

100 Mbps

c)

1 Gbps

d)

10 Gbps

140.

The figure illustrates an RJ-45 UTP __________.

a)

plug

b)

socket

c)

mediator

d)

compositor

141.

What is the correct order of the odd-numbered pinouts for the T568A standard?

a)
b)
c)
d)
142.

What is the correct order of the odd-numbered pinouts for the T568B standard?

a)
b)
c)
d)
143.

Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)

a)

All router commands are available

b)

Global configuration mode can accessed by entering the enable command

c)

the device prompt for this mode ends with the ">" symbol

d)

interfaces and routing protocols can be configured

e)

Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed

144.

Which is the command to configure a banner to be displayed when connecting to a switch?

a)

banner $ Keep out $

b)

banner motd $ Keep out $

c)

display $ Keep out $

d)

login banner $ Keep out $

145.
The netmask (e.g. /24) represents
a)
the number of IP addresses in a subnet
b)
the number of MAC addresses on a PC
c)
an end device’s IP address
d)
the IP address of the gateway
146.

What command is issued to configure an encrypted password to access privileged mode?

a)

enable password encrypt [password]

b)

service password-encrypt

c)

service encrypt password [password]

d)

enable secret [password]

147.
Each side of a router is
a)
a different network
b)
the same network
c)
in the same IP subnet range
d)
connected to a single end device
148.

To what subnet does the IP address 10.1.100.50 belong if a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 is used?

a)

10.1.100.0

b)

10.1.100.32

c)

10.0.0.0

d)

10.1.0.0

149.

When a hostname is configured through the Cisco CLI, which three naming conventions are part of the guidelines? (Choose three.)

a)

The hostname should be written in all lower case characters

b)

The hostname should contain no spaces

c)

the hostname should begin with a letter

d)

the hostname should be fewer than 64 characters in length

e)

the hostname should end with a special character

150.

An administrator is configuring a new router to permit out-of-band management access. Which set of commands will allow the required login using a password of cisco?

a)

Router(config)# line console 0

Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config-line)# exit

Router(config)# service password-encryption

b)

Router(config)# line vty 0 4

Router(config-line)# password manage

Router(config-line)# exit

Router(config)# enable password cisco

c)

Router(config)# line console 0

Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config-line)# login

d)

Router(config)# line vty 0 4

Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config-line)# login

Similar Resources on Wayground

Revision

146 questions

Revision

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

IBA Review Questions

150 questions

IBA Review Questions

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 12th Grade

Tin CK1

145 questions

Tin CK1

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade

JPL Test 1

155 questions

JPL Test 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Ôn tập Excel Hàm

150 questions

Ôn tập Excel Hàm

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Page 1

150 questions

Page 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade

Soal Desain Kemasan

150 questions

Soal Desain Kemasan

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade