An instrument printout reveals an RDW of 21. Which of the following would best correlate with those results

An increased red cell distribution width (RDW) usually indicates what abnormality

Platelet estimates are usually performed on a blood smear using which microscopic magnification

At what magnification would a MLT observe for cold agglutinin and rouleaux

Anisocytosis is defined as ____; Poikilocytosis is defined as:

Acanthocytes or spur cells have membranes with irregular distribution of spikes. What other significant features does this cell possess

Codocytes are associated with all of the following conditions except:

Howell-Jolly bodies are red cell inclusions associated with what disease state?

How does the mean cell volume value classify cells

What cell shape is most commonly associated with an increased MCHC

What staining method cal be used to differentiate Pappenhemier bodies from reticulocytes

What is the anticoagulant most commonly utilized tube in hematology, and how does it prevent coagulation from taking place?

A CBC is performed on a polycythemic patient. What must the MLT do to ensure that this specimen has an optimal blood smear?

A laboratory professional is reviewing differentials and notices that the last few smears appear blue. What can be done to correct this?

The ESR determination is based on

A laboratory professional observes numerous smudge cells on a Wright-stained blood smear and experience difficulty performing the 100-cell differential. Wha should be done to obtain an accurate differential

Using the 10X objective to examine a peripheral blood smear, 150 WBCs were counted from 10 fields. What is the WBC estimate?

Generally as cells mature

An instrument printout shows a normal WBC count with a neutrophil count of 30%. What can be concluded from this?

What characteristic that is present in promyelocytes morphologically differentiates a promyelocyte from a myeloblast

what is the earliest identifiable cell in the granulocyte maturation sequence

The hallmark for differentiating myelocyte from promyelocyte morphologically is the visual identification of

A segmented neutrophil performs all of the following except

A patient has 20% eosinophils. Which of the following can probably be eliminated

an immediate precursor of the macrophage is the

All of the following are included in the kill mechanism of a neutrophil except

Which of the following is associated with an increased leukocyte concentration

A cell having a round nucleus with delicate chromatin, prominent nucleoli, and scant basophilic cytoplasm without or a possible rare azurophilic granule is an accurate description of a

Which of the following is a feature of a normal segmented neutrophil

Auer rods are most likely to be present in which of the following

The primary granules of the promyelocytes contian

A cell with a 20 um size, round nucleus with fine chromatin and several nucleoli, deep blue cytoplasm with large bluish-purplish granules describe with stage of neutrophil maturation

Which of the following cells in the peripheral blood is described as large cell with abundant cytoplasm containing minute granules, lacy chromatin, and an indented or curved nucleus

A 45 year old male visited his physical for a routine check up. his absolute neutrophil count was 8.5 x 10^9/L. Which of the following terms describes these results

Which of the following characteristics is associated with the neutrophilia that accompanies bacterial infection

A patient has a fever and a WBC of 25 x 10^9/L with bands and metamyelocytes present. Which of the following conditions describes these results

A patient presents with neutrophilia of 40 x10^0/L with many circulating immature cells. The blood contains may bands, metas, myelocytes, promyelocytes, and a rare blast. What disease state is likely with these results?

Which of the following is most likely able to distinguish a leukemia reaction from CML

A healthy individual has his blood drawn as part of a routine physical. The lab technician performing the differential notes a neutrophil with a nucleus that appears dumbbell shaped. After scanning the entire slide, it appears that the vast majority of neutrophils have the same nuclei. All other leukocytes appear normal. That conclusion from this is that the patient has:

Which of the following can result in basophilia

A disorder characteristic by a defect in glucocerebrosidase that results in a macrophage with cytoplasm appearing wrinkled and striated is

How does immediate neutrophilia differ from acute neutrophilia

which of the following anomalies is morphologically similar to toxic granulation and is often seen in patients who have poor mucopolysaccharide degradation

Interpret the following results: WBC count 1.4 x 10^9/L; bone marrow shows myeloid hypoplasia with a decreased M:E ratio of 1:1. There is no history of medication or drug exposure. What can be concluded?

In the identification of Pelger-Huët cells, what nuclear characteristic other than dumbbell shape aids in differentiating these from band cells

What disease state correlates highly with the presence of cytoplasmic vacuoles in freshly drawn blood

A neutrophil contains may giant gray-green peroxidase positive bodies and giant lysosomes. Which is associated

Which of the following diseases is characterized by a defect in sphingomyelinase, which results in macrophages with a foamy appearance

A peripheral blood smear exam shows many WBCs with many blue-staining round inclusions. Thrombocytopenia with giant platelets is present. What autosomal dominant disease is associated with these findings?

Which of the following is characteristic of T lymphocytes

An instrument printout show a normal WBC count on an adult with a lymphocyte count of 30%. What can be concluded from this

Which two CD markers are used to differentiate helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells

A 6 year old has a WBC count of 7 x 10^9/L with 48% lymphocytes. Which of the following best describes this phenomenon

All of the following are expected of findings of AIDS except

A negative heterophiles antibody test in a patient with symptoms of infectious mononucleosis count be caused by what factor if the patient is being treated for cancer

Which of the following disorders is associated with lymphocytosis

Which of the following is characteristic of cellular changes as megakaryoblasts mature into megakarycyte within the bone marrow

Which of the following describes how platelet clumping artificially alters platelet parameters

What is the first step in platelet function after an injury

Congenital immunodeficiencies can be caused by defects of T or B lymphocytes, or both

Which is the last nucleated stage of erythrocytic maturation

Hemoglobin beings to appear in which of the following erythrocyte stages

The higher the N:C ratio is, the more mature the cell

For each pronormaoblast precursor cell, ___ mature RBCs are produced

The enucleate mature RBC has no ability to produce proteins

What is the red cell protein the is responsible for deformability and flexibility fo the red cell

For a RBC to live its full 120-day life span what condition is necessary

Which of the following electrolytes maintains its highest concentration within the RBC cytoplasm as opposed to circulating in the plasma

Increased plasma cholesterol may lead to

Reversible sickled cells are described as having which of the following shapes

When iron is present in an oxidized state as Fe+3 or ferric iron, the resulting hemoglobin is known as

Abnormal hemoglobins have a lower affinity for oxygen

90% of in vivo hemolysis is intravascular

Which of the following is a definitive sign of intravascular lysis

Which organ(s) is(are) the most affected during extravascular lysis

Which is true about iron absorption

where is the largest percentage of iron in the body located

An elevated reticulocyte count rules out which of the following

an analyzer report has a platelet count of 850 x10^9/L. This would be interpreted as

A patient's peripheral blood smear reveals many giant platelets. All platelet function tests show normal aggregation with the exception of ristocetin. From what is the patient most likely suffering from?

Acquired inhibitor of a single factor can be acquired after treatment of factor deficiency

Interpret: PT 11.8 sec (11.2-13.8); INR 1.07; APTT 57 sec (23-32); BT 15 min. (increased); Ristocetin: decreased aggregation. What is the patient most likely suffering from?

Primary fibrinolysis is a disorder closely related to DIC. All of the coagulation profile assays are the same as that for DIC with the exceptionof

Which assay would be useful in identifying the presence of primary fibrinolysis

Early fragments

The best way to monitor oral anticoagulant therapy is

Proper specimen collection for coagulation testing must be performed to eliminate contamination of substances that will interfere with the test results. Which of the following are considered contaminants for coagulation testing?

Thrombin time is prolonged with a patient who has

A patient's laboratory coagulation test results in an immediate correction of the PT and APTT after mixing studies and no correction after performing the PT and APTT after a 2-hour incubation at 37C. What is the possible inhibitor or deficiency?

Interpret the following results. PT= 32 sec. APTT = 92 sec. TT = 20 sec. What is the most likely reason for these results?

A patient has severe liver disease, what test results would you expect