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Worksheets

Pharm Week 2

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. The greater the therapeutic index (TI), the safer the drug.


2. Drugs with a lower TI (closer to zero) require careful monitoring to avoid toxic reactions.

a)

First statement true, second false

b)

First statement false, second true

c)

Both true

d)

Both false

2.

Different drugs often compete for the same receptor sites. The drug with the ________ affinity for the receptor will bind to more receptors than the drug with the ________ affinity.

a)

1. stronger 2. weaker

b)

both stronger

c)

1. weaker 2. stronger

d)

both weaker

3.

The physicochemical properties of drugs that influence the passage of drugs across biologic membranes are:

a)

molecular size (small)

b)

protein solubility

c)

lipid solubility (lipid soluble)

d)

degree of ionization (non-ionized)

4.

Lipid-soluble substances move across the lipoprotein membrane by a passive transfer process called __________.


It utilizes concentration gradient.

a)

simple diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

active transport

5.

__________ is a process by which a substance is transported against a concentration gradient. It is facilitated by carrier cells.

a)

active transport

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

simple diffusion

6.

_______________ does not move against the concentration gradient.


It utilizes pinocytosis where there is an invagination in cell wall, and extracellular material is absorbed.

a)

simple diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

active transport

7.

Drugs are present in a solution as either ionized or non-ionized forms.


1. The ionized form has a charge and has low lipid solubility


2. Non-Ionized form has no charge and has high lipid solubility

a)

First statement true, second false

b)

First statement false, second true

c)

Both true

d)

Both false

8.

Which form crosses the cell membrane more easily?

a)

ionized form

b)

non-ionized form

9.

1. Weak acids are better absorbed when the pH is ______ than the pKa.


2. Weak bases are better absorbed when the pH is ______ than the pKa.

a)

1. less 2. greater

b)

1. greater 2. less

c)

both greater

d)

both less

10.

In the presence of an infection, the acidity of the tissue _______ (and the pH decreases) and the effect of local anesthetics _________.

a)

1. increases 2. decreases

b)

1. decreases 2. increases

11.

The closer the pKa of the drug is to the pH of the environment, the more non-ionized the drug is and the faster it is absorbed.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Drugs that are _____ acids (ex: pKa 3.8) will be mostly non-ionized in the acidic pH of the stomach (pH 2), allowing it to be readily absorbed.

a)

strong

b)

weak

13.

Local anesthetics are weak bases. The closer the pKa of local anesthetics is to the local tissue pH (pH 7.4), the more non-ionized the drug is and the faster it will be absorbed with a quicker onset of action


Lidocaine has a pKa 7.9, and Bupivicaine with a pKa 8.1. Which has a faster onset?

a)

Lidocaine

b)

Bupivicaine

14.

1. If the tissue pH is more alkaline and closer to the pKa values of the drugs, onset of action is slower.


2. Inflamed tissue becomes acidic resulting in less local anesthetic in the non-ionized form.

a)

First statement true, second false

b)

First statement false, second true

c)

Both true

d)

Both false

15.

The release of a drug occurs in the:

(a)  

16.

Absorption of the drug begins in the 1. ___________ to the 2. ________, then to the 3. ___________.

a)

1. oral cavity 2. bloodstream 3. liver

b)

1. small intestine 2. bloodstream 3. liver

c)

1. stomach 2. bloodstream 3. liver

d)

1. small intestine 2. liver 3. kidney

17.

The (a)   is a major disadvantage to the oral route of administration because it reduces the bioavailability of the drug

18.

Select the factors that affect distribution of a drug.

a)

body fat

b)

blood flow to the organ (more blood flow= greater rate of distribution)

c)

presence of certain barriers (blood brain, placental)

d)

plasma protein binding capacity

19.

In regards to metabolism, also known as biotransformation, before elimination the drug must be biotransformed in a __________ form

a)

hydrophilic

b)

hydrophobic

c)

polar

d)

nonpolar

20.

Only drugs in their free form are available to exert its pharmacologic effects.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

1. Metabolism (biotransformation) occurs in the __________.


2. After it is biotransformed, it is called a ____________.

a)

1. small intestine. 2. metabolite

b)

1. large intestine. 2. metabolite

c)

1. liver 2. metabolite

22.

Drug metabolism produces compounds that are more polar (ionized) and more easily excreted.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Most drug excretion takes place in the (a)   .

24.

Select other ways drugs can be excreted.

a)

bile

b)

perspiration

c)

exhalation

d)

lactation

e)

digestion

25.

Changes non-ionic, lipophilic drug to a more ionic, hydrophilic metabolite to ease excretion


If the product of this phase is hydrophilic enough, it is excreted by kidneys.

a)

Phase 1 biotransformation

b)

Phase 2 biotransformation

26.

The metabolite from a phase isn’t hydrophilic enough to pass through kidneys.


The drug goes back to the liver to be combined with a highly water soluble compound.

a)

Phase 1 biotransformation

b)

Phase 2 biotransformation

27.

Time it takes for the concentration of the drug in the blood to fall to half (50%) of its original value


It is an indicator of how long a drug will produce its effect in the body and defines the time interval between doses.

(a)  

28.

It takes about ______ half-lives for a drug to be “considered” eliminated from the body

a)

3 to 4

b)

4 to 5

c)

4 to 6

d)

6 to 8

29.

The larger the half-life ( t½) value, the longer it takes for a drug to be eliminated from the body for a patient considered healthy.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

The route of drug administration (ROA) for a drug that goes through the GI tract is considered:

a)

Enteral

b)

Parenteral

c)

Topical

31.

The route of drug administration (ROA) for a drug that bypass the GI tract is considered:

a)

Enteral

b)

Parenteral

c)

Topical

32.

The route of drug administration (ROA) for a drug that is administered directly on tissue is considered:

a)

Enteral

b)

Parenteral

c)

Topical

33.

Emergency drugs ROA would be considered:

a)

Enteral

b)

Parenteral

c)

Topical

34.

Smoking cessation patches ROA would be considered:

a)

Enteral

b)

Parenteral

c)

Topical

35.

Local anesthetic ROA would be considered:

a)

Enteral

b)

Parenteral

c)

Topical

36.

Nitroglycerin spray ROA would be considered:

a)

Enteral

b)

Parenteral

c)

Topical

37.

Amoxicillin ROA would be considered:

a)

Enteral

b)

Parenteral

c)

Topical

38.

An EpiPen ROA would be considered:

a)

Enteral

b)

Parenteral

c)

Topical

39.

An Albuterol inhaler ROA would be considered:

a)

Enteral

b)

Parenteral

c)

Topical

40.

1. Oral administration produces a slower onset of action than parenterally administered agents.


2. An advantage of this route is the large absorbing area present in the large intestine.

a)

First statement true, second false

b)

First statement false, second true

c)

Both true

d)

Both false

41.

The amount of a drug needed to produce an effect is:

(a)  

42.

The (a)   occurs when the therapeutic response cannot be increased with a higher dose of the drug.

43.

The dose required to produce desired effect in 50% of experimental beings

a)

Lethal dose

b)

Median effective dose

c)

Ceiling effect

d)

Half-life

44.

The closer the median effect dose (ED50) is to the lethal dose (LD50), the more dangerous the drug is because the chance of taking an overdose is greater.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

An agonist is a drug that:


1. Has affinity for a receptor

2. Combines with the receptor

3. Produces an effect.


Ex: Naturally occurring neurotransmitters are agonists.

a)

1, 2, true

b)

2, 3 true

c)

1, 2, 3 true

d)

3 only true

46.

Which is not a type of antagonist drug?

a)

Competitive

b)

Non-competitive

c)

Pathologic

d)

Physicologic

47.

1. A competitive antagonist is a drug that, (1) has affinity for a receptor, (2) combines with the receptor, (3) produces no effect by blocking agonist.


2. The antagonist competes with the agonist for the receptor, and the outcome depends on the relative affinities and concentrations of each agent.

a)

First statement true, second false

b)

First statement false, second true

c)

Both true

d)

Both false

48.

1. Non-competitive antagonists bind to a receptor site that is different from the binding site for the agonist.


2. Its presence increases the maximal response of the agonist

a)

First statement true, second false

b)

First statement false, second true

c)

Both true

d)

Both false

49.

1. A physiologic antagonist has affinity for a different receptor site than the agonist.


2. Its presence increases the maximal response of the agonist by producing an opposite effect via different receptors.

a)

First statement true, second false

b)

First statement false, second true

c)

Both true

d)

Both false

50.

This type of antagonist blocks agonists.

a)

Competitive

b)

Non-competitive

c)

Physiological

51.

This type of antagonist binds at a different receptor site, and its presence reduces the maximal response of the agonist.

a)

Competitive

b)

Non-competitive

c)

Physiological

52.

This type of antagonist has affinity for a different receptor site causing an opposite affect than agonists.

a)

Competitive

b)

Non-competitive

c)

Physiological