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Bio: Unit 3 Test - Ch 10-12

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 4hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Charles Darwin’s observation that finches of different species on the Galápagos Islands have many similar physical characteristics supports the hypothesis that these finches 
 
a)
have the ability to interbreed.
have the ability to interbreed.
b)
acquired traits through use and disuse.
c)
all eat the same type of food.
d)
descended from a common ancestor.
2.

By looking at the genes of some animals we can determine which living species are most closely related to each other. This also reveals which species most recently diverged from their common ancestor.

Based on the partial gene segments shown, which pair of animals are genetically most closely related and therefore most recently diverged from their common ancestor?

a)

Chimpanzee and Mouse

b)

Rat and Mouse

c)

Rat and Chimpanzee

3.

Images of the embryo and adult stages of three different organisms are shown.


Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be drawn from this evidence?

a)

Having similar embryos indicates that these organisms eat the same types of food.

b)

Having similar embryos indicates that these organisms live in a similar environment.

c)

Having similar embryos indicates that these organisms share a recent common ancestor.

d)

Having similar embryos indicates that a certain protein controls how many legs the adult organisms will have.

4.
According to the law of superposition, the oldest fossils are found 
a)
At the top of the rock layers
b)
Near the bottom of the rock layers
c)
In the middle of the rock layers
d)
Somewhat near the surface
5.

If a new trait DOES help an organism survive, what may happen to it?

a)

It dies and its DNA is not passed on

b)

It survives and its DNA is passed on

c)

It changes its traits to adapt and survive

6.

A change in a DNA sequence that affects genetic information

a)

mutation

b)

fitness

c)

transformation

7.

In the table shown, the DNA found in five primate species was compared to the DNA found in humans. The number of sequence differences was recorded. Based on the data in this table, what inference could you make about these species compared to humans?

a)

Lemurs are most like humans.

b)

Gorillas are most like humans.

c)

None of the species are similar to humans.

d)

Only the lemur differs from humans in any way.

8.
When lions prey on a herd of antelopes, some antelopes are killed and some escape. Which part of Darwin’s concept of natural selection might be used to describe this situation?
a)
reproductive isolation
b)
descent with modification
c)
acquired characteristics
d)
survival of the fittest
9.

What word describes a trait that helps an organism survive in its environment?

a)

natural selection

b)

mutation

c)

camouflage

d)

adaptation

10.
Survival of the Fittest and Evolution were proposed by what scientist?
a)
Charles Darwin
b)
Albert Einstein
c)
Steven Hawking
d)
Isaac Newton
11.
When every organism of a species has died.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artificial Selection
12.
The theory of evolution by natural selection means that what is changing over time?
a)
The inherited traits of a population.
b)
The acquired traits of a population.
c)
Hair color and eye color
d)
Attractive features.
13.
Mutations are a change in what?
a)
DNA
b)
tRNA
c)
genotype
d)
phenotype
14.
The differences among a species, like different bird beaks, are called
a)
genes.
b)
variations.
c)
traits.
d)
theories.
15.
Which of the following means "genetic change over time"
a)
natural selection
b)
speciation
c)
evolution
d)
fitness
16.
Whether or not a variation is an adaptation is dependent on the organism's
a)
Environment
b)
Genotype
c)
Phenotype
d)
Selection
17.
Some lizards have different size legs.  Lizards with longer legs are able to better access food.  Overtime Lizards with short legs became less common.
What is the adaptation?
a)
Lizards
b)
Long legs
c)
Leg size 
d)
Food
18.
Which of the following is a term for a group of similar organisms that can reproduce fertile offspring?
a)
individual
b)
population
c)
species
d)
fossil
19.

Rainfall in a tropical region has been below average for 10 consecutive years. Insect species adapted to dry conditions are much more plentiful at the end of the 10 years. Which of the following statements best explains the increase in the population of these insects?

a)

Biodiversity in the region has increased due to the dry conditions.

b)

Insects with a high tolerance for dry conditions have moved out of the region.

c)

Natural selection has favored insect species with high tolerance for dry conditions.

d)

Natural selection has selected against insect species that are adapted for dry conditions.

20.

If scientists were to compare the fossil of a fern that lived millions of years ago with other fern fossils that were formed later, what would they most likely find?

a)

that plants had bones millions of years ago

b)

that plants change over time

c)

that ferns stopped evolving 25 million years ago

d)

that only animals evolve

21.

Darwin explained the differences in the Galapagos finches was due to

a)

random mutations among the finch populations

b)

the climate on the islands

c)

inherited changes in response to environmental pressures

d)

indicated that these finches were not related

22.
Some female peacocks prefer males with large, colorful tales while other female peacocks prefer males with no tail at all. Females are beginning to only mate with the type of males with the tail they prefer. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
23.
A flash flood carried a raft of Amazon ants away from their original population. There is enough distance between the two groups, that they will never meet in nature again. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
temporal isolation 
c)
gametic isolation
d)
geographic isolation 
24.
The term for the formation of new and distinct species over the course of evolution is...
a)
speciation
b)
biological species concept
c)
reproductive barrier
d)
natural selection
25.

The emergence of new rivers or streams is a type of ____________ isolation.

a)

Temporal

b)

Mechanical

c)

Behavioral

d)

Geographic

26.

Occurs at a slow rate.

a)

Gradual extinction

b)

Mass extinction

27.

Occurs when a catastrophic event changes the environment suddenly.

a)

Gradual extinction

b)

Mass extinction

28.

Bursts of change followed by periods of stability.

a)

Punctuated equilibrium

b)

Gradualism

c)

Extinction

d)

Speciation

29.

Slow changes over a long period of time.

a)

Gradualism

b)

Extinction

c)

Coevolution

d)

Convergent evolution

30.

A number of different species arise from one common ancestor.

a)

Adaptive Radiation (aka, Divergent Evolution)

b)

Gradualism

c)

Coevolution

d)

Speciation

31.

When unrelated species evolve similar characteristics because they live in similar environments.

a)

Convergent Evolution

b)

Coevolution

c)

Adaptive Radiation

d)

Divergent Evolution

32.

Two organisms change in response to each other forming a specialized relationship.

a)

Coevolution

b)

Convergent Evolution

c)

Gradualism

d)

Extinction

33.

Takes two organisms to make offspring; process of meiosis to create gametes.

a)

Sexual Reproduction

b)

Asexual Reproduction

34.

Process of binary fission or mitosis where only one parent produces genetically identical offspring.

a)

Sexual Reproduction

b)

Asexual Reproduction

35.

Why are similar fossils found all over the world?

a)

The animals swam to new parts of the world before going extinct

b)

The land masses were once connected

c)

The organisms were transported to different areas of the world

d)

They are not similar fossils.

36.

How do transitional species help show evolution has occurred?

a)

They show the changes that occurred over time

b)

They show that an organism still lives today

c)

They show how an organism died

d)

They show an organism that was poorly adapted to its environment

37.
The amount of time required for half of a radioactive isotope to decay
a)
Half-Life
b)
Radioactive Decay
c)
Paleozoic
d)
Cambrian Explosion
38.
This explains that eukaryotic cells may have evolved from prokaryotic cells
a)
Spontaneous Generation
b)
Theory of Biogenesis
c)
Endosymbiont Theory
d)
Law of Superposition
39.
What was the product of the Miller-Urey Experiment?
a)
Simple amino acids
b)
Simple nucleotides
c)
Simple lipids
d)
Simple monosaccarides
40.
The theory of Endosymbiosis explains...
a)
The origin of eukaryotes
b)
How species develop
c)
How bacteria evolved
d)
Why cells rely on one another
41.

Earth formed 4.5 billion years ago, but life did not show until around...

a)

3.5 billion years ago

b)

1 million years ago

c)

200,000 years ago

d)

4.2 billion years ago

42.

Which of the following was probably not present in the atmosphere of the primitive Earth?

a)

methane

b)

oxygen

c)

water

d)

carbon dioxide

43.

Miller & Urey and other scientists have shown that:

a)

Life on early Earth required material from space

b)

Cells survived in the primitive atmosphere

c)

Amino acids could be produced from inorganic molecules

d)

Simple cells can be produced in a laboratory

44.

The theory that mitochondria and chloroplasts were once ancient prokaryotic is called

a)

Endosymbiotic Theory

b)

Seed Theory

c)

Mitochloro Theory

d)

Origin of Life

45.

A preserved remnant or impression of an organism that lived in the past

a)

Paleontologist

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Fossil

d)

Half-Life

46.

Primitive prokaryotes that eventually produced enough oxygen to support the formation of ozone

a)

Archaea

b)

Cyanobacteria

c)

Eukaryotic

d)

Prokaryote

47.
There have been _____ mass extinction events in Earth's history.
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
2
48.
Which portion of the timeline is known as the "Age of Dinosaurs"?
a)
Precambrian Time
b)
Paleozoic Era
c)
Mesozoic Era
d)
Cenozoic Era
49.
Place the following in order starting with the OLDEST
1  Paleozoic
2  Cenozoic
3  Precambrian
4  Mesozoic
a)
1 3 2 4 
b)
3 1 4 2
c)
4 3 2 1 
d)
2 3 1 4
50.
Which portion of the timeline is known as the "Age of Mammals"?
a)
Precambrian Time
b)
Paleozoic Era
c)
Mesozoic Era
d)
Cenozoic Era