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WorksheetsNational Section Practice Exam - Appendix A
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 25hrs 0mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following would terminate a residential sales agreement?
a)
A. death of the seller
b)
B. legal declaration of insanity of the seller
c)
C. the sale of the property
d)
D. an assignment
2.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a)
A. A principal is responsible for acts of his agent while engaged in activities concerning the agency.
b)
B. An agent is in a fiduciary relationship to her principal.
c)
C. The agent has no duties to third parties in a transaction.
d)
D. The principal owes cooperation to the agent.
3.
On the broker's recommendation, a seller accepted an offer that was 8% below the listed price. The broker did not disclose to the listing seller that the buyer was the broker's brother-in-law. Which of the following is correct?
a)
A. The broker violated his obligations as agent of the seller.
b)
B. The fact that the buyer is related to the broker does not need to be divulged to the seller.
c)
C. The broker would only be obligated to disclose this relationship if the buyer had hired the broker as a buyer agent
d)
D. There is no violation since the seller was in agreement with the terms of the buyer's offer.
4.
An agent's responsibilities and duties to a third person include:
a)
A. not to disclose personal information regarding the third party.
b)
B. disclosure of all material facts the agent knows or reasonably should know.
c)
C. disclosure of personal information about the principal.
d)
D. obedience to the lawful instructions of the third party.
5.
An agent, based upon statements made by the seller, tells her buyer that all mechanical systems are in "good working order:" The agent did not personally verify this information. The buyer decided not to have the property inspected since the seller had indicated they were selling "as is:" After the closing, the furnace is found to be defective and must be replaced.
a)
A. The agent is not liable because the buyer opted to not have it inspected.
b)
B. The agent is not liable since he relied upon representation made by the seller.
c)
C. The agent is guilty of an innocent omission of material fact.
d)
D. The agent is guilty of a negligent misrepresentation of material fact.
6.
A real estate agent is typically considered to be in what form of agency relationship?
a)
A. special agency
b)
B. general agency
c)
C. universal agency
d)
D. exclusive agency
7.
Allison is an agent with Miller's Creek Realty that has a buyer client who wishes to see a listing obtained by her firm. The broker at Miller's Creek Realty appoints Allison to represent only the interests of the buyer and the listing agent to represent only the interests of the seller. This type of arrangement is an example of:
a)
A. implied agency
b)
B. express agency
c)
C. special agency
d)
D. designated agency
8.
A contract that has no legal standing because it does not meet the minimum standards for a legally enforceable agreement is:
a)
A. unenforceable
b)
B. valid
c)
C. void
d)
D. voidable
9.
A substitution of one contract for another where the original contract is voided is:
a)
A. exchange
b)
B. novation
c)
C. voidable
d)
D. unilateral
10.
A contract in which one party makes a promise of compensation if another party renders a service in return is which of the following?
a)
A. unilateral
b)
B. multilateral
c)
C. trilateral
d)
D. bilateral
11.
Which of the following statements about offers is correct?
a)
A. They must not be illusory.
b)
B. They may not be revoked.
c)
c. They must be accompanied by earnest money.
d)
D. They must be notarized.
12.
A buyer made an offer to purchase a seller's land at a price to be mutually agreed upon in the future. Which of the following best describes this offer?
a)
A. option
b)
B. illusory
c)
C. unilateral
d)
D. fraudulent
13.
A total transfer of contractual rights and obligations to another party is a(n):
a)
A. novation.
b)
B. assignment.
c)
C. accord and satisfaction.
d)
D. carryover contract.
14.
Ralph and Sandra are both agents at Healdsburg Realty. Ralph presents an offer, on behalf of his buyer client to Sandra, the listing agent. Sandra presents the offer to her seller who counteroffers in writing for more money. Ralph presents this counteroffer to his buyer who signs his acceptance in Ralph's presence. After the buyer signs, but before Ralph has notified Sandra, she contacts Ralph to inform him that her seller wishes to withdraw the counteroffer and sell to someone else for more money. Which of the following is true?
a)
A. There is a valid contract since Ralph's buyer accepted in his presence and both Ralph and Sandra are dual agents.
b)
B. Sandra's seller can withdraw since neither Sandra nor her seller had yet been informed of the buyer's acceptance.
c)
C. Sandra's seller can withdraw since the actual paperwork had not yet been returned to Sandra and the earnest money had not yet been deposited.
d)
D. Ralph had no authority to present the counteroffer on behalf of Sandra's seller.
15.
A prospective purchaser has made an offer to the owner's agent who in turn has mailed the offer to his seller. The seller has received this offer, signed it, and now mailed it back to his agent. While the documents are in the mail, another offer for more money is made to the seller's agent. The agent calls the seller to inform him about this new offer, and the seller instructs him to disregard the signed agreement because he wants to accept this new offer. Which of the following is true?
a)
A. The first offer has been legally accepted because it had been mailed back to the agent.
b)
B. The second offer has been legally accepted.
c)
C. The agent cannot present this new offer until there is resolution to the first offer.
d)
D. The first offer has not been accepted and the seller is free to sell it to the second buyer.
16.
An option to purchase differs from a right of first refusal in that:
a)
A. they are actually two names commonly used to describe the same thing.
b)
B. in an option the purchaser is required to purchase the property if the seller decides to sell.
c)
C. in a right of first refusal the seller is not required to sell if the buyer wants to buy.
d)
D. in an option the seller is not required to sell if the buyer decides to buy.
17.
A buyer made an offer to purchase that stated "this offer shall remain open until 12:00 noon on August 20 at which point it shall become null and void:' He further stipulates "he will not terminate this offer prior to that time for any reason whatsoever:" On Thursday, August 19, before hearing back from the seller, the buyer contacts the seller to inform him that he has changed his mind. The buyer is:
a)
A. in breach of contract as he agreed not to terminate his offer prior to noon on the 20th.
b)
B. in breach of agreement and will not be entitled to a refund of his earnest money deposit although he cannot be sued in a court of law.
c)
C. not in breach of contract even though he terminated prior to noon on the 20th.
d)
D. not in breach of contract with the seller but is liable for payment of his buyer agent's commission if one was agreed to.
18.
On Monday, the buyer, Jeff, signs a full price and conditions offer to purchase Sara's house and mails it to her for review. Sara receives it in the mail late on Tuesday afternoon, at which time she reads the offer and decides that she will accept it. When Sara gets to the office on Wednesday, she signs Jeff's offer and mails it back to him at his proper address. Jeff receives her acceptance on Thursday morning. What Sara does not realize is that Jeff had changed his mind and mailed a letter of revocation of his offer early Tuesday morning. Unfortunately, Sara did not receive the letter of revocation until Thursday afternoon. Is there a binding contract of sale?
a)
A. No. Jeff has adequately withdrawn his offer when he mailed the letter of revocation to Sara on Tuesday morning.
b)
B. Yes. Sara created a binding contract when she signed Jeff's offer on Wednesday and mailed it back to him at his proper address.
c)
C. No. Jeff's revocation does not count until it is actually received on Thursday.
d)
D. Yes. It was a binding contract when Jeff received the actual acceptance from Sara on Thursday morning.
19.
As a result of a provisional broker's negligence in filling in the provisions in a contract of sale, the seller incurred a financial loss. Liability for this loss may be imposed upon:
a)
A. the agent only.
b)
B. the employing broker only.
c)
C. both the agent and the employing broker.
d)
D. neither the agent nor the employing broker.
20.
A listing contract creates an agency relationship in which:
a)
A. the broker is a general agent.
b)
B. the seller is principal.
c)
C. the seller is a special agent.
d)
D. the broker is a universal agent
21.
A seller tells his broker that he is very anxious to sell and will accept $5,000 less than the listed price. The broker may share this information with:
a)
A. sales agents in her office.
b)
B. a cooperating MLS agent acting as a buyer's agent.
c)
C. the buyer.
d)
D. anyone interested in the property.
22.
Which of the following types of listing agreements allow for the seller to personally sell her own property without having to pay the broker a commission?
a)
A. net and exclusive agency
b)
B. exclusive agency and exclusive right to sell
c)
C. open and exclusive agency
d)
D. open and exclusive right to sell
23.
Amy shows her listing to a buyer who makes an offer that was ultimately accepted by the seller. Before the closing, the buyer has a job transfer that necessitates she move to another town. The seller sympathizes with the purchaser and allows her to withdraw from the contract and releases her from all further obligation. The seller:
a)
A. owes Amy the selling "side" of the commission.
b)
B. owes Amy only the expenses incurred by her in selling the property to this particular client.
c)
C. does not owe Amy a commission since the property was not ultimately closed.
d)
D. owes Amy the full commission even though the seller has released the buyer from the obligation in this transaction.
24.
The clause that is inserted into a listing agreement that protects the broker in the event the seller and buyer try to delay entering into a contract of sale so they can avoid the commission to the agent is known as:
a)
A. protection agreement clause.
b)
B. automatic removal clause.
c)
C. extender clause.
d)
D. nothing. It is illegal to insert a clause of this type
25.
A pending sales contract agreement can best be described as:
a)
A. bilateral executed.
b)
B. unilateral executory.
c)
C. bilateral executory.
d)
D. unilateral executed.
26.
Champion Realty has received an offer on one of its listings. The seller lives in Maryland and the offer was emailed to him where he signed electronically to accept the offer with no modifications to the original agreement. Once the form was signed electronically it was emailed back to the listing agent at Champion. The agent at Champion then called and told the buyer agent at XYZ Realty the seller had signed the acceptance with no changes. The next day the seller wants to terminate the sale due to having received a better offer. He is claiming there is no contract since he did not "actually" sign the offer but rather used an electronic means to indicate acceptance. Which of the following best describes this situation?
a)
A. Electronic signatures are legal and it became a contract once the listing agent notified the buyer agent.
b)
B. It is not a contract since there was no "real" signature on the acceptance.
c)
C. An electronic acceptance would be legal only if the buyer had signed electronically as well.
d)
D. Electronic signatures can be legal and this became a contract once the signed offer was emailed back to the listing agent.
27.
Amy accepted a buyer's verbal offer to purchase her house. A week later the buyer calls to inform her that he wishes to terminate his agreement. Which of the following best describes this situation?
a)
A. This agreement is illegal and has no legal recognition at all.
b)
B. A verbal acceptance to sell real estate is only valid if the offer was made verbally as well.
c)
C. This is a voidable contract since it was not in writing.
d)
D. This is a valid contract and the buyer can be held liable for damages by Amy.
28.
The type of listing agreement in which the seller agrees to only have the brokerage firm enter the listing in the local MLS and place a sign in the yard might best be described as a(n):
a)
A. open listing agreement.
b)
B. limited services agreement.
c)
C. exclusive agency listing agreement.
d)
D. exclusive right to sell agreement.
29.
All of the following are considered an example of a property owner's "bundle of rights" EXCEPT:
a)
A. right of possession.
b)
B. right to build whatever you wish on the property.
c)
C. right to sell, lease, or convey.
d)
D. right of quiet enjoyment.
30.
The owner(s) of the real property may hold title in all of the following ways EXCEPT:
a)
A. tenancy in common.
b)
B. lessees.
c)
C. severalty.
d)
D. joint tenancy.
31.
Nancy and Kim owned a parcel of property in joint tenancy. Nancy decides to sell her portion to Yvonne, and Kim will continue to own her share. After the transaction closes, how will Kim be considered to hold ownership of her portion?
a)
A. severalty
b)
B. joint tenancy
c)
C. tenancy in common
d)
D. tenancy by entirety
32.
The type of tenancy in which a tenant remains in possession after the lease term has expired but without obtaining the landlord's consent is an example of:
a)
A. tenancy for years.
b)
B. periodic tenancy.
c)
C. tenancy at will.
d)
D. tenancy at sufferance.
33.
A property held in the name of a large corporation will likely be held as:
a)
A. severalty.
b)
B. tenancy in common.
c)
C. joint tenancy.
d)
D. tenancy by entireties.
34.
A trespass on another's land as a result of an intrusion by some structure or other object is an:
a)
A. encroachment.
b)
B. easement.
c)
C. estate.
d)
D. emblement.
35.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a)
A. Spot zoning is legal in all cases.
b)
B. Protective covenants are enforced by court injunction.
c)
C. Protective covenants are government restrictions.
d)
D. All nonconforming uses are illegal
36.
Easements are created in all of the following ways EXCEPT:
a)
A. prescription.
b)
B. lis pendens.
c)
C. condemnation.
d)
D. dedication.
37.
A property owner in a recently re-zoned area was permitted to continue to use his property in a manner that did not comply with the new zoning requirements. This use is described as which of the following?
a)
A. exclusive-use zoning
b)
B. deviation
c)
C. nonconforming use
d)
D. private control of land use
38.
Wendy has been notified that her property is subject to being acquired by eminent domain. One of the requirements that must be met in order to acquire her property in this manner is that:
a)
A. it must be for a public purpose.
b)
B. she does not have to sell if the price being offered is not suitable to her.
c)
C. she must first be given constructive notice.
d)
D. a lis pendens must first be filed
39.
Which of the following is an example of an exempt property under the Americans with Disability Act (ADA)?
a)
A. public school building
b)
B. model home in a new subdivision
c)
C. office building
d)
D. personal residence
40.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a public land use control?
a)
A. protective covenants
b)
B. zoning regulations
c)
C. building codes
d)
D. fire codes
41.
Which of the following best illustrates the example of an easement appurtenant?
a)
A. a right of way across one property to access the adjoining property
b)
B. a municipal water and sewer line easement
c)
C. a major oil or gas pipeline project easement
d)
D. a purely personal right to walk across a neighbor's property to access the beach
42.
Regulation Z of the Truth in Lending Act allows which of the following to be placed within an advertisement for a real estate loan without requiring a full disclosure of all credit financing terms?
a)
A. number of payments
b)
B. down payment
c)
C. the full annual percentage rate spelled out in full, that is, not abbreviated as APR
d)
D. dollar amount of the finance charges
43.
A short sale exists when:
a)
A. the seller owes more than the property will sell for.
b)
B. the seller owes more than the property is worth and the seller is unwilling, or unable, to pay the difference.
c)
C. a property is sold quickly typically for all cash and closes in a matter of a few days.
d)
D. the property is acquired by the lender for nonpayment and re-sold to an investor who buys these type properties in bulk.
44.
Who is the oldest and largest of the secondary mortgage markets?
a)
A. Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA)
b)
B. Government National Mortgage Association (GNMA)
c)
C. Federal Home Loan Mortgage Association (FHLMC)
d)
D. Washington National Mortgage Association (WNMA)
45.
A title theory state is associated with a:
a)
A. mortgage lien.
b)
B. deed of trust.
c)
C. requirement for the acquisition of title insurance.
d)
D. requirement to record title to the property in a public register of deeds.
46.
A loan-to-value (LTV) is traditionally based upon:
a)
A. the purchase price only.
b)
B. the relationship of the loan amount in relation to the CMA amount.
c)
C. the appraised value or the purchase price whichever is more.
d)
D. the purchase price or appraised value, whichever is less
47.
A contract for deed (land contract):
a)
A. is when the purchaser acquires possession but no title until the loan is repaid in full.
b)
B. stipulates the buyer acquires legal title upon closing the purchase.
c)
C. stipulates the seller retains equitable title after the closing.
d)
D. is never recorded until the loan is repaid.
48.
Which of the following is true regarding VA mortgage loans?
a)
A. These loans are not eligible to be assumed.
b)
B. They can only be assumed by another veteran.
c)
C. The unmarried surviving spouse of a veteran who died as a result of service-related injuries can use the VA benefits their previous spouse had acquired.
d)
D. A veteran is allowed to purchase a house as a rental investment using earned VA benefits.
49.
Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of the six elements considered to constitute a loan application according to RESPA?
a)
A. address of the property pledged as collateral
b)
B. driver's license of the applicant
c)
C. estimated value of the property
d)
D. Social Security number of the applicant
50.
An alienation clause makes a mortgage:
a)
A. defeasible.
b)
B. non-assumable.
c)
C. unable to be sold in the secondary market.
d)
D. adjustable.
51.
The primary function of the FHA is to:
a)
A. make mortgage loans.
b)
B. make loans for low-income housing.
c)
C. insure loans that protect lenders from financial loss.
d)
D. purchase mortgages on the secondary market.
52.
Which of the following regulates the advertisement of credit terms available for a house offered for sale?
a)
A. RESPA
b)
B. Fannie Mae
c)
C. Equal Credit Opportunity Act
d)
D. Regulation Z
53.
What is the purpose of a deed of trust?
a)
A. secure the payment of a note
b)
B. provide protection for the mortgagor
c)
C. create personal liability of the buyer
d)
D. prevent assumption
54.
Which lien has priority to mortgage foreclosure sale proceeds?
a)
A. mortgage lien
b)
B. income tax lien
c)
C. real property tax lien
d)
D. mechanic's lien
55.
Which of the following requires immediate payment of the principal balance when the borrower is in default on a loan?
a)
A. equity of redemption
b)
B. prepayment penalty
c)
C. right of lender to possession
d)
D. acceleration
56.
In which of the following types of legal description must the description close the loop?
a)
A. government rectangular survey system
b)
B. recorded plat
c)
C. metes and bounds
d)
D. informal reference
57.
An acre contains how many square feet?
a)
A. 640
b)
B. 4,356
c)
C. 6,400
d)
D. 43,560
58.
Adherence to which of the following maximizes land value?
a)
A. principle of contribution
b)
B. principle of change
c)
C. principle of anticipation
d)
D. principle of highest and best use
59.
A competitive market analysis is performed when:
a)
A. assessing property.
b)
B. pricing property.
c)
C. appraising property.
d)
D. condemning property.
60.
The principle providing that the highest value of a property has a tendency to be established by the cost of purchasing or constructing a building of equal utility and desirability is the principle of:
a)
A. highest and best use.
b)
B. competition.
c)
C. supply and demand.
d)
D. substitution.
61.
Which appraisal method is most appropriate to a unique property such as a church or post office?
a)
A. market data approach
b)
B. cost approach
c)
C. income approach
d)
D. capitalization approach
62.
Which appraisal method is most appropriate to vacant land?
a)
A. market data approach
b)
B. cost approach
c)
C. income approach
d)
D. none of the above
63.
The direct sales comparison approach takes into consideration all of the following factors EXCEPT:
a)
A. comparable properties sold within the last six months.
b)
B. the method of financing of comparable sales.
c)
C. the price the seller thinks the property is worth.
d)
D. the age and condition of comparable properties.
64.
A gift of real property by will is a:
a)
A. remise.
b)
B. demise.
c)
C. devise.
d)
D. bequest.
65.
A person has died intestate. As a result, the property will be distributed to:
a)
A. probate.
b)
B. the state the property is located in.
c)
C. his or her heirs.
d)
D. eminent domain.
66.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of recording a deed?
a)
A. It protects the grantee against future conveyances by the grantor.
b)
B. It protects the grantee against the grantor's creditors.
c)
C. It provides constructive notice to all that title is now vested in the grantee.
d)
D. It is the point when a deed conveys title from the grantor to the grantee.
67.
Which of the following would create a defect affecting title?
a)
A. an un-violated protective covenant
b)
B. municipal water and sewer easement
c)
C. a 5-foot-wide maintenance easement for the neighboring property
d)
D. a concrete driveway that extends slightly over the property line
68.
The type of deed the grantee would want to receive in order to gain the maximum benefit of protection from the grantor would be a:
a)
A. non-warranty deed.
b)
B. quitclaim deed.
c)
C. general warranty deed
d)
D. special warranty deed.
69.
Title insurance policies protect the lender against:
a)
A. losses due to default by the borrower.
b)
B. losses due to fire and other casualty.
c)
C. losses due to claims against the property.
d)
D. risk of injury by a guest of the property owner.
70.
The Residential Lead-Based Paint Hazard Reduction Act requires that a buyer of pre-1978 residential property be provided with all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
A. a lO-day period in which to have the presence of lead-based paint determined.
b)
B. a disclosure of any known lead-based paint present in the home.
c)
c. the EPA pamphlet titled "Protect Your Family from Lead in Your Home:'
d)
D. certification by HUD that the home is "lead free:'
71.
A real estate agent has been showing his buyer client homes in a subdivision when he sees a For Sale by Owner sign in front of a house that contains the owner's phone number. Unfortunately, a search of the records indicates this owner has registered his home phone number on the Do Not Call Registry. Which of the following is correct?
a)
A. The agent may call the owner to request more information because the phone number was posted on the sign.
b)
B. The agent cannot call the owner in order to request more information because the phone number is listed on the Do Not Call registry.
c)
C. The agent can call the owner because the Do Not Call restrictions do not apply to licensed real estate agents.
d)
D. The agent cannot legally call; however, the potential buyer may without restriction.
72.
The Fair Housing Act of 1968 prohibits discrimination in the rental of all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
A. offices.
b)
B. apartments.
c)
C. houses.
d)
D. residential lots.
73.
Inducing an owner to list property by telling the owner that persons of a particular national origin are moving into the neighborhood is called:
a)
A. steering.
b)
B. redlining.
c)
C. blockbusting.
d)
D. profiteering.
74.
Robert is the manager of an apartment complex that has buildings 1-6 occupied by families with children and buildings 7-10 for those without children. George and Anna, and their two children, are being told by Robert that although they easily qualify for the lease, there aren't any vacancies in a building that allows children. Which of the following best describes this situation?
a)
A. This is legal because there aren't any units available in a "children allowed" building.
b)
B. This is an example of redlining.
c)
C. This is an example of steering.
d)
D. This is an example of blockbusting.
75.
Which of the following does NOT describe radon gas?
a)
A. It is the second leading cause of lung cancer.
b)
B. A level above 4.0 pico curries is considered to be a material fact.
c)
C. High levels of radon can often be mitigated.
d)
D. It is a gas that is detectable by its sulphur smell.
76.
Larry Lender is being asked for a mortgage loan on a house in a predominately minority neighborhood. Because of his concern regarding the long term economic potential for houses in that area he charges a higher interest rate and down payment than he normally would charge that particular buyer given his credit score and income. This can be best described as an example of:
a)
A. redlining
b)
B. steering.
c)
C. blockbusting.
d)
D. a legal practice given the economic projection.
77.
Angela has a listing that is being sold because the prior owner died in the home. Which of the following best describes her responsibility to disclose this fact in her advertising?
a)
A. She has no responsibility to advertise or disclose this fact due to caveat emptor.
b)
B. She has no responsibility to advertise this fact.
c)
C. She must disclose the death as it constitutes a material fact.
d)
D. This must be disclosed by the seller.
78.
Jackson is in the process of acquiring a new residential listing. He states that the listing fee will be 6% of the sales price. When the seller asks why everyone seems to charge the same rate he should:
a)
A. state that 6% is the "going rate" pretty much all over town.
b)
B. state that is the MLS rate that has been agreed to by its members.
c)
C. state that is the rate that the REALTORS~ all charge.
d)
D. state that each firm sets their own rates independent of any other firm's rate.
79.
L.B. is a broker that received a call from a prospective buyer a month ago inquiring about a particular property. When L.B. told the buyer this house has just been sold the buyer asks him to keep him in mind should a similar property come on the market. A house very similar has just been listed but when L.B. goes to call this buyer he discovers that he is registered on the Do Not Call registry. What should L.B. do?
a)
A. He can legally call this buyer because the buyer had asked him 30 days ago to call if a similar property comes on the market.
b)
B. L.B. cannot call this particular buyer as his phone number is on the registry.
c)
C. L.B. can call this buyer for up to 180 days from the date of the first call.
d)
D. L.B. can only call this buyer if he had signed a buyer agency agreement when they first spoke.
80.
A person living on the managed premises as a salaried employee engaged to rent and lease apartments is called a(n):
a)
A. property manager.
b)
B. rental agent.
c)
C. employee manager.
d)
D. resident manager.
81.
All of the following are required of property managers EXCEPT:
a)
A. showing and leasing property.
b)
B. deciding owner's objectives.
c)
C. collecting rent.
d)
D. providing for the protection of tenants.
82.
The first step in creating an owner-manager relationship is which of the following?
a)
A. management proposal
b)
B. management report
c)
C. management agreement
d)
D. management fee
83.
A property manager's fee is often a combination of a base fee and a percentage of which of the following?
a)
A. gross potential income
b)
B. gross operating income
c)
C. gross effective income
d)
D. net operating income
84.
Periodic financial reports provided to the owner are called:
a)
A. stabilized budgets.
b)
B. operating reports.
c)
C. management statements.
d)
D. property management reports.
85.
A property manager's duties typically include all EXCEPT which of the following?
a)
A. maintaining the property
b)
B. collecting rents and security deposits
c)
C. instituting legal actions on behalf of the owner
d)
D. giving the owner legal advice regarding eviction procedures
86.
In qualifying and selection of tenants the property manager's duties would include all EXCEPT:
a)
A. obtaining a copy of the prospective tenant's credit report.
b)
B. obtaining a copy of the prospective tenant's criminal background check.
c)
C. determining the prospective tenant's "track record" of paying rent and fulfilling rental obligations.
d)
D. inquiring of the tenant's familial status so the prospective tenant can be placed in units where other families with children are located
87.
The principal functions of a property manager include all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
A. renting space, collecting rents, and paying expenses for the property.
b)
B. investing the owner's proceeds to acquire more quality rental investment properties.
c)
C. producing the best possible net operating income from the property.
d)
D. maintaining and increasing the value of the principal's investment.
88.
A purchaser has contracted to buy a home for $167,900 and the lender has agreed to make him an 85% LTV mortgage at 6.25%. The appraisal has just been completed and the property appraised for only $165,000. What would be the maximum loan amount the lender will make on this purchase?
a)
A. $139,815
b)
B. $140,250
c)
C. $142,715
d)
D. $143,150
89.
A buyer has recently contracted to purchase a duplex that rents for $750 per month per side. If closing is to occur on the 21st of the month, how would the resulting entry for rental income appear on the settlement statement?
a)
A. $450 debit - seller, credit - buyer
b)
B. $1,050 debit - seller, credit - buyer
c)
C. $525 credit - buyer, debit - seller
d)
D. $225 debit - seller, credit - buyer
90.
If a real estate agent listed and sold a property for $90,000 and received 60% of the 7% commission paid to her employing broker, how much did the agent receive?
a)
A. $2,520
b)
B. $2,646
c)
C. $3,780
d)
D. $5,400
91.
A property was recently sold for $170,000, and the monthly payment on the $160,000 fully amortizing mortgage loan at 6% APR for a 20-year term is $1,146. What would be the outstanding loan balance due after the first monthly payment?
a)
A. $159,654
b)
B. $158,854
c)
C. $159,200
d)
D. $169,654
92.
In making a mortgage loan of $190,000, a lending institution charged sufficient discount points to increase the yield on the loan from 8% to 8 1/8%. The cost of the points was:
a)
A. $190
b)
B. $237.50
c)
C. $1,900
d)
D. $3,800
93.
A triangular tract of land is 800 feet deep and has highway frontage of 250 yards. If Ajax Realty Company listed this property at 9% commission and sold it for $15,000 per acre, what was Ajax's commission? (Round sales price and commission to the nearest whole dollar amount.)
a)
A. $18,596
b)
B. $3,099
c)
C. $9,298
d)
D. $27,893
94.
If the closing date is November 10 and the seller has paid the real property taxes of $2,880 for the current tax year, which of the following is the correct closing statement entry for taxes?
a)
A. seller's debit $2,480; buyer's credit
b)
B. seller's credit $400; buyer's debit
c)
C. buyer's credit $400; seller's debit
d)
D. buyer's debit $2,480; seller's credit
95.
Kevin is planning to purchase flooring for his large meeting room. He has been told it will require 88.6 square yards of flooring. The room is 20 feet wide. Without taking into account any walls or other waste how long is this room (rounded)?
a)
A. 30
b)
B. 44
c)
C. 13
d)
D. 40
96.
Cameron has purchased a house and obtained a mortgage loan of $235,000 at 6.5% interest for a term of 30 years. Her monthly P&I payment is $1,485. If she keeps the loan until it is fully amortized what will be the total amount of interest that she will pay over the life of this loan?
a)
A. $534,600
b)
B. $458,250
c)
C. $299,600
d)
D. $235,000
97.
Edward is the property manager of an eight-unit apartment building. The units rent for $600 per month each. Last month one of the units was vacant the entire month and another unit was vacant for 10 days. If Edward is paid a 10% management fee, how much did he earn last month?
a)
A. $400
b)
B. $380
c)
C. $360
d)
D. $460
98.
Ed recently sold his house for $150,000, which is 25% more than he originally paid. How much did he originally pay for the home?
a)
A. $112,500
b)
B. $120,000
c)
C. $150,000
d)
D. $187,500
99.
Dan has contracted to purchase a home for $269,000 with closing set for September 9. He has paid $2,500 in earnest money deposit and $500 as a due diligence fee at the time of his original offer. He has located a lender who agrees to make him a mortgage of $200,000 at an interest rate of 4.5% with one point for loan origination fee and 1% discount point. Dan will be responsible for the payment of interim interest for September. Property taxes for the year are $3,600 have not yet been paid. The taxes are being required to be paid off by the lender at the closing. In addition, the following items will be paid at the closing by the party who would traditionally pay for them: attorney fees $1,200, title insurance $538, survey $450, deed preparation $80, recording fees $35, and revenue stamps using state rate. Dan has paid $450 for the appraisal and $65 for the credit report during the time of loan application. How much money in certified funds will Dan need to bring to the closing? (Round answer to nearest whole dollar amount.)
a)
A. $75,763
b)
B. $75,263
c)
C. $74,7l3
d)
D. $73,883
100.
Ella has recently contracted to sell her home for $179,000 and has agreed to pay the broker a sales commission of 5%. The outstanding loan balance as of the March 17 date of closing is $103,650. Property taxes are estimated to be $1,080 and are to be prorated. The seller has agreed to pay $80 for deed preparation in addition to revenue stamps. At the time of the offer,the buyer paid a $1,500 earnest money deposit and a $300 due diligence fee. In addition, the seller has also agreed to pay $250 as a carpet cleaning fee. How much will Ella "net" at the closing?
a)
A. $65,897
b)
B. $65,643
c)
C. $65,481
d)
D. $65,181
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