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PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE | BUILDING LAWS P.B. PART 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Construction in a building involving changes in the materials used, partitioning, locations/sizes of openings, structural parts, existing utilities and equipment without increasing the overall area.

a)

Alteration

b)

Renovation

c)

Slum upgrading

d)

Redecoration

2.

The transfer of buildings or portions thereof from an original location to another, either within the same lot or to a different one.

a)

Evacuation

b)

Reassembly

c)

Moving

d)

Disaster displacement

3.

Any physical change made on a building/ structure to increase its value, utility and/ or to improve its aesthetic quality

a)

Slum upgrading

b)

Renovation

c)

Interior design

d)

Architectural interiors

4.

Which of the following is NOT true about the building official, according to Rule II of the IRR of PD 1096?

a)

The building official must either be a duly registered architect or civil engineer

b)

The building official must be of good moral character

c)

The building official must have at least five years of diversified and professional experience in building design and construction

d)

All of the above are true

5.

Which of the following violations is the gravest, according to Rule II of the NBC IRR?

a)

Failure to post Certificate of Occupancy

b)

Use or occupancy of building/structure without appropriate Certificate of Occupancy

c)

Non-compliance with work stoppage order for construction or demolition without permit

d)

Non-compliance with the work stoppage order for the alteration, addition, conversion, or repair without

permit

6.

Whose duty is it to declare buildings as ruinous or dangerous?

a)

This is the building official’s duty

b)

This is the secretary’s duty

c)

This is the architect’s duty

d)

This is the PRBOA’s duty

7.

Which of the following does NOT require a building permit?

a)

A small patio,only 25 sqm. in area, resting directly on the ground

b)

A low garden masonry wall that is only 6 meters long and only 1.5 meters high

c)

A greenhouse that measures 2 meters x 3

meters only

d)

A mini-aviary measuring 3 meters x 4 meters with a maximum height of less than 6 meters measured from the ground to the apex of the roof

8.

What is the minimum distance required between eaves and the rear and side property lines?

a)

500mm

b)

750mm

c)

1000mm

d)

None of the above.

9.

What is the minimum front setback required for an industrial project when the RROW adjoining the property is 30 meters wide?

a)

9.00 meters

b)

8.00 meters

c)

6.00 meters

d)

5.00 meters

10.

A written authorization granted by the Building Official to an applicant allowing him to proceed with construction after plans, specifications and other pertinent documents have been found to be in conformity with the Code

a)

Building permit

b)

Occupancy permit

c)

FSIC

d)

FSEC

11.

According to Rule II of the NBC IRR, which does not fall under civil/structural documents?

a)

Roof framing plans

b)

Boring and load tests

c)

Seismic analysis

d)

All of the above are included under civil/structural documents

12.

Firewalls are not allowed for R1 developments. However, an abutment of up to 3.20m in height is allowed, provided that above ____, the abutment shall be made of perforated concrete blocks.

a)

1.00m

b)

1.20m

c)

1.50m

d)

1.70m

13.

Does the law permit the owner to proceed with ground preparation and excavation works before the issuance of the building permit?

a)

No. The owner must wait for the building permit to be issued before he can proceed with excavation works.

b)

Yes, as long as the Building Official issues the Ground Preparation and Excavation Permit and as long as the owner follows the corresponding rules/requirements.

c)

The NBC is silent on this matter.

d)

Both A and C.

14.

Does the law permit the owner to occupy completed portions of the building even though other parts are still being constructed?

a)

No. The entire building must be completed first and the Certificate of Occupancy for the entire building must be issued before anyone can occupy any portion of the building.

b)

No, this is extremely dangerous. There must be no ongoing works within the building before anyone may be allowed to occupy it.

c)

Yes, if the Building Official grants a Partial Certificate of Occupancy to the owner.

d)

Both A and B

15.

For a sloping lot with a 2.00m difference between the highest and lowest points of the lot, where will the established grade line be for building height determination?

a)

The lowest point of the lot

b)

The highest point of the lot

c)

The average between the two points

d)

None of the above

16.

What is the minimum parking slot size for a standard truck?

a)

2.50m x 5.00m

b)

3.00 x 9.00m

c)

3.60 x 12.00m

d)

3.60 x 18.00m

17.

If you add the ISA and the USA, what will you get?

a)

TOSL

b)

PSO

c)

MACA

d)

AMBF

18.

If you subtract the ISAmax from the MACA, what will you get?

a)

TOSLmin

b)

PSOmax

c)

USAmin

d)

BHL

19.

If you multiply the FLAR by the TLA, what will you get?

a)

AMBF

b)

GFA

c)

TGFA

d)

MACA

20.

What is the minimum area for habitable rooms,

20.

according to the National Building Code?

a)

1.20 sqm

b)

3.00 sqm

c)

6.00 sqm

d)

12.00 sqm

21.

What is the minimum air space provision per person for habitable rooms?

a)

3.00 cubic meters

b)

12.00 cubic meters

c)

14 cubic meters

d)

18 cubic meters

22.

What is the minimum width for an access road serving an interior lot intended to serve 4 dwelling units?

a)

3.00m

b)

4.00m

c)

5.00m

d)

8.00m

23.

What is the minimum ceiling height required for the seventh floor of a naturally-ventilated building?

a)

1.80m

b)

2.10m

c)

2.40m

d)

2.70m

24.

For agricultural areas, the NBC requires at least _____ of easement for each side of the waterway.

a)

3.00m

b)

10.00m

c)

20.00m

d)

40.00m

25.

Townhouses characterize which zoning classification?

a)

R-2

b)

R-4

c)

R-5

d)

C-1

26.

According to Article 1723 of the Civil Code, who shall be held liable if a building collapses more than 10 years after completion due to the use of inferior materials?

a)

The architect or the engineer who drew up the plans

b)

The contractor and the construction supervisor

c)

The building official who reviewed and approved the plans

d)

Both B and C

27.

Before using or occupying a completed building, this document must be issued first.

a)

Building permit

b)

Certificate of inspection

c)

Certificate of compliance

d)

Certificate of occupancy

28.

The Building Code requires that the owner hire a fulltime inspector for the construction. This inspector must be a:

a)

Licensed architect

b)

Licensed mechanical engineer

c)

Licensed contractor

d)

Either A or B

29.

What are the allowable firewall configurations for an R3 project?

a)

A. Allowed only on one side of property

b)

B. Allowed on both sides of the property

c)

C. Allowed on one side and the rear

d)

Both B and C

30.

This term refers to any new construction which increases the height or area of an existing building.

a)

Addition

b)

Alteration

c)

Renovation

d)

Conversion

31.

This uses wood construction with protective fireresistant materials and is one-hour fire-resistive throughout.

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III and IV

d)

Type V

32.

The provisions of the National Building Code apply to all public and private buildings except for:

a)

BP 220 projects

b)

Buildings made of native materials like wood, nipa, and lumber

c)

Projects that only involve non-structural repairs

d)

Both A and B

33.

Which is not included among the valid grounds for declaring a building as dangerous?

a)

Structural hazard

b)

Aesthetic deficiency

c)

Unsafe electrical wiring

d)

Inadequate sanitation

34.

Type II constructions are not allowed in which zones?

a)

Non-fire restricted zone

b)

Fire restrictive zone

c)

Highly fire restrictive zone

d)

Both B and C

35.

On a non-arcaded RROW, signs may be allowed to project by as much as

a)

300mm

b)

600mm

c)

900mm

d)

1200mm

36.

Should a sign be allowed to project beyond the property line and into an arcaded RROW, a minimum vertical clearance of ___ must be maintained from the road surface to the bottom of the sign.

a)

3.00 m

b)

4.27 m

c)

5.00 m

d)

6.00 m

37.

For glass panels that need to be larger than 3.00m x 3.00m, the minimum thickness needs to be:

a)

8mm

b)

10mm

c)

12mm

d)

15mm

38.

According to the NBC, the maximum speed of escalators is

a)

90 feet per minute

b)

120 feet per minute

c)

36 meters per minute

d)

38 meters per minute

39.

According to the NBC, the minimum stairway width for buildings with an occupant load of 10-50 is

a)

1.10m

b)

0.90m

c)

0.75m

d)

0.60m

40.

For protection of pedestrians, what will be required when the distance between the OFB and the inner edge of the sidewalk is equal to 75% of the building height?

a)

A fence only

b)

A canopy only

c)

A fence and a canopy

d)

A fence, a canopy, and a safety net

41.

Every fence or building corner must be truncated at the corner to form a chaflan on roads that are less than 3.60m wide. What is the minimum width of a chaflan?

a)

3.00m

b)

3.60m

c)

4.00m

d)

5.00m

42.

Which formula could be used to yield building bulk?

a)

PSOmax x AMBF

b)

TLA x PSOmax x BHLmeters

c)

PSOmax x TLA / BHLmeters

d)

[ (FLAR TLA) BHLstoreys] x BHLmeters

43.

Which would be included when obtaining GFA?

a)

Balconies with an area of 5 square meters

b)

Parking areas equivalent to half the area of one floor

c)

Utility areas equivalent to not more than one-third of one floor

d)

Fire escape structures if complying to standards stair measurements of the NBC

44.

What is the maximum allowable slope for PWD ramps, according to BP 344?

a)

10%

b)

12%

c)

1:10

d)

1:12

45.

For ramps using the maximum allowable slope, a landing must be provided after every 6.00 meters of horizontal travel distance. What is the minimum length of this landing?

a)

1.00m

b)

1.20m

c)

1.50m

d)

2.00m

46.

What is the minimum width required for a curb cutout leading to a 1.20m-wide crossing?

a)

0.90m

b)

1.00m

c)

1.20m

d)

1.50m

47.

What is the minimum dimension of the required turnabout space for walkways and what should be the maximum distance between two turnabout spaces?

a)

Minimum dimension of 1.20m, center-to-center distance of 15.00m

b)

Minimum dimension of 1.50m, center-to-center distance of 13.50m

c)

Minimum dimension of 1.20m, maximum gap of

12.00m between turning spaces

d)

Minimum dimension of 1.50m, center-to-center distance of 12.00m

48.

Handrails are required for ramps, stairs, and dropped curbs at crossings. These handrails should be installed at what height/s?

a)

700mm and 900mm

b)

800mm and 900mm

c)

900mm and 1000m

d)

900mm only

49.

What is the minimum width of an accessible parking slot?

a)

2.15m

b)

2.50m

c)

2.70m

d)

3.70m

50.

What is required to be provided at the bottom and the top of a ramp?

a)

A turnabout space with a minimum dimension of

1.50m

b)

A vestibule with a level space at least 1.50m wide and

2.00m deep

c)

A curb with a minimum height of 100mm

d)

A level area not less than 1.80m in length

51.

What are the minimum dimensions of a toilet stall for

PWDs?

a)

1.50m x 1.50m

b)

1.50m x 1.80m

c)

1.70m x 1.80m

d)

1.80m x 2.00m

52.

What are the minimum dimensions required for elevators?

a)

Hoistway inside dimensions of 1.10m x 1.40m

b)

Car inside dimensions of 1.10 x 1.40m

c)

Hoistway inside dimensions of 1.10 x 1.70

d)

Car inside dimensions of 1.10 x 1.70

53.

What is the maximum travel distance allowed for accessible elevators?

a)

10.00m from entrance

b)

15.00m from entrance

c)

20.00m from entrance

d)

30.00m from entrance

54.

For PWD washrooms, what is the maximum height allowed for a lavatory counter?

a)

750mm

b)

800mm

c)

850mm

d)

900mm

55.

What is the minimum clear width for doors according to BP 344?

a)

600mm

b)

700mm

c)

800mm

d)

900mm

56.

A central refuge area with a minimum depth of 1.50m is required for crossings if the width of the road to be crossed exceeds

a)

6.50m

b)

8.00m

c)

10.00m

d)

12.00m

57.

Fires involving energized electrical equipment are classified as:

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

58.

For drainage purposes, a maximum cross gradient of ____ toward the road is allowed for dropped curbs.

a)

1:12

b)

1:20

c)

12%

d)

20%

59.

A type of standpipe system in which the pipes are normally not filled with water. Water is introduced into the system thru fire service connections when needed.

a)

Wet standpipe

b)

Dry standpipe

c)

Combination standpipe

d)

Both A and C

60.

What is the maximum allowable riser height for stairs in BP 220?

a)

150 mm.

b)

175 mm.

c)

200 mm.

d)

250 mm.

61.

What is the minimum tread width for stairs in BP 220?

a)

200 mm.

b)

225 mm.

c)

250 mm.

d)

300 mm.

62.

Fires involving ordinary combustible materials such as wood, cloth, rubber and plastics

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class K

d)

Class D

63.

Which of the following is prohibited by BP 220 and PD 957?

a)

A rowhouse cluster of 10 units

b)

A rowhouse cluster of 20 units

c)

A rowhouse cluster 100 m. long

d)

A block 500.00m long with a 2.00m-wide alley approximately at the center

64.

Any visual or audible signal produced by a device or system to warn the occupants of the building or fire fighting elements of the presence or danger of fire

a)

Annunciator panel

b)

Fire signal

c)

Fire alerting system

d)

Fire alarm

65.

An integrated network of hydraulically designed piping system installed in a building, structure or area with outlets arranged in a systematic pattern which automatically discharges water when activated by heat or combustion products from a fire.

a)

Standpipe system

b)

Fire extinguishing system

c)

Sprinkler system

d)

None of the above

66.

What is the prescribed ratio for saleable and nonsaleable lots in PD 957?

a)

30% min saleable, 70% max non-saleable

b)

70% max saleable, 30% min non-saleable

c)

60% max saleable, 40% min non-saleable

d)

None of the above

67.

Which of the following is true?

a)

An alley may be used as property access for socialized developments only

b)

A pathwalk may be used as property access for socialized and economic developments

c)

A pathwalk length of up to 60.00 m. is allowed

d)

An alley must have a minimum width of 1.20 m.

68.

What is the minimum ceiling height required for socialized and economic housing (not including mezzanines)?

a)

2.70 m.

b)

2.40 m.

c)

2.10 m.

d)

2.00 m.

69.

Results of the annual fire pump flow test, the annual main drain test, and the standpipe water flow test should be included in the:

a)

FSCR

b)

FSCCR

c)

FSMR

d)

FSEC

70.

What is the acceptable range of handrail heights according to BP 220?

a)

800-900 mm. from the floor

b)

800-100 mm. from the floor

c)

800-1200 mm. from the floor

d)

800-1500 mm.from the floor

71.

For economic housing, what is the minimum lot area required for single-detached developments?

a)

64 sqm.

b)

72 sqm.

c)

18 sqm.

d)

22 sqm.

72.

For socialized housing, what is the minimum lot frontage required for single-detached developments?

a)

6.00 m.

b)

8.00 m.

c)

10.00 m.

d)

12.00 m.

73.

What is the minimum side setback required for socialized and economic housing?

a)

1.00 m.

b)

1.50 m.

c)

2.00 m.

d)

4.50 m.

74.

Fires in cooking appliances that involve combustible cooking media (vegetable or animal oils and fats) are classified as:

a)

Class K

b)

Class D

c)

Class B

d)

Class A

75.

Which of the following are the last three items on the list of minimum basic needs of human settlements prescribed by BP 220?

a)

Water, power, storm drainage

b)

Water, power, parks and playgrounds

c)

Solid and liquid waste disposal, parks and playgrounds, power

d)

Storm drainage, parks and playgrounds, power

76.

For medium-cost and open market housing developments, what is the minimum area required for parks and playgrounds?

a)

3.5% of gross area

b)

4.0% of gross area

c)

5.0% of gross area

d)

9.0% of gross area

77.

What is the minimum floor area required for open market housing?

a)

18 sqm.

b)

22 sqm.

c)

30 sqm.

d)

42 sqm.

78.

What is the minimum level of completion required for

PD 957?

a)

Shell house

b)

Shell house with doors and windows

c)

Complete house

d)

Complete house without interior partitions

79.

What is the minimum lot area required for open market, duplex housing?

a)

50 sqm.

b)

80 sqm.

c)

96 sqm.

d)

120 sqm.

80.

For BP 220, what is the minimum thickness required for firewalls?

a)

4 inches

b)

5 inches

c)

6 inches

d)

8 inches

81.

Subdivisions abutting main public roads must provide setbacks on both sides of the subdivision entrance for public utility vehicles. What are the minimum dimensions required for the setback?

a)

2.50 m. x 5.00 m.

b)

3.00 m. x 5.00 m.

c)

3.00 m. x 9.00 m.

d)

3.60 m. x 12.00 m.

82.

What is the minimum floor area required for a medium

cost family condominium according to PD 957?

a)

12 sqm.

b)

18 sqm.

c)

22 sqm.

d)

36 sqm.

83.

An integrated piping system connected to a source of extinguishing agent which suppresses fires when actuated by its automatic detecting device

a)

Standpipe system

b)

Automatic fire suppression system

c)

Fire extinguisher

d)

Fire hose

84.

The maximum number of persons that may be allowed to occupy a particular building or space

a)

Maximum occupancy

b)

Building load

c)

Occupant load

d)

Occupant total

85.

This document is issued upon determination that design and specification is in accordance with the provisions of the Fire Code.

a)

FSCR

b)

FSCCR

c)

FSIC

d)

FSEC

86.

Who is violating the Code of Ethics?

a)

An architect who recommends the method of arbitration when it comes to settling disputes

b)

An architect who informs his colleague that he is being hired by the latter’s former client as a new architect for a project

c)

An architect who refuses to make schematic sketches without payment for a client who is short of money

d)

An architect who credits half of his commission from the supplier to the owner’s bill (to add to the owner’s discount)

87.

Are architects allowed to accept gifts from suppliers?

a)

Only when the gift does not exceed the contract amount awarded to that supplier

b)

Only when the gift will not cloud the architect’s judgment and objectivity

c)

Only when the gift was solicited by the architect

d)

The architect is never allowed to accept gifts, no matter how small

88.

Who is not violating the Code of Ethics?

a)

An architect who asks to be considered for a project even though the owner has already begun negotiations with another architect (but no contract yet)

b)

An architect who accepts a commission to remodel a building after notifying the original architect of the commission and ensuring that the previous architect’s contract was properly

terminated

c)

An architect who fails to pay his draftsmen according to the work contract because of his firm’s financial difficulties

d)

All of these architects are violating the Code of Ethics

89.

Which of the following shall take precedence over the other?

a)

An architect’s duty to his client

b)

An architect’s duty to the public

c)

Both A and B are equally important

d)

None of the above

90.

An architect registered and licensed under R.A. No. 9266, who is directly and professionally responsible and liable for the construction supervision of the project

a)

Architect of record

b)

Architect in charge of construction

c)

Architect builder

d)

Consulting architect

91.

Which is not a duty of the PRBOA?

a)

Conduct seminars and workshops as part of the Continuing Professional Development (CPD)

program and as an automatic CPD provider

b)

Adopt an official seal

c)

Suspend the Certificate of Registration of an architect, if necessary

d)

Administer oaths in connection with the Architecture Act

92.

Which is not grounds for removal of a member of the PRBOA?

a)

Inability to perform his or her duties due to sickness

b)

Manipulation of grades in the exams

c)

Removing “Site Planning” from the syllabus of

the exam. This subject should be included because it is extremely important in architecture.

d)

Spreading malicious rumors about an architect that turn out to be false information

93.

Who cannot be elected as a member of the PRBArch today?

a)

An architect who ceased all teaching functions and connections with any school or review center on

September 24, 2010 only

b)

An architect who started practicing architecture on

September 24, 2003 only

c)

An architect who has never been convicted of

crimes involving moral turpitude and who has plenty of related experience as current chairman of the Philippine Institute of Architects

d)

An architect who has never received a commission for high-rise building projects

94.

Can a person who is not a citizen of the Philippines take the licensure examination for architects?

a)

Absolutely. The PRC encourages and freely allows all architecture graduates from other countries to take the exam as part of the globalization initiative.

b)

Yes, but there are conditions.

c)

No. Only Filipinos are allowed to take the examination.

d)

Yes, if they have experience working under a Filipino mentor for a project on Philippine soil.

95.

Which of the following is grounds for suspension/revocation of an architect’s license?

a)

Fraud in the exam application

b)

Unprofessional conduct

c)

Violation of the minor provisions of RA 9266

d)

All of the above

96.

Which person is violating RA 9266?

a)

An architecture graduate who posts an advertisement on www.OLX.ph that he can prepare plans that are just as good as a licensed architect’s

b)

A secretary who, upon her boss’ instruction, offers her boss’ architectural design services even though her boss is not a licensed architect

c)

A person who uses another name instead of his/her registered name because the new name is more marketable and is easier to remember

d)

All of these persons are violating RA 9266

97.

When the project is not yet executed, what happens to the intellectual property of the design/drawings?

a)

The intellectual property for the design does not exist until the project is built

b)

The intellectual property for the design is the owner’s until the project is built

c)

The intellectual property for the design remains

the same because the construction of the project is irrelevant to intellectual property

d)

The intellectual property for the design is still the architect’s because it only becomes the owner’s AFTER the project is built

98.

Which will need to be registered with the SEC?

a)

A. A sole proprietorship

b)

B. A partnership

c)

C. An architectural firm

d)

Both B and C

99.

Which method of selection is recommended for small projects?

a)

Direct selection

b)

Comparative selection

c)

Architectural design competition

d)

All of the above are recommended

100.

In an architectural design competition, which is true about the jury?

a)

The jury should be even-numbered

b)

There should be at least seven members

c)

All of the jurors must be licensed architects because only then will they be qualified to judge the designs

d)

None of this is true