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Eye EXAM

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which retinal structure allows for perception of general shapes and shades of gray in dim light?

a)

a. cones

b)

b. fovea

c)

c. rods

d)

d. macula

2.

What kind of anesthetic block is used for a vitrectomy procedure?

a)

a. Bier

b)

b. spinal

c)

c. caudal

d)

d. retrobulbar

3.

Perfluoropropane and sulfur hexafluoride are used to:

a)

a. anesthetize the eye

b)

b. constrict the pupil

c)

c. keep pressure on the retina

d)

d. prevent post-op infections

4.

Which of the following is a pharmacologic agent that constricts the pupil of the eye?

a)

a. acetylcholine

b)

b. atropine

c)

c. betamethasone

d)

d. viscoelastic

5.

A trephine is used in which ophthalmologic procedure?

a)

a. dacryocystorhinostomy

b)

b. enucleation

c)

c. keratoplasty

d)

d. strabismus correction

6.

Which sterile irrigation fluid is used for ophthalmic procedures?

a)

BSS

b)

D5W

c)

H2O

d)

NACL

7.

The normal condition of the lens of the eye is:

a)

a. opaque and biconcave

b)

b. opaque and biconvex

c)

c. transparent and biconcave

d)

d. transparent and biconvex

8.

What is another name for the traction sutures used to manipulate the globe of the eye?

a)

a. bridle

b)

b. buckle

c)

c. retention

d)

d. tunic

9.

Which of the following represents the replacement device for the cataract lens in the eye?

a)

a. IOC

b)

b. IOL

c)

c. IOP

d)

d. IUD

10.

Where is the lacrimal gland located?

a)

a. lower lid, inner angle of the orbit

b)

b. lower lid, outer angle of the orbit

c)

c. upper lid, inner angle of the orbit

d)

d. upper lid, outer angle of the orbit

11.

Into which structures do the lacrimal ducts drain tears?

a)

a. ethmoid sinuses

b)

b. maxillary sinuses

c)

c. nasal cavity

d)

d. oropharynx

12.

Which procedure done on an eye with internal malfunction or loss of contents and no possible recovery of sight provides better mobility and cosmetic result with a prosthetic eye?

a)

a. iridectomy

b)

b. enucleation

c)

c. evisceration

d)

d. recession

13.

Which procedure surgically treats glaucoma?

a)

a. enucleation

b)

b. iridectomy

c)

c. keratoplasty

d)

d. scleral buckle

14.

What is the portion of the eye between the cornea and the iris in which aqueous fluid flows and nourishes tissues?

a)

a. anterior chamber

b)

b. posterior chamber

c)

c. fovea

d)

d. macula

15.

What is another name for a cystic structure caused by an inflammatory response to material trapped in a meibomian gland?

a)

a. cataract

b)

b. chalazion

c)

c. ectropian

d)

d. entropian

16.

Which of the following is an inward turning of the eyelid with resulting corneal irritation?

a)

a. cataract

b)

b. chalazion

c)

c. ectropian

d)

d. entropian

17.

Which instrument is used to remove the cataract lens in preparation for intraocular lens placement?

a)

a. CUSA

b)

b. trephine

c)

c. ocutome

d)

d. phacoemulsification hand piece

18.

Which of the following is the name of locking or nonlocking needle holders frequently used in ophthalmology?

a)

a. Bishop-Harmon

b)

b. Castroviejo

c)

c. Colibri

d)

d. Desmarres

19.

Which of the following scissors would NOT be used for ophthalmologic procedures?

a)

a. Jorgenson

b)

b. McPherson-Vannas

c)

c. Stevens tenotomy

d)

d. Wescott

20.

What passes through the canal of Schlemm?

a)

a. aqueous humor

b)

b. vitreous humor

c)

c. lacrimal fluid

d)

d. optic nerve

21.

Misalignment or deviation from coordinated movement of the eyes is:

a)

a. astigmatism

b)

b. macular degeneration.

c)

c. retinal detachment

d)

d. strabismus

22.

If looking at the right eye of a patient and assigning clock positions of 12, 3, 6, and 9 o’clock to the rectus eye muscles, which of the following would be CORRECT?

a)

a. 12 = superior; 3 = medial; 6 = inferior; 9 = lateral

b)

b. 12 = superior; 3 = lateral; 6 = inferior; 9 = medial

c)

c. 12 = inferior; 3 = medial; 6 = lateral; 9 = superior

d)

d. 12 = inferior; 3 = lateral; 6 = medial; 9 = superior

23.

Which of the following is the term for “crossed eyes”?

a)

a. amblyopia

b)

b. estropia

c)

c. myopia

d)

d. presbyopia

24.

Which structure of the eye is colored and its muscles constrict or relax to control the amount of light entering the pupil?

a)

a. fovea

b)

b. iris

c)

c. lens

d)

d. macula

25.

How many tunics comprise the structure of the globe of the eye?

a)

a. one

b)

b. two

c)

c. three

d)

d. four

26.

Which two structures form the external tunic of the globe of the eye?

a)

a. pupil and iris

b)

b. cornea and sclera

c)

c. macula and retina

d)

d. ciliary body and choroid coat

27.

Which procedure involves adjusting sutures after the patient has recovered completely from anesthesia, but within 24 hours?

a)

a. chalazion repair

b)

b. dacryocystorhinostomy

c)

c. entropian repair

d)

d. recession/resection

28.

Which structure of the eye is the thin, transparent lining of the inner surface of the eyelid and covers the sclera?

a)

a. conjunctiva

b)

b. cornea

c)

c. lens

d)

d. limbus

29.

Which of the following is NOT used for visualization in ophthalmologic procedures?

a)

a. colposcope

b)

b. loupes

c)

c. microscope

d)

d. ophthalmoscope

30.

Which of the following names represents an eye speculum that resembles an uncoiled metal paper clip?

a)

a. Barraquer

b)

b. Castroviejo

c)

c. Desmarres

d)

d. McPherson

31.

All of the following are methods of intraocular lens insertion EXCEPT:

a)

a. fan-folded through small incision

b)

b. flat, original shape through larger incision

c)

c. folded in half through medium incision

d)

d. rolled up and passed through small tube

32.

How would a definitive diagnosis of detached retina be obtained if hemorrhage is present in the eye?

a)

a. angiography

b)

b. CT scan

c)

c. direct view with ophthalmoscope

d)

d. surgical vitrectomy

33.

What is the name of the gelatin-like fluid that fills the posterior cavity of the eye?

a)

a. aqueous humor

b)

b. crystalline lens

c)

c. lacrimal fluid

d)

d. vitreous humor

34.

For which surgical procedure would an Fragmatome be used?

a)

a. vitrectomy

b)

b. enucleation

c)

c. keratoplasty

d)

d. strabismus correction

35.

Which substance is used following vitrectomy for long-term support of the retina with fewer restrictions on position?

a)

a. BSS

b)

b. silicone oil

c)

c. hydroxyapatite

d)

d. perfluoropropane

36.

What is the name of the membrane that contains and encloses the vitreous humor in the posterior cavity?

a)

a. ciliary body

b)

b. conjunctiva

c)

c. hyaloid

d)

d. sclera

37.

Where would a Veirs rod be placed to relieve or prevent obstruction?

a)

a. canaliculus

b)

b. choroid body

c)

c. conjunctiva

d)

d. crystalline lens

38.

What is the condition of the lens that is treated by cataract extraction?

a)

a. abraded

b)

b. detached

c)

c. lacerated

d)

d. opacified

39.

In which of the following procedures would sutures most likely NOT be necessary?

a)

a. extracapsular cataract extraction

b)

b. intracapsular cataract extraction

c)

c. recession/resection strabismus correction

d)

d. vitrectomy with scleral buckle

40.

What is the name of the opening created in the outer tunic for insertion of the infusion cannula for excision of vitreous?

a)

a. dacryocystorhinostomy

b)

b. iridotomy

c)

c. sclerotomy

d)

d. vitrectomy

41.

What is the name of the structure that is a small depression containing only cones and has the highest visual acuity?

a)

a. ciliary body

b)

b. central fovea

c)

c. choroid coat

d)

d. crystalline lens

42.

Tetracaine drops are used in ophthalmologic procedures to:

a)

a. fill the posterior cavity to prevent retinal detachment

b)

b. numb the surface of the eye and surrounding structures

c)

c. irrigate the cornea to prevent drying and abrasions

d)

d. flush traumatic laceration tissue to prevent post-op SSI

43.

Which of the following techniques uses a laser to treat retinal tears or proliferative diabetic retinopathy?

a)

a. endophotocoagulation

b)

b. keratoplasty

c)

c. phacoemulsification

d)

d. trephination

44.

Which procedure may be done in conjunction with vitrectomy if the surgeon is unable to gain visualization of the posterior cavity of the eye?

a)

a. enucleation

b)

b. iridectomy

c)

c. keratoplasty

d)

d. lensectomy

45.

What is the term for the six muscles that provide movement of the eye?

a)

a. accessory

b)

b. extrinsic

c)

c. intrinsic

d)

d. involuntary

46.

Which of the following is an intraocular procedure?

a)

a. chalazion repair

b)

b. entropian repair

c)

c. strabismus correction

d)

d. vitrectomy

47.

What structure is avascular, external, and its function is to refract light rays?

a)

a. iris

b)

b. sclera

c)

c. retina

d)

d. cornea

48.

Which structure has four layers: epithelial cells, substantia propria, elastic lamina, and endothelial cells?

a)

a. cornea

b)

b. crystalline lens

c)

c. macula

d)

d. retina

49.

Which type of needle is frequently used in ophthalmologic procedures?

a)

a. 1/2 circle blunt

b)

b. 5/8 circle taper

c)

c. straight Keith

d)

d. spatula

50.

50. Cryotherapy uses which of the following to seal retinal tears and holes?

a)

a. cold

b)

b. heat

c)

c. monopolar current

d)

d. ultrasonic energy

51.

Overhead OR spotlights should be placed on highest setting to provide necessary illumination during intraocular procedures.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Donor corneas must be screened for HIV, HBV, and CJD prior to transplant.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

The surgical technologist must develop the ability to transfer very small, delicate instruments into the surgeon’s hand in a functional manner so that he or she does not have to look away from the microscope.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Cataracts are categorized as a general condition of aging rather than a disease process.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Gas injected into the posterior cavity of the eye following vitrectomy is more stable and requires fewer restrictions of a patient with regard to positioning and altitude than silicone oil.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Unit of measurement of the optical power of a magnifying lens

a)

Split

b)

Tarsal plate

c)

Diplopia

d)

Diopter

57.

Name of line of miniscalpel blades used in ophthalmology and ENT

a)

Diplopia

b)

Split

c)

Vitrector

d)

Beaver

58.

Type of drape with a rounded fenestration and adhesive backing; used when procedure involves the globe of the eye

a)

Diopter

b)

Canthus

c)

Aperture

d)

Split

59.

Angular junction of the eyelids at either corner of the eye

a)

Beaver

b)

Tarsal plate

c)

Canthus

d)

Trabecular meshwork

60.

Variable-rate, reciprocating, and cutting-tip hand piece attached to suction

a)

Split

b)

Corneal dystrophy

c)

Diopter

d)

Vitrector

61.

Type of drape sheet with “U” configuration and adhesive edged “legs”; used for procedures requiring broader access to extraocular areas

a)

Aperture

b)

Split

c)

Trabecular meshwork

d)

Diplopia

62.

Visual defect in which one object is seen in duplicate; treated with adjustable suture technique of strabismus correction

a)

Diplopia

b)

Split

c)

Diopter

d)

Tarsal plate

63.

Hereditary, progressive, noninflammatory disease of the anterior surface of the eye; diagnostic indication for keratoplasty

a)

Vitrector

b)

Tarsal plate

c)

Slipt

d)

Corneal dystrophy

64.

Thick connective tissue structure that provides integrity to the shape of the eyelid: may be repositioned in entropian repair

a)

Tarsal plate

b)

Aperture

c)

Split

d)

Canthus

65.

Porous, circumferential band of tiny canals through which the aqueous humor drains

a)

Trabecular meshwork

b)

Corneal dystrophy

c)

Split

d)

Beaver

66.

The cavity of the eye located anterior to the iris and containing the aqueous humor

a)

anterior chamber

b)

posterior chamber

67.

An irrigant used for the eye during eye procedures

a)

balanced salt solution (BSS)

b)

diathermy

68.

A pathological condition in which the crystalline lens has become opaque due to age or trauma

a)

cataract

b)

trephine

69.

A small, red, inflamed lump that can be located on the inner or outer surface of the eyelid; caused by an inflammatory reaction to material trapped inside the meibomian gland in the eyelid

a)

chalazion

b)

intracapsular cataract extraction

70.

Combining form referring to the lacrimal apparatus of the eye

a)

dacryo-

b)

lacrimal

71.

The use of high-frequency electromagnetic currents to cauterize blood vessels and destroy neoplasms

a)

diathermy

b)

strabismus

72.

En bloc removal of a structure; usually refers to the removal of the eye

a)

enucleation

b)

chalazion

73.

A method for surgically removing a cataract through an incision in the side of the cornea and replacing the diseased lens with an intraocular implant

a)

extracapsular cataract extraction

b)

globe

74.

The six muscles of the eye that come from the bones of the orbit and function to move the eye in various directions

a)

extrinsic muscles

b)

strabismus

75.

The eyeball in its entirety

a)

globe

b)

dacryo-

76.

A method for surgically removing a cataract by injecting alpha chymotrypsin into the posterior chamber to digest the suspensory ligament so that the diseased lens can be removed in its entirety

a)

intracapsular cataract extraction

b)

keratoconus

77.

Progressive eye disease that causes the normally round cornea shape to become irregular and cone-shaped

a)

keratoconus

b)

cataract

78.

A facial bone that, along with the zygomatic bone and palate, helps to form the orbit of the eye

a)

lacrimal

b)

diathermy

79.

The area behind the iris, but in front of and behind the lens

a)

posterior chamber

b)

Anterior chamber

80.

A pathological condition involving a misalignment or deviation of the eyes that prevents them from working simultaneously to track visual objects

a)

strabismus

b)

balanced salt solution (BSS)

81.

A cylindrical saw for cutting a circular piece of bone

a)

trephine

b)

chalazion

82.

An investing membrane

a)

tunic

b)

globe