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WorksheetsMICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY
Total questions: 151
Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins
The aseptic collection of blood cultures requires that the skin be cleansed with:
2% iodine and then 70% alcohol solution
70% alcohol and then 2% iodine or an iodophor
70% alcohol and then 95% alcohol
95% alcohol only
When cleansing the skin with alcohol and then iodine for the collection of a blood culture, the iodine (or iodophor) should remain intact on the skin for at least:
10 sec
30 sec
60 sec
5 min
What is the purpose of adding 0.025%–0.050% sodium polyanetholsulfonate (SPS) to nutrient broth media for the collection of blood cultures
It inhibits phagocytosis and complement
It promotes formation of a blood clot
It enhances growth of anaerobes
It functions as a preservative
A flexible calcium alginate nasopharyngeal swab is the collection device of choice for recovery of which organism from the nasopharynx?
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Bacteroides fragilis
Semisolid transport media such as Amies, Stuart, or Cary–Blair are suitable for the transport of swabs for culture of most pathogens except:
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Enterobacteriaceae
Campylobacter fetus
Streptococcus pneumonia
Select the method of choice for recovery of anaerobic bacteria from a deep abscess.
Cotton fiber swab of the abscess area
Skin snip of the surface tissue
Needle aspirate after surface decontamination
Swab of the scalpel used for débridement
Select the primary and differential media of choice for recovery of most fecal pathogens
MacConkey, blood, birdseed, and Campylobacter (Campy) agars
Hektoen, MacConkey, Campy,colistin–nalidixic acid (CNA) agars
CNA and Christensen urea agars and thioglycollate media
Blood, Campy, Mueller–Hinton agars, and thioglycollate media
Select the media of choice for recovery of Vibrio cholerae from a stool specimen
MacConkey agar and thioglycollate media
Thiosulfate–citrate–bile–sucrose (TCBS) agar and alkaline peptone water (APW) broth
Blood agar and selenite-F (SEL) broth
Colistin Nalidixic Acid
Colistin–nalidixic acid agar (CNA) is used primarily for the recovery of:
Neisseria species
Enterobacteriaceae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus aureus
Chocolate agar and modified Thayer–Martin agar are used for the recovery of:
Haemophilus spp. and Neisseria spp., respectively
Haemophilus spp. and N. gonorrhoeae, respectively
Neisseria spp. and Streptococcus spp., respectively
Streptococcus spp. and Staphylococcus spp
Cycloserine–cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) is used for the recovery of:
Yersinia enterocolitica
Yersinia intermedia
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium difficile
Deoxycholate agar (DCA) is useful for the isolation of:
Enterobacteriaceae
Enterococcus spp.
Staphylococcus spp.
Neisseria spp
Specimens for virus culture should be transported in media containing
Antibiotics and 5% sheep blood
Saline and 5% sheep blood
22% bovine albumin
Antibiotics and nutrient
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) should be cultured immediately, but if delayed the specimen should be:
Refrigerated at 4°C to 6°C
Frozen at –20°C
Stored at room temperature for no longer than 24 hours
Incubated at 37°C and cultured as soon as possible
The most sensitive method for the detection of β-lactamase in bacteria is by the use of:
Chromogenic cephalosporin
Penicillin
Penicillin
Chloramphenicol acetyltransferase
The breakpoint of an antimicrobial drug refers to:
The amount needed to cause bacteriostasis
A minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of 16 μg/mL or greater
A MIC of 64 μg/mL or greater
The level of drug that is achievable in serum
Which of the following variables may change the results of an MIC?
Inoculum size
Incubation time
Growth rate of the bacteria
All of the given choices
Which class of antibiotics is used for the treatment of serious gram-negative infections as well as infections with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Cephalosporins
Penicillin
Tetracyclines
Aminoglycosides
A test for the hydrolysis of esculin in the presence of bile is especially useful in identifying species of the genus
Abiotrophia
Corynebacterium
Enterococcus
Staphylococcus
The organism associated with a disease characterized by the presence of a pseudomembrane in the throat and the production of an exotoxin that is absorbed into the bloodstream with a lethal effect is
Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Enterotoxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for causing
Carbuncles
Enterocolitis
Impetigo
Scalded skin syndrome
Streptococcus pyogenes can be presumptively identified using
PYR disk
ONPG disk
SPS disk
Optochin disk
A gram-positive coccus that is catalase positive, nonmotile, lysostaphin resistant, and modified oxidase positive is best identified as a member of the genus
Micrococcus
Lactococcus
Pediococcus
Staphylococcus
Staphylococcus saprophyticus, a recognized pathogen, is a cause of
Furuncles
Impetigo
Otitis media
Urinary tract infections
The etiologic agent most commonly associated with septicemia and meningitis of newborns is
Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus bovis group
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pyogenes
Which of the following is the most
commonly isolated species of Bacillus
in opportunistic infections such as
bacteremia, post-traumatic infections
of the eye, and endocarditis
B. circulans
B. cereus
B. licheniformis
B. subtilis
Streptococci obtain all their energy from
the fermentation of sugars to
Formic acid
Lactic acid
Succinic acid
Valeric acid
Streptococci are unable to synthesize the
enzyme
Catalase
Kinase
Hyaluronidase
Lipase
The beta-hemolysis produced by group A Streptococcus seen on the surface of a sheep blood agar plate is primarily the result of streptolysin
H
M
0
S
An identifying characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus is
DNase negative
Coagulase negative
Mannitol fermentation positive
Growth inhibition in presence of Iincreased salt
Rust-colored sputum in cases of lobar pneumonia is characteristic of which of the following possible etiologic agents?
Corynebacterium jeikeium
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pyogenes
Which of the following species of Bacillus is nonmotile?
B. cereus
B. subtilis
B. anthracis
B. thuringiensis
Which of the following is not associated with Staphylococcus aureus?
Endotoxin production
Clumping factor production
Deoxyribonuclease production
Hemolysin production
The pulmonary form of anthrax is known as
Valley fever
Walking pneumonia
Farmers' lung
Woolsorters disease
Biochemically, the Enterobacteriaceae are gram-negative rods that:
Ferment glucose, reduce nitrate to nitrite, and are oxidase negative
Ferment glucose, produce indophenol oxidase, and form gas
Ferment lactose and reduce nitrite to nitrogen gas
Ferment lactose and produce indophenol oxidase
The ortho-nitrophenyl-β-galactopyranoside (ONPG) test is most useful when differentiating
Salmonella spp. from Pseudomonas spp.
Shigella spp. from some strains of Escherichia coli
Klebsiella spp. from Enterobacter spp.
Proteus vulgaris from Salmonella spp.
The Voges–Proskauer (VP) test detects which end product of glucose fermentation?
Acetoin
Nitrite
Acetic acid
Hydrogen sulfide
At which pH does the methyl red (MR) test become positive?
7.0
6.5
6.0
4.5
A positive Simmons citrate test is seen as a:
Blue color in the medium after 24 hours of incubation at 35°C
Red color in the medium after 18 hours of incubation at 35°C
Yellow color in the medium after 24 hours of incubation at 35°C
Green color in the medium after 18 hours of incubation at 35°C
In the test for urease production, ammonia reacts to form which product
Ammonium citrate
Ammonium carbonate
Ammonium oxalate
Ammonium nitrate
Which of the following reagents is added to detect the production of indole?
p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
Bromcresol purple
Methyl red
Cytochrome oxidase
Decarboxylation of the amino acids lysine, ornithine, an
Ammonia
Urea
CO2
Amines
Which genera are positive for phenylalanine deaminase?
Enterobacter, Escherichia, and Salmonella
Morganella, Providencia, and Proteus
Klebsiella and Enterobacter
Proteus, Escherichia, and Shigella
Which genera of the Enterobacteriaceae are known to cause diarrhea and are considered enteric pathogens?
Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Providencia, and Proteus
Escherichia, Salmonella, Shigella, and Yersinia
Pseudomonas, Moraxella, Acinetobacter, and Aeromonas
Enterobacter, Citrobacter, and Morganella
Which of the following tests best differentiates Shigella species from E. coli?
Hydrogen sulfide, VP, citrate, and urease
Lactose, indole, ONPG, and motility
Hydrogen sulfide, MR, citrate, and urease
Gas, citrate, and VP
Which genera of Enterobacteriaceae are usually nonmotile at 36°C?
Shigella, Klebsiella, and Yersinia
Escherichia, Edwardsiella, and Enterobacter
Proteus, Providencia, and Salmonella
Serratia, Morganella, and Hafnia
Which single test best separates Klebsiella oxytoca from K. pneumoniae?
Urease
Sucrose
Citrate
Indole
Which of the following organisms, found in normal fecal flora, may be mistaken biochemically for the genus Yersinia?
Klebsiella spp.
Proteus spp.
E. coli
Enterobacter spp
Which of the following organisms are generally positive for B-galactosidase?
Salmonella spp.
Shigella spp.
Proteus spp.
E. coli
The Shiga-like toxin (verotoxin) is produced mainly by which Enterobacteriaceae?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
E. coli
Salmonella typhimurium
Enterobacter cloacae
Direct spread of pneumonic plague disease occurs by which route?
Fecal–oral route
Rat bite
Ingestion of contaminated tissue
Inhalation of contaminated airborne droplets
Which isolates of the Enterobacteriaceae family most commonly produce extended-spectrum B-lactamase (ESBL)?
E. coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae
Yersinia enterocolitica and Yersinia pestis
Morganella morganii and Proteus vulgaris
Salmonella typhi and Shigella sonnei
The most noted differences between P. aeruginosa and Stenotrophomonas maltophilia are:
Oxidase, catalase, and TSI
Oxidase, catalase, and ONPG
Oxidase, 42°C growth, and polar tuft of flagella
Catalase, TSI, and pigment
Which Pseudomonas is usually associated with a lung infection related to cystic fibrosis?
P. fluorescens
P. aeruginosa
P. putida
Burkholderia pseudomallei
Which organism is associated with immunodeficiency syndromes and melioidosis (a glanders-like disease in Southeast Asia and northern Australia)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Pseudomonas stutzeri
Pseudomonas putida
Burkholderia pseudomallei
A yellow pigment–producing organism that is oxidase positive, nonmotile, and does not grow on MacConkey agar is:
Acinetobacter baumannii
Acinetobacter lwoffii
Burkholderia cepacia
Chryseobacterium meningosepticum
Which group of tests best differentiates Helicobacter pylori from C. jejuni?
Catalase, oxidase, and Gram stain
Catalase, oxidase, and nalidixic acid sensitivity
Catalase, oxidase, and cephalothin sensitivity
Urease, nitrate, and hippurate hydrolysis
Which of the following products is responsible for satellite growth of Haemophilus spp. around colonies of Staphylococcus and Neisseria spp. on sheep blood agar
NAD
Hemin
Indole
Oxidase
The majority of Haemophilus influenzae infections are caused by which of the following capsular serotypes?
a
b
c
d
Which Haemophilus species is difficult to isolate and recover from genital ulcers and swollen lymph nodes?
H. aphrophilus
H. ducreyi
H. haemolyticus
H. parahaemolyticus
Which Haemophilus species is generally associated with endocarditis?
H. aphrophilus
H. ducreyi
H. haemolyticus
H. parahaemolyticus
The test used most often to separate the Micrococcaceae family from the Streptococcaceae family is:
Bacitracin
Catalase
Hemolysis pattern
All of these option
Micrococcus and Staphylococcus species are differentiated by which test(s)?
Fermentation of glucose (OF tube)
Catalase test
Gram stain
All of these options
Lysostaphin is used to differentiate Staphylococcus from which other genus?
Streptococcus
Stomatococcus
Micrococcus
Planococcus
Which of the following tests is used routinely to identify Staphylococcus aureus?
Slide coagulase test
Tube coagulase test
Latex agglutination
All of these options
Which of the following enzymes contribute to the virulence of S. aureus?
Urease and lecithinase
Hyaluronidase and β-lactamase
Lecithinase and catalase
Cytochrome oxidase
Toxic shock syndrome is attributed to infection with:
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus hominis
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Which Staphylococcus species, in addition to S. aureus, also produces coagulase?
S. intermedius
S. saprophyticus
S. hominis
All of these options
Streptococcus species exhibit which of the following properties?
Aerobic, oxidase positive, and catalase positive
Facultative anaerobe, oxidase negative, catalase negative
Facultative anaerobe, β-hemolytic, catalase positive
May be α-, β-, or γ-hemolytic, catalase positive
Which group of streptococci is associated with erythrogenic toxin production?
Group A
Group B
Group C
Group G
A fourfold rise in titer of which antibody is the best indicator of a recent infection with group A β-hemolytic streptococci?
Anti-streptolysin O
Anti-streptolysin S
Anti-A
Anti-B
Which test is used to differentiate the viridans streptococci from the group D streptococci and enterococci?
Bacitracin disk test
CAMP test
Hippurate hydrolysis test
Bile esculin test
S. pneumoniae and the viridans streptococci can be differentiated by which test?
Optochin disk test, 5 μg/mL or less
Bacitracin disk test, 0.04 unit
CAMP test
Bile esculin test
The salt tolerance test (6.5% salt broth) is used to presumptively identify:
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus bovis
Streptococcus equinus
Enterococcus faecalis
The quellung test is used to identify which Streptococcus species?
S. pyogenes
S. agalactiae
S. sanguis
S. pneumoniae
Variation in colony types seen with fresh isolates of Neisseria gonorrhoeae and sometimes with Neisseria meningitidis are the result of:
Multiple nutritional requirements
Pili on the cell surface
Use of a transparent medium
All of these options
Large gram-positive spore-forming rods growing on blood agar as large, raised, β-hemolytic colonies that spread and appear as frosted green-gray glass are most likely:
Pseudomonas spp.
Bacillus spp.
Corynebacterium spp.
Listeria spp
Bacillus anthracis and Bacillus cereus can best be differentiated by which tests?
Motility and β-hemolysis on a blood agar plate
Oxidase and β-hemolysis on a blood agar plate
Lecithinase and glucose
Lecithinase and catalase
Which is the specimen of choice for proof of food poisoning by Bacillus cereus?
Sputum
Blood
Stool
Food
A non–spore-forming, slender gram-positive rod forming palisades and chains was recovered from a vaginal culture and grew well on tomato juice agar
Lactobacillus spp.
Bacillus spp.
Neisseria spp.
Streptococcus spp.
A Corynebacterium species recovered from a throat culture is considered a pathogen when it produces:
A pseudomembrane of the oropharynx
An exotoxin
Gray-black colonies with a brown halo on Tinsdale’s agar
All of these options
A gram-positive branching filamentous organism recovered from a sputum specimen was found to be positive with a modified acid-fast stain method. be positive with a modified acid-fast stain method. What is the most likely presumptive identification?
Bacillus spp.
Nocardia spp.
Corynebacterium spp.
Listeria spp.
Routine laboratory testing for Treponema pallidum involves:
Culturing
Serological analysis
Acid-fast staining
Gram staining
Spirochetes often detected in the hematology laboratory, even before the physician suspects the infection, are:
Borrelia spp.
Treponema spp.
Campylobacter spp.
Leptospira spp.
Which of the following organisms is the cause of Lyme disease?
Treponema pallidum
Neisseria meningitidis
Babesia microti
Borrelia burgdorferi
The diagnostic method most commonly used for the identification of Lyme disease is
Serology
Culture
Gram stain
Acid-fast stain
Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Which organism typically produces “fried-egg” colonies on agar within 1–5 days of culture from a genital specimen?
Mycoplasma hominis
Borrelia burgdorferi
Leptospira interrogans
Treponema pallidum
The manganous chloride–urea test is used for the identification of which organism?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Ureaplasma urealyticum
Bacillus cereus
Borrelia burgdorferi
A direct smear from a nasopharyngeal swab stained with Loeffler methylene blue stain showed various letter shapes and deep blue, metachromatic granules. The most likely identification is:
Corynebacterium spp.
Nocardia spp.
Listeria spp.
Gardnerella spp.
Which of the following organisms are transmitted to animals and humans after a tick bite?
Leptospira
Chlamydia and Mycoplasma spp.
Neisseria sicca
Ehrlichia and Anaplasma spp.
Obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes, and microaerophiles are terms referring to bacteria
that require:
Increased nitrogen
Decreased CO2
Increased O2
Decreased O2
Which broth is used for the cultivation of anaerobic bacteria in order to detect volatile fatty acids an aid to identification?
Prereduced peptone–yeast extract–glucose (PYG)
THIO broth
Gram-negative (GN) broth
Selenite (SEL) broth
A gram-positive spore-forming bacillus growing on sheep-blood agar anaerobically produces a double zone of β-hemolysis and is positive for lecithinase. What is the presumptive identification?
Bacteroides ureolyticus
Bacteroides fragilis
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium difficile
Egg yolk agar is used to detect which enzyme produced by Clostridium species?
Lecithinase
β-Lactamase
Catalase
Oxidase
Which Clostridium spp. causes pseudomembranous colitis or antibiotic-associated colitis?
C. ramosum
C. difficile
C. perfringens
C. sporogenes
Which gram-negative bacilli produce black pigment and brick red fluorescence when exposed to an ultraviolet light source?
Porphyromonas spp. and Prevotella spp.
Fusobacterium spp. and Actinomyces spp.
Bacteroides spp. and Fusobacterium spp.
None of the given choices
All of the following genera are anaerobic cocci that
stain gram positive except:
Peptococcus spp.
Peptostreptococcus spp.
Streptococcus spp
Veillonella spp.
The gram-positive non–spore-forming anaerobic rods most frequently recovered from blood cultures as a contaminant are:
Propionibacterium acnes
Clostridium perfringens
Staphylococcus intermedius
Veillonella parvula
Which Clostridium species is most often recovered from a wound infection with gas gangrene
C. sporogenes
Clostridium sordellii
C. novyi
C. perfringens
The best specimen for recovery of the mycobacteria from a sputum sample is:
First morning specimen
10-hour evening specimen
12-hour pooled specimen
24-hour pooled specimen
Which is the most appropriate nonselective medium for recovery of mycobacteria from a heavily contaminated specimen?
Löwenstein–Jensen agar
Middlebrook 7H10 agar
Petragnani’s agar
American Thoracic Society medium
Which organism, associated with tuberculosis in cattle, causes tuberculosis in humans, especially in regions where dairy farming is prevalent?
Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare complex
Mycobacterium kansasii
Mycobacterium marinum
Mycobacterium bovis
Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. is best differentiated by the rapid hydrolysis of Tween 80?
M. fortuitum
M. chelonae
M. kansasii
M. gordonae
Which nonpathogenic Mycobacterium specie is isolated most often from clinical specimens and is called the “tapwater bacillus”?
M. kansasii
M. avium–intracellulare complex
M. leprae
M. gordonae
All of the following are examples of appropriate specimens for the recovery of fungi except
Tissue biopsy
CSF
Aspirate of exudate
Swab
For which clinical specimens is the KOH direct mount technique for examination of fungal elements used?
Skin
CSF
Blood
Bone marrow
The India ink stain is used as a presumptive test for the presence of which organism?
Aspergillus niger in blood
Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF
Histoplasma capsulatum in CSF
Candida albicans in blood or body fluids
Cutaneous disease involving skin, hair, and nails usually indicates an infection with a:
Dimorphic fungus
Dermatophyte
Zygomycetes
Candida species
What is the first step to be performed in the identification of an unknown yeast isolate?
Gram stain smear
India ink stain
Catalase test
Germ tube test
Which of the following yeasts is characteristically positive for germ tube production?
Candida tropicalis
Candida kefyr (pseudotropicalis)
Cryptococcus neoformans
Candida albicans
The urease test, niger seed agar test, and the germ tube test are all used for the presumptive identification of:
Rhodotorula rubra
Cryptococcus neoformans
Trichosporon cutaneum
Candida albicans
Ascospores are formed by which yeast isolate?
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Candida albicans
Cryptococcus neoformans
All of these options
Tinea versicolor is a skin infection caused by:
Malassezia furfur
Trichophyton rubrum
Trichophyton schoenleinii
Microsporum gypseum
Which of the following structures is invaded by the genus Trichophyton?
Hair and Skin
Nails and skin
Hair and Nails
Hair, Nails and Skin
The Hair Baiting Test is used to differentiate which two species of Trichophyton that produce red colonies on Sabouraud agar plates?
T. mentagrophytes and T. rubrum
T. tonsurans and T. schoenleinii
T. tonsurans and T. violaceum
T. verrucosum and T. rubrum
Which Aspergillus species, recovered from sputum or bronchial mucus, is the most common cause of pulmonary aspergillosis?
A. niger
A. flavus
A. fumigatus
All of these options
What is the specimen of choice for the initial diagnosis of Pneumocystis jirovecii (carinii) in an immunocompromised patient, such as someone with AIDS?
Induced sputum
Open-thorax lung biopsy
CSF
Urine
A transplant patient is suspected of having invasive aspergillosis on the basis of clinical and radiological findings. Which specimen is best for the initial identification of aspergillosis by soluble antigen testing?
Blood culture
Lung biopsy
Serum or urine
Sputum
Classification of viruses is made by:
Complement fixation serology
Electron microscopy
Nucleic acid composition
Cellular inclusion bodies
Which virus is the most common etiological agent of viral respiratory diseases in infants and children?
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Measles virus
Coxsackie A virus
Coxsackie B virus
The most common viral syndrome of pericarditis, myocarditis, and pleurodynia (pain upon breathing) is caused by:
Herpes simplex virus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Epstein–Barr virus
Coxsackie B virus
The most common causes of viral pneumonia in adults are
Influenza and adenovirus
Hepatitis A and B viruses
Coxsackie A and B viruse
Herpes simplex and CMV
Which virus belonging to the Reoviridae group causes gastroenteritis in infants and young children but an asymptomatic infection in adults?
Coxsackie B virus
Rotavirus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Rhabdovirus
A very small, single-stranded DNA virus that causes a febrile illness with a rash and is called the fifth childhood disease after rubeola, rubella, varicella, and roseola is:
Rotavirus
Adenovirus type 40
Coxsackie A virus
Parvovirus B19
Which virus has been implicated in adult gastroenteritis resulting from ingestion of contaminated food (especially shellfish) and water?
Norwalk-like viruses
Rotavirus
Hepatitis C virus
Coronavirus
Which virus is associated with venereal and respiratory tract warts and produces lesions of skin and mucous membranes?
Polyomavirus
Poxvirus
Adenovirus
Papillomavirus
Which technique is used for the confirmation of infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV-1)?
Western blot (immunoblot) assay
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
Complement fixation
p24 Antigen testing
The organs of a 65-year-old male were donated soon after a fatal auto accident. Three recipients of his corneas and kidneys died within weeks after receiving his organs. Which of the following viruses most likely caused the death of these recipients?
HIV
Rabies
Norwalk-like
Rotavirus
An immunocompromised patient was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hemorrhagic cystitis. Which combination of virus and specimen would be most appropriate to diagnose a viral cause of this disorder?
BK virus—urine
Human papilloma virus—skin
Hepatitis B virus—serum
Epstein–Barr virus—serum
The incorrect match between organism and the appropriate diagnostic procedure is:
Onchocerca volvulus—examination of skin snips
Cryptosporidium—modified acid-fast stain
Echinococcus granulosus—routine ova and parasite examination
Schistosoma haematobium—examination of urine sediment
Parasitic organisms that are most often transmitted sexually include:
Entamoeba gingivalis
Dientamoeba fragilis
Trichomonas vaginalis
Diphyllobothrium latum
The incorrect match between the organism and one method of acquiring the infection is:
Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense—bite of sand fleas
Giardia lamblia—ingestion of water contaminated with cysts
Hookworm—skin penetration of larvae from soil
Toxoplasma gondii—ingestion of raw or rare meats
Upon examination of stool material for Cystoisospora belli, one would expect to see:
Sporozoites that are hematoxylin positive
Oocysts that are modified acid-fast variable
Precysts containing chromatoidal bars
Cysts containing sporozoites
Which specimen is the least likely to provide recovery of Trichomonas vaginalis?
Urine
Urethral discharge
Vaginal discharge
Feces
Which of the following is the best technique to identify Dientamoeba fragilis in stool?
Formalin concentrate
Trichrome-stained smear
Modified acid-fast–stained smear
Giemsa’s stain
A 12-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with meningitis and a history of swimming in a warm-water spring. Motile amoebae that measure 10 μ in size are seen in the CSF and are most likely:
Iodamoeba bütschlii trophozoites
Endolimax nana trophozoites
Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites
Naegleria fowleri trophozoites
Characteristics of the rhabditiform (noninfective) larvae of Strongyloides stercoralis include a:
Short buccal capsule and large genital primordium
Long buccal capsule and pointed tail
Short buccal capsule and small genital primordium
Small genital primordium and notch in tail
Visceral larva migrans is associated with which of the following organisms?
Toxocara—serology
Onchocerca—skin snips
Dracunculus—skin biopsy
Angiostrongylus—CSF examination
The examination of sputum may be necessary to diagnose infection with:
Paragonimus westermani
Trichinella spiralis
Wuchereria bancrofti
Fasciola hepatica
The adult tapeworm of Echinococcus granulosus is found in the intestine of:
Dogs
Sheep
Humans
Cattle
In infections with Taenia solium, humans can serve as the:
Definitive host
Intermediate host
Either the definitive or the intermediate host
None of these options
Which microfilariae are usually not found circulating in the peripheral blood?
Brugia malayi
Wuchereria bancrofti
Onchocerca volvulus
Loa loa
Organisms that should be considered in a nursery school outbreak of diarrhea include:
Endolimax nana, Giardia lamblia, and Entamoeba coli
Giardia lamblia, Dientamoeba fragilis, and Cryptosporidium spp.
Cryptosporidium spp., Trichomonas vaginalis, and Entamoeba coli
Pentatrichomonas hominis, Dientamoeba fragilis, and Endolimax nana
The incorrect match between disease and symptoms is:
Paragonimiasis—hemoptysis
Cryptosporidiosis—watery diarrhea
Toxoplasmosis in compromised host—central nervous system symptoms
Enterobiasis—dysentery
The term internal autoinfection can be associated with the following parasites:
Cryptosporidium spp. and Giardia lamblia
Cystoisospora belli and Strongyloides stercoralis
Cryptosporidium spp. and Strongyloides stercoralis
Giardia lamblia and Cystoisospora belli
Ingestion of which of the following eggs will result in infection?
Strongyloides stercoralis
Schistosoma japonicum
Toxocara canis
Opisthorchis sinensis
The most prevalent helminth to infect humans is:
Enterobius vermicularis, the pinworm
Ascaris lumbricoides, the large intestinal roundworm
Taenia saginata, the beef tapeworm
Schistosoma mansoni, one of the blood flukes
Patients with severe diarrhea should use “enteric precautions” to prevent nosocomial infections with:
Giardia lamblia
Ascaris lumbricoides
Cryptosporidium spp.
Cystoisospora belli
When humans have hydatid disease, the causative agent and host classification are:
Echinococcus granulosus—accidental intermediate host
Echinococcus granulosus—definitive host
Taenia solium—accidental intermediate host
Taenia solium—definitive host
Which parasite causes eosinophilic meningoencephalitis, a form of larva migrans causing fever, headache, stiff neck, and increased cells in the spinal fluid?
Necator americanus
Angiostrongylus cantonensis
Ancylostoma braziliense
Strongyloides stercoralis
