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MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

Total questions: 151

Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The aseptic collection of blood cultures requires that the skin be cleansed with:

a)

2% iodine and then 70% alcohol solution

b)

70% alcohol and then 2% iodine or an iodophor

c)

70% alcohol and then 95% alcohol

d)

95% alcohol only

2.

When cleansing the skin with alcohol and then iodine for the collection of a blood culture, the iodine (or iodophor) should remain intact on the skin for at least:

a)

10 sec

b)

30 sec

c)

60 sec

d)

5 min

3.

What is the purpose of adding 0.025%–0.050% sodium polyanetholsulfonate (SPS) to nutrient broth media for the collection of blood cultures

a)

It inhibits phagocytosis and complement

b)

It promotes formation of a blood clot

c)

It enhances growth of anaerobes

d)

It functions as a preservative

4.

A flexible calcium alginate nasopharyngeal swab is the collection device of choice for recovery of which organism from the nasopharynx?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

d)

Bacteroides fragilis

5.

Semisolid transport media such as Amies, Stuart, or Cary–Blair are suitable for the transport of swabs for culture of most pathogens except:

a)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

b)

Enterobacteriaceae

c)

Campylobacter fetus

d)

Streptococcus pneumonia

6.

Select the method of choice for recovery of anaerobic bacteria from a deep abscess.

a)

Cotton fiber swab of the abscess area

b)

Skin snip of the surface tissue

c)

Needle aspirate after surface decontamination

d)

Swab of the scalpel used for débridement

7.

Select the primary and differential media of choice for recovery of most fecal pathogens

a)

MacConkey, blood, birdseed, and Campylobacter (Campy) agars

b)

Hektoen, MacConkey, Campy,colistin–nalidixic acid (CNA) agars

c)

CNA and Christensen urea agars and thioglycollate media

d)

Blood, Campy, Mueller–Hinton agars, and thioglycollate media

8.

Select the media of choice for recovery of Vibrio cholerae from a stool specimen

a)

MacConkey agar and thioglycollate media

b)

Thiosulfate–citrate–bile–sucrose (TCBS) agar and alkaline peptone water (APW) broth

c)

Blood agar and selenite-F (SEL) broth

d)

Colistin Nalidixic Acid

9.

Colistin–nalidixic acid agar (CNA) is used primarily for the recovery of:

a)

Neisseria species

b)

Enterobacteriaceae

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

10.

Chocolate agar and modified Thayer–Martin agar are used for the recovery of:

a)

Haemophilus spp. and Neisseria spp., respectively

b)

Haemophilus spp. and N. gonorrhoeae, respectively

c)

Neisseria spp. and Streptococcus spp., respectively

d)

Streptococcus spp. and Staphylococcus spp

11.

Cycloserine–cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) is used for the recovery of:

a)

Yersinia enterocolitica

b)

Yersinia intermedia

c)

Clostridium perfringens

d)

Clostridium difficile

12.

Deoxycholate agar (DCA) is useful for the isolation of:

a)

Enterobacteriaceae

b)

Enterococcus spp.

c)

Staphylococcus spp.

d)

Neisseria spp

13.

Specimens for virus culture should be transported in media containing

a)

Antibiotics and 5% sheep blood

b)

Saline and 5% sheep blood

c)

22% bovine albumin

d)

Antibiotics and nutrient

14.

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) should be cultured immediately, but if delayed the specimen should be:

a)

Refrigerated at 4°C to 6°C

b)

Frozen at –20°C

c)

Stored at room temperature for no longer than 24 hours

d)

Incubated at 37°C and cultured as soon as possible

15.

The most sensitive method for the detection of β-lactamase in bacteria is by the use of:

a)

Chromogenic cephalosporin

b)

Penicillin

c)

Penicillin

d)

Chloramphenicol acetyltransferase

16.

The breakpoint of an antimicrobial drug refers to:

a)

The amount needed to cause bacteriostasis

b)

A minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of 16 μg/mL or greater

c)

A MIC of 64 μg/mL or greater

d)

The level of drug that is achievable in serum

17.

Which of the following variables may change the results of an MIC?

a)

Inoculum size

b)

Incubation time

c)

Growth rate of the bacteria

d)

All of the given choices

18.

Which class of antibiotics is used for the treatment of serious gram-negative infections as well as infections with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

a)

Cephalosporins

b)

Penicillin

c)

Tetracyclines

d)

Aminoglycosides

19.

A test for the hydrolysis of esculin in the presence of bile is especially useful in identifying species of the genus

a)

Abiotrophia

b)

Corynebacterium

c)

Enterococcus

d)

Staphylococcus

20.

The organism associated with a disease characterized by the presence of a pseudomembrane in the throat and the production of an exotoxin that is absorbed into the bloodstream with a lethal effect is

a)

Arcanobacterium haemolyticum

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

21.

Enterotoxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for causing

a)

Carbuncles

b)

Enterocolitis

c)

Impetigo

d)

Scalded skin syndrome

22.

Streptococcus pyogenes can be presumptively identified using

a)

PYR disk

b)

ONPG disk

c)

SPS disk

d)

Optochin disk

23.

A gram-positive coccus that is catalase positive, nonmotile, lysostaphin resistant, and modified oxidase positive is best identified as a member of the genus

a)

Micrococcus

b)

Lactococcus

c)

Pediococcus

d)

Staphylococcus

24.

Staphylococcus saprophyticus, a recognized pathogen, is a cause of

a)

Furuncles

b)

Impetigo

c)

Otitis media

d)

Urinary tract infections

25.

The etiologic agent most commonly associated with septicemia and meningitis of newborns is

a)

Streptococcus agalactiae

b)

Streptococcus bovis group

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Streptococcus pyogenes

26.

Which of the following is the most

commonly isolated species of Bacillus

in opportunistic infections such as

bacteremia, post-traumatic infections

of the eye, and endocarditis

a)

B. circulans

b)

B. cereus

c)

B. licheniformis

d)

B. subtilis

27.

Streptococci obtain all their energy from

the fermentation of sugars to

a)

Formic acid

b)

Lactic acid

c)

Succinic acid

d)

Valeric acid

28.

Streptococci are unable to synthesize the

enzyme

a)

Catalase

b)

Kinase

c)

Hyaluronidase

d)

Lipase

29.

The beta-hemolysis produced by group A Streptococcus seen on the surface of a sheep blood agar plate is primarily the result of streptolysin

a)

H

b)

M

c)

0

d)

S

30.

An identifying characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus is

a)

DNase negative

b)

Coagulase negative

c)

Mannitol fermentation positive

d)

Growth inhibition in presence of Iincreased salt

31.

Rust-colored sputum in cases of lobar pneumonia is characteristic of which of the following possible etiologic agents?

a)

Corynebacterium jeikeium

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Streptococcus pyogenes

32.

Which of the following species of Bacillus is nonmotile?

a)

B. cereus

b)

B. subtilis

c)

B. anthracis

d)

B. thuringiensis

33.

Which of the following is not associated with Staphylococcus aureus?

a)

Endotoxin production

b)

Clumping factor production

c)

Deoxyribonuclease production

d)

Hemolysin production

34.

The pulmonary form of anthrax is known as

a)

Valley fever

b)

Walking pneumonia

c)

Farmers' lung

d)

Woolsorters disease

35.

Biochemically, the Enterobacteriaceae are gram-negative rods that:

a)

Ferment glucose, reduce nitrate to nitrite, and are oxidase negative

b)

Ferment glucose, produce indophenol oxidase, and form gas

c)

Ferment lactose and reduce nitrite to nitrogen gas

d)

Ferment lactose and produce indophenol oxidase

36.

The ortho-nitrophenyl-β-galactopyranoside (ONPG) test is most useful when differentiating

a)

Salmonella spp. from Pseudomonas spp.

b)

Shigella spp. from some strains of Escherichia coli

c)

Klebsiella spp. from Enterobacter spp.

d)

Proteus vulgaris from Salmonella spp.

37.

The Voges–Proskauer (VP) test detects which end product of glucose fermentation?

a)

Acetoin

b)

Nitrite

c)

Acetic acid

d)

Hydrogen sulfide

38.

At which pH does the methyl red (MR) test become positive?

a)

7.0

b)

6.5

c)

6.0

d)

4.5

39.

A positive Simmons citrate test is seen as a:

a)

Blue color in the medium after 24 hours of incubation at 35°C

b)

Red color in the medium after 18 hours of incubation at 35°C

c)

Yellow color in the medium after 24 hours of incubation at 35°C

d)

Green color in the medium after 18 hours of incubation at 35°C

40.

In the test for urease production, ammonia reacts to form which product

a)

Ammonium citrate

b)

Ammonium carbonate

c)

Ammonium oxalate

d)

Ammonium nitrate

41.

Which of the following reagents is added to detect the production of indole?

a)

p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

b)

Bromcresol purple

c)

Methyl red

d)

Cytochrome oxidase

42.

Decarboxylation of the amino acids lysine, ornithine, an

a)

Ammonia

b)

Urea

c)

CO2

d)

Amines

43.

Which genera are positive for phenylalanine deaminase?

a)

Enterobacter, Escherichia, and Salmonella

b)

Morganella, Providencia, and Proteus

c)

Klebsiella and Enterobacter

d)

Proteus, Escherichia, and Shigella

44.

Which genera of the Enterobacteriaceae are known to cause diarrhea and are considered enteric pathogens?

a)

Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Providencia, and Proteus

b)

Escherichia, Salmonella, Shigella, and Yersinia

c)

Pseudomonas, Moraxella, Acinetobacter, and Aeromonas

d)

Enterobacter, Citrobacter, and Morganella

45.

Which of the following tests best differentiates Shigella species from E. coli?

a)

Hydrogen sulfide, VP, citrate, and urease

b)

Lactose, indole, ONPG, and motility

c)

Hydrogen sulfide, MR, citrate, and urease

d)

Gas, citrate, and VP

46.

Which genera of Enterobacteriaceae are usually nonmotile at 36°C?

a)

Shigella, Klebsiella, and Yersinia

b)

Escherichia, Edwardsiella, and Enterobacter

c)

Proteus, Providencia, and Salmonella

d)

Serratia, Morganella, and Hafnia

47.

Which single test best separates Klebsiella oxytoca from K. pneumoniae?

a)

Urease

b)

Sucrose

c)

Citrate

d)

Indole

48.

Which of the following organisms, found in normal fecal flora, may be mistaken biochemically for the genus Yersinia?

a)

Klebsiella spp.

b)

Proteus spp.

c)

E. coli

d)

Enterobacter spp

49.

Which of the following organisms are generally positive for B-galactosidase?

a)

Salmonella spp.

b)

Shigella spp.

c)

Proteus spp.

d)

E. coli

50.

The Shiga-like toxin (verotoxin) is produced mainly by which Enterobacteriaceae?

a)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

b)

E. coli

c)

Salmonella typhimurium

d)

Enterobacter cloacae

51.

Direct spread of pneumonic plague disease occurs by which route?

a)

Fecal–oral route

b)

Rat bite

c)

Ingestion of contaminated tissue

d)

Inhalation of contaminated airborne droplets

52.

Which isolates of the Enterobacteriaceae family most commonly produce extended-spectrum B-lactamase (ESBL)?

a)

E. coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae

b)

Yersinia enterocolitica and Yersinia pestis

c)

Morganella morganii and Proteus vulgaris

d)

Salmonella typhi and Shigella sonnei

53.

The most noted differences between P. aeruginosa and Stenotrophomonas maltophilia are:

a)

Oxidase, catalase, and TSI

b)

Oxidase, catalase, and ONPG

c)

Oxidase, 42°C growth, and polar tuft of flagella

d)

Catalase, TSI, and pigment

54.

Which Pseudomonas is usually associated with a lung infection related to cystic fibrosis?

a)

P. fluorescens

b)

P. aeruginosa

c)

P. putida

d)

Burkholderia pseudomallei

55.

Which organism is associated with immunodeficiency syndromes and melioidosis (a glanders-like disease in Southeast Asia and northern Australia)

a)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

Pseudomonas stutzeri

c)

Pseudomonas putida

d)

Burkholderia pseudomallei

56.

A yellow pigment–producing organism that is oxidase positive, nonmotile, and does not grow on MacConkey agar is:

a)

Acinetobacter baumannii

b)

Acinetobacter lwoffii

c)

Burkholderia cepacia

d)

Chryseobacterium meningosepticum

57.

Which group of tests best differentiates Helicobacter pylori from C. jejuni?

a)

Catalase, oxidase, and Gram stain

b)

Catalase, oxidase, and nalidixic acid sensitivity

c)

Catalase, oxidase, and cephalothin sensitivity

d)

Urease, nitrate, and hippurate hydrolysis

58.

Which of the following products is responsible for satellite growth of Haemophilus spp. around colonies of Staphylococcus and Neisseria spp. on sheep blood agar

a)

NAD

b)

Hemin

c)

Indole

d)

Oxidase

59.

The majority of Haemophilus influenzae infections are caused by which of the following capsular serotypes?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

60.

Which Haemophilus species is difficult to isolate and recover from genital ulcers and swollen lymph nodes?

a)

H. aphrophilus

b)

H. ducreyi

c)

H. haemolyticus

d)

H. parahaemolyticus

61.

Which Haemophilus species is generally associated with endocarditis?

a)

H. aphrophilus

b)

H. ducreyi

c)

H. haemolyticus

d)

H. parahaemolyticus

62.

The test used most often to separate the Micrococcaceae family from the Streptococcaceae family is:

a)

Bacitracin

b)

Catalase

c)

Hemolysis pattern

d)

All of these option

63.

Micrococcus and Staphylococcus species are differentiated by which test(s)?

a)

Fermentation of glucose (OF tube)

b)

Catalase test

c)

Gram stain

d)

All of these options

64.

Lysostaphin is used to differentiate Staphylococcus from which other genus?

a)

Streptococcus

b)

Stomatococcus

c)

Micrococcus

d)

Planococcus

65.

Which of the following tests is used routinely to identify Staphylococcus aureus?

a)

Slide coagulase test

b)

Tube coagulase test

c)

Latex agglutination

d)

All of these options

66.

Which of the following enzymes contribute to the virulence of S. aureus?

a)

Urease and lecithinase

b)

Hyaluronidase and β-lactamase

c)

Lecithinase and catalase

d)

Cytochrome oxidase

67.

Toxic shock syndrome is attributed to infection with:

a)

Staphylococcus epidermidis

b)

Staphylococcus hominis

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

68.

Which Staphylococcus species, in addition to S. aureus, also produces coagulase?

a)

S. intermedius

b)

S. saprophyticus

c)

S. hominis

d)

All of these options

69.

Streptococcus species exhibit which of the following properties?

a)

Aerobic, oxidase positive, and catalase positive

b)

Facultative anaerobe, oxidase negative, catalase negative

c)

Facultative anaerobe, β-hemolytic, catalase positive

d)

May be α-, β-, or γ-hemolytic, catalase positive

70.

Which group of streptococci is associated with erythrogenic toxin production?

a)

Group A

b)

Group B

c)

Group C

d)

Group G

71.

A fourfold rise in titer of which antibody is the best indicator of a recent infection with group A β-hemolytic streptococci?

a)

Anti-streptolysin O

b)

Anti-streptolysin S

c)

Anti-A

d)

Anti-B

72.

Which test is used to differentiate the viridans streptococci from the group D streptococci and enterococci?

a)

Bacitracin disk test

b)

CAMP test

c)

Hippurate hydrolysis test

d)

Bile esculin test

73.

S. pneumoniae and the viridans streptococci can be differentiated by which test?

a)

Optochin disk test, 5 μg/mL or less

b)

Bacitracin disk test, 0.04 unit

c)

CAMP test

d)

Bile esculin test

74.

The salt tolerance test (6.5% salt broth) is used to presumptively identify:

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Streptococcus bovis

c)

Streptococcus equinus

d)

Enterococcus faecalis

75.

The quellung test is used to identify which Streptococcus species?

a)

S. pyogenes

b)

S. agalactiae

c)

S. sanguis

d)

S. pneumoniae

76.

Variation in colony types seen with fresh isolates of Neisseria gonorrhoeae and sometimes with Neisseria meningitidis are the result of:

a)

Multiple nutritional requirements

b)

Pili on the cell surface

c)

Use of a transparent medium

d)

All of these options

77.

Large gram-positive spore-forming rods growing on blood agar as large, raised, β-hemolytic colonies that spread and appear as frosted green-gray glass are most likely:

a)

Pseudomonas spp.

b)

Bacillus spp.

c)

Corynebacterium spp.

d)

Listeria spp

78.

Bacillus anthracis and Bacillus cereus can best be differentiated by which tests?

a)

Motility and β-hemolysis on a blood agar plate

b)

Oxidase and β-hemolysis on a blood agar plate

c)

Lecithinase and glucose

d)

Lecithinase and catalase

79.

Which is the specimen of choice for proof of food poisoning by Bacillus cereus?

a)

Sputum

b)

Blood

c)

Stool

d)

Food

80.

A non–spore-forming, slender gram-positive rod forming palisades and chains was recovered from a vaginal culture and grew well on tomato juice agar

a)

Lactobacillus spp.

b)

Bacillus spp.

c)

Neisseria spp.

d)

Streptococcus spp.

81.

A Corynebacterium species recovered from a throat culture is considered a pathogen when it produces:

a)

A pseudomembrane of the oropharynx

b)

An exotoxin

c)

Gray-black colonies with a brown halo on Tinsdale’s agar

d)

All of these options

82.

A gram-positive branching filamentous organism recovered from a sputum specimen was found to be positive with a modified acid-fast stain method. be positive with a modified acid-fast stain method. What is the most likely presumptive identification?

a)

Bacillus spp.

b)

Nocardia spp.

c)

Corynebacterium spp.

d)

Listeria spp.

83.

Routine laboratory testing for Treponema pallidum involves:

a)

Culturing

b)

Serological analysis

c)

Acid-fast staining

d)

Gram staining

84.

Spirochetes often detected in the hematology laboratory, even before the physician suspects the infection, are:

a)

Borrelia spp.

b)

Treponema spp.

c)

Campylobacter spp.

d)

Leptospira spp.

85.

Which of the following organisms is the cause of Lyme disease?

a)

Treponema pallidum

b)

Neisseria meningitidis

c)

Babesia microti

d)

Borrelia burgdorferi

86.

The diagnostic method most commonly used for the identification of Lyme disease is

a)

Serology

b)

Culture

c)

Gram stain

d)

Acid-fast stain

87.

Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

c)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

d)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

88.

Which organism typically produces “fried-egg” colonies on agar within 1–5 days of culture from a genital specimen?

a)

Mycoplasma hominis

b)

Borrelia burgdorferi

c)

Leptospira interrogans

d)

Treponema pallidum

89.

The manganous chloride–urea test is used for the identification of which organism?

a)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

b)

Ureaplasma urealyticum

c)

Bacillus cereus

d)

Borrelia burgdorferi

90.

A direct smear from a nasopharyngeal swab stained with Loeffler methylene blue stain showed various letter shapes and deep blue, metachromatic granules. The most likely identification is:

a)

Corynebacterium spp.

b)

Nocardia spp.

c)

Listeria spp.

d)

Gardnerella spp.

91.

Which of the following organisms are transmitted to animals and humans after a tick bite?

a)

Leptospira

b)

Chlamydia and Mycoplasma spp.

c)

Neisseria sicca

d)

Ehrlichia and Anaplasma spp.

92.

Obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes, and microaerophiles are terms referring to bacteria

that require:

a)

Increased nitrogen

b)

Decreased CO2

c)

Increased O2

d)

Decreased O2

93.

Which broth is used for the cultivation of anaerobic bacteria in order to detect volatile fatty acids an aid to identification?

a)

Prereduced peptone–yeast extract–glucose (PYG)

b)

THIO broth

c)

Gram-negative (GN) broth

d)

Selenite (SEL) broth

94.

A gram-positive spore-forming bacillus growing on sheep-blood agar anaerobically produces a double zone of β-hemolysis and is positive for lecithinase. What is the presumptive identification?

a)

Bacteroides ureolyticus

b)

Bacteroides fragilis

c)

Clostridium perfringens

d)

Clostridium difficile

95.

Egg yolk agar is used to detect which enzyme produced by Clostridium species?

a)

Lecithinase

b)

β-Lactamase

c)

Catalase

d)

Oxidase

96.

Which Clostridium spp. causes pseudomembranous colitis or antibiotic-associated colitis?

a)

C. ramosum

b)

C. difficile

c)

C. perfringens

d)

C. sporogenes

97.

Which gram-negative bacilli produce black pigment and brick red fluorescence when exposed to an ultraviolet light source?

a)

Porphyromonas spp. and Prevotella spp.

b)

Fusobacterium spp. and Actinomyces spp.

c)

Bacteroides spp. and Fusobacterium spp.

d)

None of the given choices

98.

All of the following genera are anaerobic cocci that

stain gram positive except:

a)

Peptococcus spp.

b)

Peptostreptococcus spp.

c)

Streptococcus spp

d)

Veillonella spp.

99.

The gram-positive non–spore-forming anaerobic rods most frequently recovered from blood cultures as a contaminant are:

a)

Propionibacterium acnes

b)

Clostridium perfringens

c)

Staphylococcus intermedius

d)

Veillonella parvula

100.

Which Clostridium species is most often recovered from a wound infection with gas gangrene

a)

C. sporogenes

b)

Clostridium sordellii

c)

C. novyi

d)

C. perfringens

101.

The best specimen for recovery of the mycobacteria from a sputum sample is:

a)

First morning specimen

b)

10-hour evening specimen

c)

12-hour pooled specimen

d)

24-hour pooled specimen

102.

Which is the most appropriate nonselective medium for recovery of mycobacteria from a heavily contaminated specimen?

a)

Löwenstein–Jensen agar

b)

Middlebrook 7H10 agar

c)

Petragnani’s agar

d)

American Thoracic Society medium

103.

Which organism, associated with tuberculosis in cattle, causes tuberculosis in humans, especially in regions where dairy farming is prevalent?

a)

Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare complex

b)

Mycobacterium kansasii

c)

Mycobacterium marinum

d)

Mycobacterium bovis

104.

Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. is best differentiated by the rapid hydrolysis of Tween 80?

a)

M. fortuitum

b)

M. chelonae

c)

M. kansasii

d)

M. gordonae

105.

Which nonpathogenic Mycobacterium specie is isolated most often from clinical specimens and is called the “tapwater bacillus”?

a)

M. kansasii

b)

M. avium–intracellulare complex

c)

M. leprae

d)

M. gordonae

106.

All of the following are examples of appropriate specimens for the recovery of fungi except

a)

Tissue biopsy

b)

CSF

c)

Aspirate of exudate

d)

Swab

107.

For which clinical specimens is the KOH direct mount technique for examination of fungal elements used?

a)

Skin

b)

CSF

c)

Blood

d)

Bone marrow

108.

The India ink stain is used as a presumptive test for the presence of which organism?

a)

Aspergillus niger in blood

b)

Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF

c)

Histoplasma capsulatum in CSF

d)

Candida albicans in blood or body fluids

109.

Cutaneous disease involving skin, hair, and nails usually indicates an infection with a:

a)

Dimorphic fungus

b)

Dermatophyte

c)

Zygomycetes

d)

Candida species

110.

What is the first step to be performed in the identification of an unknown yeast isolate?

a)

Gram stain smear

b)

India ink stain

c)

Catalase test

d)

Germ tube test

111.

Which of the following yeasts is characteristically positive for germ tube production?

a)

Candida tropicalis

b)

Candida kefyr (pseudotropicalis)

c)

Cryptococcus neoformans

d)

Candida albicans

112.

The urease test, niger seed agar test, and the germ tube test are all used for the presumptive identification of:

a)

Rhodotorula rubra

b)

Cryptococcus neoformans

c)

Trichosporon cutaneum

d)

Candida albicans

113.

Ascospores are formed by which yeast isolate?

a)

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

b)

Candida albicans

c)

Cryptococcus neoformans

d)

All of these options

114.

Tinea versicolor is a skin infection caused by:

a)

Malassezia furfur

b)

Trichophyton rubrum

c)

Trichophyton schoenleinii

d)

Microsporum gypseum

115.

Which of the following structures is invaded by the genus Trichophyton?

a)

Hair and Skin

b)

Nails and skin

c)

Hair and Nails

d)

Hair, Nails and Skin

116.

The Hair Baiting Test is used to differentiate which two species of Trichophyton that produce red colonies on Sabouraud agar plates?

a)

T. mentagrophytes and T. rubrum

b)

T. tonsurans and T. schoenleinii

c)

T. tonsurans and T. violaceum

d)

T. verrucosum and T. rubrum

117.

Which Aspergillus species, recovered from sputum or bronchial mucus, is the most common cause of pulmonary aspergillosis?

a)

A. niger

b)

A. flavus

c)

A. fumigatus

d)

All of these options

118.

What is the specimen of choice for the initial diagnosis of Pneumocystis jirovecii (carinii) in an immunocompromised patient, such as someone with AIDS?

a)

Induced sputum

b)

Open-thorax lung biopsy

c)

CSF

d)

Urine

119.

A transplant patient is suspected of having invasive aspergillosis on the basis of clinical and radiological findings. Which specimen is best for the initial identification of aspergillosis by soluble antigen testing?

a)

Blood culture

b)

Lung biopsy

c)

Serum or urine

d)

Sputum

120.

Classification of viruses is made by:

a)

Complement fixation serology

b)

Electron microscopy

c)

Nucleic acid composition

d)

Cellular inclusion bodies

121.

Which virus is the most common etiological agent of viral respiratory diseases in infants and children?

a)

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

b)

Measles virus

c)

Coxsackie A virus

d)

Coxsackie B virus

122.

The most common viral syndrome of pericarditis, myocarditis, and pleurodynia (pain upon breathing) is caused by:

a)

Herpes simplex virus

b)

Respiratory syncytial virus

c)

Epstein–Barr virus

d)

Coxsackie B virus

123.

The most common causes of viral pneumonia in adults are

a)

Influenza and adenovirus

b)

Hepatitis A and B viruses

c)

Coxsackie A and B viruse

d)

Herpes simplex and CMV

124.

Which virus belonging to the Reoviridae group causes gastroenteritis in infants and young children but an asymptomatic infection in adults?

a)

Coxsackie B virus

b)

Rotavirus

c)

Respiratory syncytial virus

d)

Rhabdovirus

125.

A very small, single-stranded DNA virus that causes a febrile illness with a rash and is called the fifth childhood disease after rubeola, rubella, varicella, and roseola is:

a)

Rotavirus

b)

Adenovirus type 40

c)

Coxsackie A virus

d)

Parvovirus B19

126.

Which virus has been implicated in adult gastroenteritis resulting from ingestion of contaminated food (especially shellfish) and water?

a)

Norwalk-like viruses

b)

Rotavirus

c)

Hepatitis C virus

d)

Coronavirus

127.

Which virus is associated with venereal and respiratory tract warts and produces lesions of skin and mucous membranes?

a)

Polyomavirus

b)

Poxvirus

c)

Adenovirus

d)

Papillomavirus

128.

Which technique is used for the confirmation of infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV-1)?

a)

Western blot (immunoblot) assay

b)

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

c)

Complement fixation

d)

p24 Antigen testing

129.

The organs of a 65-year-old male were donated soon after a fatal auto accident. Three recipients of his corneas and kidneys died within weeks after receiving his organs. Which of the following viruses most likely caused the death of these recipients?

a)

HIV

b)

Rabies

c)

Norwalk-like

d)

Rotavirus

130.

An immunocompromised patient was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hemorrhagic cystitis. Which combination of virus and specimen would be most appropriate to diagnose a viral cause of this disorder?

a)

BK virus—urine

b)

Human papilloma virus—skin

c)

Hepatitis B virus—serum

d)

Epstein–Barr virus—serum

131.

The incorrect match between organism and the appropriate diagnostic procedure is:

a)

Onchocerca volvulus—examination of skin snips

b)

Cryptosporidium—modified acid-fast stain

c)

Echinococcus granulosus—routine ova and parasite examination

d)

Schistosoma haematobium—examination of urine sediment

132.

Parasitic organisms that are most often transmitted sexually include:

a)

Entamoeba gingivalis

b)

Dientamoeba fragilis

c)

Trichomonas vaginalis

d)

Diphyllobothrium latum

133.

The incorrect match between the organism and one method of acquiring the infection is:

a)

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense—bite of sand fleas

b)

Giardia lamblia—ingestion of water contaminated with cysts

c)

Hookworm—skin penetration of larvae from soil

d)

Toxoplasma gondii—ingestion of raw or rare meats

134.

Upon examination of stool material for Cystoisospora belli, one would expect to see:

a)

Sporozoites that are hematoxylin positive

b)

Oocysts that are modified acid-fast variable

c)

Precysts containing chromatoidal bars

d)

Cysts containing sporozoites

135.

Which specimen is the least likely to provide recovery of Trichomonas vaginalis?

a)

Urine

b)

Urethral discharge

c)

Vaginal discharge

d)

Feces

136.

Which of the following is the best technique to identify Dientamoeba fragilis in stool?

a)

Formalin concentrate

b)

Trichrome-stained smear

c)

Modified acid-fast–stained smear

d)

Giemsa’s stain

137.

A 12-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with meningitis and a history of swimming in a warm-water spring. Motile amoebae that measure 10 μ in size are seen in the CSF and are most likely:

a)

Iodamoeba bütschlii trophozoites

b)

Endolimax nana trophozoites

c)

Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites

d)

Naegleria fowleri trophozoites

138.

Characteristics of the rhabditiform (noninfective) larvae of Strongyloides stercoralis include a:

a)

Short buccal capsule and large genital primordium

b)

Long buccal capsule and pointed tail

c)

Short buccal capsule and small genital primordium

d)

Small genital primordium and notch in tail

139.

Visceral larva migrans is associated with which of the following organisms?

a)

Toxocara—serology

b)

Onchocerca—skin snips

c)

Dracunculus—skin biopsy

d)

Angiostrongylus—CSF examination

140.

The examination of sputum may be necessary to diagnose infection with:

a)

Paragonimus westermani

b)

Trichinella spiralis

c)

Wuchereria bancrofti

d)

Fasciola hepatica

141.

The adult tapeworm of Echinococcus granulosus is found in the intestine of:

a)

Dogs

b)

Sheep

c)

Humans

d)

Cattle

142.

In infections with Taenia solium, humans can serve as the:

a)

Definitive host

b)

Intermediate host

c)

Either the definitive or the intermediate host

d)

None of these options

143.

Which microfilariae are usually not found circulating in the peripheral blood?

a)

Brugia malayi

b)

Wuchereria bancrofti

c)

Onchocerca volvulus

d)

Loa loa

144.

Organisms that should be considered in a nursery school outbreak of diarrhea include:

a)

Endolimax nana, Giardia lamblia, and Entamoeba coli

b)

Giardia lamblia, Dientamoeba fragilis, and Cryptosporidium spp.

c)

Cryptosporidium spp., Trichomonas vaginalis, and Entamoeba coli

d)

Pentatrichomonas hominis, Dientamoeba fragilis, and Endolimax nana

145.

The incorrect match between disease and symptoms is:

a)

Paragonimiasis—hemoptysis

b)

Cryptosporidiosis—watery diarrhea

c)

Toxoplasmosis in compromised host—central nervous system symptoms

d)

Enterobiasis—dysentery

146.

The term internal autoinfection can be associated with the following parasites:

a)

Cryptosporidium spp. and Giardia lamblia

b)

Cystoisospora belli and Strongyloides stercoralis

c)

Cryptosporidium spp. and Strongyloides stercoralis

d)

Giardia lamblia and Cystoisospora belli

147.

Ingestion of which of the following eggs will result in infection?

a)

Strongyloides stercoralis

b)

Schistosoma japonicum

c)

Toxocara canis

d)

Opisthorchis sinensis

148.

The most prevalent helminth to infect humans is:

a)

Enterobius vermicularis, the pinworm

b)

Ascaris lumbricoides, the large intestinal roundworm

c)

Taenia saginata, the beef tapeworm

d)

Schistosoma mansoni, one of the blood flukes

149.

Patients with severe diarrhea should use “enteric precautions” to prevent nosocomial infections with:

a)

Giardia lamblia

b)

Ascaris lumbricoides

c)

Cryptosporidium spp.

d)

Cystoisospora belli

150.

When humans have hydatid disease, the causative agent and host classification are:

a)

Echinococcus granulosus—accidental intermediate host

b)

Echinococcus granulosus—definitive host

c)

Taenia solium—accidental intermediate host

d)

Taenia solium—definitive host

151.

Which parasite causes eosinophilic meningoencephalitis, a form of larva migrans causing fever, headache, stiff neck, and increased cells in the spinal fluid?

a)

Necator americanus

b)

Angiostrongylus cantonensis

c)

Ancylostoma braziliense

d)

Strongyloides stercoralis