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PODA IV Exam 1 Cancer: Breast, Prostate, Cervical, Skin

Total questions: 51

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

SATA: WOTF does Alpelidib (Piqray) inhibit

a)

PI3K

b)

Pik3

c)

Phosphoinositide 3 kinsae

d)

Microtubule assembly

2.

WOTF best describes the MOA of Eribulin (Halaven)

a)

Antimitotic agent: inhibits the assembly of microtubules

b)

Phosphoinositide 3 kinase inhibitor

c)

HER2 Inhibitor that binds to NK cells

d)

Represents autologous immunity

e)

Provide strand breakage; Inhibit Topo2; Generate free radicals; Alter cell membrans

3.

WOTF medications should be administered with food?

a)

Ibrance

b)

Palbococlib

c)

Olaparib

d)

Lynparza

4.

WOTF medication's metabolism may be described as a 3A4 and 2B6 inducer; undergoes glucuronide and sulfa conjugation; and to a lesser extent 3A4 inhibition

a)

Olaparib (Lynparza)

b)

Palbociclib (Ibrance)

c)

Bicalutamide (Casodex)

d)

Goserelin (Zoladex)

5.

SATA: WOTF are adverse effects of taxanes?

a)

Mucositis (mouth sores)

b)

Neuritis

c)

VTAC and Bradycardia

d)

CHF

e)

Bone Marrow Depression

6.

WOTF medications are used to manage taxane induced Mucositis?

a)

Polyfermin (Kapivance)

b)

Flutamide (Eulexin)

c)

Epoetin (Procritt)

d)

Sodium thiosulfate

7.

SATA: WOTF are possible adverse effects of HER-2 Inhibitors

a)

Pulmonary effects

b)

GI Effects

c)

Bone marrow depression

d)

CHF

8.

SATA: WOTF is a gonadotropin releasing hormone analog that is used in the treatment of cancer and has adverse effects such as reduced libido, edema, potential for MIs, and hot flashes

a)

Nafarelin (Synarel)

b)

Leuprolide (Lupron)

c)

Goserelin (Zoladex)

d)

Eribulin (Halaven)

9.

SATA: WOTF are agents that can be used in the management of chemotherapy induced anemia

a)

Epoetin (Procritt)

b)

Darbepoetin (Aranesp)

c)

Filgrastim (Neupogen)

d)

Conivaptin (Vaprisol)

10.

Management of chemotherapy induced extravasation includes SATA

a)

Sodium thiosulfate

b)

Cold compress

c)

Limb elevation

d)

Acetylcholine (Mucomyst)

11.

Allopurinol (Zyloprim) can be used to treat hyperuricemia caused by what class of chemotherapy agents?

a)

Vinblastine (Velban)

b)

Oxaliplatin (Eloxatin)

c)

Pembrolizumab (Keytruda)

d)

Finasteride (Proscar)

12.

Which of the following combos that you use for breast cancer employs (contains) Novantrone?

a)

FEC regimen

b)

Coopers regimen

c)

CMF regimen

d)

CFM regimen

e)

VATH regimen

13.

WOTF would produce it’s therapeutic effect by inhibiting PI3K

a)

Abarelix (Plenaxis)

b)

Ketoconazole (Nizoral)

c)

Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)

d)

Eribulin (Halaven)

e)

Alpelisib (Piqray)

14.

WOTF is used to manage cancer chemotherapy induced Nausea and vomiting because it inhibits serotonin 3 receptors

a)

Reglan (Metoclopramide)

b)

Emend (aprepitant)

c)

Valium (Diazepam)

d)

Tropisetron (Novaban)

e)

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

15.

Which of those listed above will produce its effect by inhibiting substance P (always associated with neurokinin 1 receptors)

a)

Reglan (Metoclopramide)

b)

Emend (aprepitant)

c)

Valium (Diazepam)

d)

Tropisetron (Novaban)

e)

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

16.

Considering it’s adverse effects, which of the following would result from cisplatin administration

a)

Hypomagnesemia

b)

Hypocalcemia 

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hyperuricemia

e)

Hypernatremia

17.

How does cisplatin produce an electrolyte imbalance - what does it inhibit?

(a)  

18.

What would you use to manage cisplatin induced nephrotoxicity and how does it work

a)

Amifostine (Ethyol)

b)

It’s a scavenger of free radicals

c)

Capivance (palifermin)

d)

It help protect cells

19.

What would you use to manage mucositis caused by your taxanes?

a)

Capivance (palifermin)

b)

Amifostine (Ethyol)

c)

Febuxostat (Uloric)

d)

Sodium thiosulfate

20.

WOTF would you use to manage extravasation (leaving blood vessels when you try to inject and get out in the tissues) caused by a vesicant?

a)

Elevate the limbs of the patient

b)

Apply some cold compresses

c)

Administer paliformin

d)

Give some sodium thiosulfate

e)

Hydrate the patient

21.

SATA: Examples of vesicants include

a)

Antracycles

b)

Vinca Alkaloids

c)

Mitomycin

d)

Nitrous urea

e)

Nitrogen mustards except for cyclophosphamide

22.

How would you manage chemotherapy induced hemorrhagic cystitis?

a)

Give mesna

b)

Hydrate the patient

c)

Give mucomyst

d)

Administer capivance

e)

Give zyloprim

23.

For cancer chemotherapy induced anemia, which of the following would be appropriate for the pharmacist to recommend?

a)

Procrit

b)

Epoetin

c)

Darbepoetin

d)

Aranesp

e)

Epogen

24.

WOTF would you use to manage cancer chemotherapy induced leukopenia or neutropenia What if it’s white blood cells? neutropenia/?leukopenia

a)

Intron

b)

Neupogen

c)

Neulasta

d)

Pegintron

e)

Leukine

25.

Which of the following would be effective in managing cancer chemotherapy induced hyperuricemia

a)

Zyloprim (allopurinol)

b)

Uloric (Febuxostat)

c)

Elitek (rasburicase)

d)

Krystexxa (pegloticase)

e)

Zurampic (lesinurad)

26.

WOTF is an adverse effect of vinca alkaloid?

a)

SIADH

b)

Loss of hair - alopecia

c)

Hyperuricemia

d)

Extravasation

e)

Diarrhea

27.

SATA: WOTF are used to manage SIADH caused by chemotherapy

a)

demeclocycline

b)

loop diuretics

c)

lithium carbonate

d)

Vaptans

28.

WOTF is least likely to be an adverse effect of lupron (leuprolide)

a)

Hot flashes

b)

MI - myocardial infarction

c)

Thromboembolism

d)

Increase libido

e)

Arrhythmias

29.

WOTF combination regimens that you use to treat prostate cancer represents a complete androgen blockade?

a)

FL regimen

b)

PE regimen

c)

VE regimen

d)

EMCYT

e)

FZ regimen

30.

WOTF agents used to treat prostate cancer is a representation of autologous inhibition of the cancer cells? (produce autologous immunity)

a)

PIQRAY (Alpelisib)

b)

Perjeta (Pertuzumab)

c)

Proscar (Finasteride)

d)

Prevagen

e)

Provenge (Sipuleucel-T)

31.

WOTF would be suggestive of a fast growing and aggressive prostate cancer?

a)

A diploid tumor

b)

A tumor with a gleason number of 8

c)

A well differentiated tumor

d)

A poorly differentiated tumor

e)

An aneuploid tumor

32.

WOTF has been associated with the development of prostate cancer. Mutations in which of the following genes

a)

P53

b)

BRCA1

c)

BRCA2

d)

PRCA 1

e)

HPC 1

33.

WOTF will result in breast cancer development

a)

Loss of P53 gene

b)

Mutations of BRCA2 gene

c)

Amplification of CERB 2 gene

d)

A decrease in the expression of cyclin D gene

e)

A decrease in the expression of BRCA1 gene

34.

WOTF will decrease the risk of prostate cancer development

a)

Lycopene

b)

Selenium

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Vasectomy

e)

Orchiectomy

35.

WOTF produces its effect by inhibiting 5 alpha reductase

a)

Jalyn (Dutasteride/tamsulosin)

b)

Proscar (finasteride)

c)

Dutasteride (Avodart)

d)

Tamsulosin (Flomax)

e)

Saw palmetto

36.

WOTF describe the MOA of anthracyclines?

a)

Alter the membrane

b)

Inhibition of topoisomerase 2 to prevent the resealing of the DNA strands which will prevent DNA division

c)

Generate free radicals which can attack breast cancer cells to alter their membrane

d)

Intercalate DNA and cause strand breakage

37.

WOTF will produce its pharmacological effect by inhibiting 17 hydroxylase enzyme

a)

Zytiga (abiraterone)

b)

Megace

c)

Androcur (cyproterone)

d)

Orilissa (elagolix)

e)

Goserelin (zoladex)

38.

WOTF is effective in the management of basal cell carcinoma because it inhibits the SMO receptor and thereby inhibits the hedgehog signaling pathway

a)

Libtayo (Cemiplimab-rwlc)

b)

Keytruda (Pembrolizumab)

c)

Erivedge (Vismodegib

d)

Zyclara (imiquimod)

e)

Efudex (Topical 5-FU)

39.

WOTF produces its anticancer effect by inhibiting CTLA 4. Very effective in NSCLC

a)

Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

b)

Bevacizumab (Avastin)

c)

Sacituzumab (Trodelvy)

d)

Ipilimumab (Yervoy)

e)

Rituximab (MabThera, Rixathon and Truxima)

40.

WOTF would you recommend for treating HER-2+ metastatic breast cancer?

a)

Rucaparib (Rubraca)

b)

Kisqali (Ribociclib)

c)

Piqray (Alpelisib)

d)

Pertuzumab (Perjeta)

e)

Ibrance (Palbociclib)

41.

What is the dosage of arimidex used in combination with ibrance?

a)

Arimidex (Anastrozole) is given 1 mg po daily

b)

Aromasin is given 25 mg

c)

Femara (Letrozole) is given 2.5 mg

d)

Ibrance is given 125 mg

e)

Faslodex is given 500 mg IM injection into the buttox

42.

WOTF statements will be correct about Ibrance when it is administered with Fluvestrant it is dosed in treating metastatic breast cancer

a)

With fulvestrant via slow im injection into the buttox

b)

When it is administered with fulvestrant it is used to treat a HER2(-) HR+ breast cancer

c)

Ibrance is administered with Fulvestrant with Ibrance orally on days 1-21 on an empty stomach

d)

Ibrance can be given with fulvestrant to treat breast cancer after a prior hormonal treat of the breast cancer

43.

WOTF statements about Ibrance is true

a)

PPB of 85%

b)

Half life is 2-3 hours

c)

Metabolized by 3A4

d)

Administered parenterally

e)

Its kinetics will not be significantly affected by renal dysfunction

44.

WOTF about olaparib would be false?

a)

It has a plasma protein capability of 82%

b)

It is an inhibitor of 2B6

c)

It is effective in treating HER 2 - G (germline) BRCA Mutated breast cancer

d)

It is effective in treating HER2 - S (somatic) BRCA mutated breast cancer

e)

It is a PARP1 inhibitor

45.

WOTF statements about olaparib are true?

a)

Usual dose of 300 mg BID

b)

Has the half-life of about 15 hours

c)

It is a stimulator of 3A4

d)

It is mostly excreted through the urine

e)

It is an inhibitor of 3A4

46.

How would you classify margetuximab?

a)

HER2- Inhibitor

b)

PARP Inhibitor

c)

CDK Inhibitor

d)

RTK Inhibitor

47.

A patient who has malignant melanoma who is being treated with Dartmouth regime is receiving all of the following except

a)

Cisplatin (Platinol)

b)

Sorafenib (Mexavar)

c)

Dacarbazine (DTIC)

d)

Tamoxifen (Novaldex, Soltamox)

e)

Carmustine (BiCNU)

48.

WOTF is a Braf inhibitor that is useful in the management of malignant melanoma?

a)

Dactinomycin (Cosmegen)

b)

Dacarbazine (DTIC)

c)

Dabrafenib (Tafinlar)

d)

Vemurafenib

e)

Sorafenib

49.

WOTF is a PDL1 inhibitor that is used in the treatment of merkel cell carcinoma

a)

Keytruda (Pembrolizumab)

b)

Libtlyo (Cemiplimab)

c)

Bavencio (Avelumab)

d)

Odomzo (Soniedegib)

e)

Erivedge (Vismodegib)

50.

WOTF is a PD1 inhibitor that is used in the treatment of merkel cell carcinoma

a)

Keytruda (Pembrolizumab)

b)

Libtlyo (Cemiplimab)

c)

Bavencio (Avelumab)

d)

Odomzo (Soniedegib)

e)

Erivedge (Vismodegib)

51.

WOTF would be true about the actions of Tivdak (Tivostumab) when it is used to manage cervical cancer?

a)

It inhibits the incorporation of thymidine into DNA

b)

It stops the progression of cell cycle

c)

It is/contains a monoclonal antibody

d)

It induces DNA strand breakage

e)

It is an antibody drug conjugate