Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Cardio IPC Exam 4

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

True or False: Atherosclerosis is an accumulation of WBCs, fatty material, calcium, and scar tissue on the wall of the artery, once it has set in it can be reversed

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Macrophages oxidize LDL-cholesterol and lead to what type of formation that clogs artery?

a)

Foam cell

b)

Thrombus

c)

Triglycerides

3.

What kind of bonds to Saturated fatty acids have?

a)

C=C double bonds

b)

C-C single bonds

4.

A fatty acid labeled 16:0 would be what type of fatty acid

a)

Saturated

b)

Unsaturated

5.

Unsaturated fatty acids have which types of bonds and show up as what type of number symbol?

a)

C=C double bonds

b)

C-C single bonds

c)

16:0

d)

16:1

6.

Omega-6 fatty acids have the first double bonds 6 Carbons away from the alpha carbon, and Omega 3 has the first double bond 3 carbons away. Oxidized LDL can make these chains very susceptible to attack from what?

a)

Electrophiles

b)

Nucleophiles

c)

ROS

d)

H+

7.

Which of the following are effects from the formation of lipid peroxide formation from LDL oxidation with ROS

a)

Fibrosis

b)

Inflammation

c)

DNA/protein damage

d)

Foam cell formation

8.

Which of the following decreased risk of cardiovascular disease in diet studies?

a)

MUFA

b)

PUFA

c)

Trans Fats

d)

Carbohydrates from Starches

e)

Carbohydrates from Grains

9.

Triglycerides are formed by glycerol and fatty acids, under which lipolysis will yield glycerol and convert to what?

a)

LDL

b)

HDL

c)

Glucose

d)

Protein

10.

True or False: We consume more cholesterol in our diet than we do producing it in biosynthesis

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Cholesterol is made in our body from what?

(a)  

12.

Which of the following are important roles of cholesterol in our body?

a)

Bile acid precursor

b)

Hormonal steroid precursor

c)

Vitamin D3 precursor

d)

Vitamin C precursor

e)

Cell membrane structural integrity

13.

What is the rate limiting step in acetylCoA transformation to form mevalonic acid which is the major molecule to convert to cholesterol?

a)

HMG-CoA reductase

b)

HMG-CoA oxidase

c)

HMG-CoA esterase

d)

HMG-CoA protease

14.

Bile acids are formed from cholesterol in the ________ and are metabolized by _________

a)

Hepatocytes; CYP enzymes

b)

Chief cells; CYP enzymes

c)

Hepatocytes; glucuronidation

d)

Goblet cells; esterase

15.

Where do LDL lipoproteins carry lipids?

a)

To peripheral cells

b)

To the liver

16.

Where do HDL lipoproteins carry lipids

a)

To the peripheral cells

b)

To the liver

17.

Which lipoprotein carries the largest amount % of cholesterol?

a)

HDL

b)

LDL

c)

VLDL

d)

Chylomicrons

18.

Which of the following anti-hyperlipidemics reduce lipoprotein production

a)

Niacin

b)

Gemfibrozil

c)

Ezetimibe

d)

Cholestyramine

e)

Atorvastatin

19.

Nicotinic acid is a precursor to NAD+ found as an electron mitochondrial carrier to the ETC. Niacin activates the niacin receptor which has what effect?

a)

Reduce lipolysis

b)

increase LDL

c)

reduce TG

d)

Increase lipoprotein lipase activity

e)

Increase HDL levels

20.

Which of the following are side effects of Niacin?

a)

Vasodilation/Flushing

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Increase Uric acid

d)

Increasing activity of hypotensive agents

e)

Hyperglycemia

21.

The AIM-HIGH trial showed what outcomes for using Niacin with a statin

a)

Reduced events of MI, stroke, revascularization

b)

Increased events of MI, stroke, revascularization

c)

No difference in events of MI, stroke, revascularization

22.

Fibrates are PPARa agonists which are ester prodrugs, what is their type of compound action and acid type?

a)

Hydrophobic

b)

Hydrophilic

c)

Amphipathic

d)

Isobutyryl carboxylic acids

e)

Steroid nucleus compounds

23.

What is the MOA of Fibrates?

a)

Activate the niacin receptor to reduce LDL and TG

b)

Activate the PPARa nuclear receptor in skeletal muscle to move Fatty acids out of vessels

c)

Inhibit the rate limiting enzyme HMG-CoA reductase

d)

Inhibit PCSK9 enzymes that breakdown LDL receptors

24.

What effects do we see from Fibrate MOA?

a)

Reduced lipolysis

b)

Reduced TGs and VLDL

c)

Inhibits fatty acid oxidation

d)

Enhanced lipoprotein lipase activity

25.

Which of the following fibrate drugs increase warfarin levels?

a)

Clofibrate

b)

Gemfibrozil

c)

Fenofibrate

26.

True or False: Gemfibrozil and Fenofibrates can increase bleeding risk and increase tPA production, decrease platelet aggregation, and decrease fibrinogen

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Which of the following can increase myalgias and rhabdomyolysis when combined with statins?

a)

Clofibrate

b)

Gemfibrozil

c)

Fenofibrate

28.

MTP is located in the ER of hepatocytes and it increases production of TG lipoproteins like VLDL and chylomicrons. Lomitapide is used to inhibit this protein. What are the net effects?

a)

Decreased VLDL

b)

Decreased TG transfer

c)

Prevents ApoB lipoproteins to assemble

d)

All of the above

29.

What does Mipomersen do to ApoB lipoprotein synthesis?

a)

Replaces phosphodiester with phosphorothioate to stop nuclease degradation

b)

Antisense blocking of mRNA coding

c)

Blocks translation of ApoB

30.

Both Mipomersen and Lomitapide for familial hypercholesterolemia can cause what ADE?

a)

Hepatic steatosis

b)

Transaminase elevations

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Flushing

31.

Ezetimibe is a fluorinated compound inhibits cholesterol absorption in the small intestine which what?

a)

Interfere with Triglyceride absorption

b)

Be synergistic with Bile acid sequestrants

c)

Inhibit brush border transporter NPC1L1

d)

Can be toxic

32.

What drug is ezetimibe is best used in combination with?

(a)  

33.

Which of the following enhance cholesterol removal?

a)

Gemfibrozil

b)

Cholestyramine

c)

Statins

d)

Niacin

e)

PCSK9 inhibitors

34.

LDL-c circulating in the blood is taken up by LDL receptors in hepatocytes where which things can happen?

a)

Cholesterol is produced from Acetyl CoA

b)

Steroid hormones produced

c)

Bile acids produced

d)

Manufacturing cholesterol for cell membranes

e)

All of the above

35.

Bile acid sequestrants do what?

a)

Ion exchange for Cl- and bind to negatively charged bile acids to excrete them in feces

b)

Absorb into hepatocyte to increase bile acid production for excretion

36.

Bile acid sequestrants decrease LDL levels by doing what?

a)

Lowering bile acid levels by excretion in feces which allows for cholesterol to be used to increase bile acids

b)

Blocking the negative feedback loop to allow for less cholesterol to be made into bile acids

c)

Blocking the negative feedback loop to allow for more cholesterol to be made into bile acids

37.

Which drugs interact with bile acid sequestrants?

a)

PPIs

b)

Thiazides

c)

Digoxin

d)

Warfarin

e)

Statins

38.

which of the following are natural statins with decaline ring structure?

a)

Lovastatin

b)

Atorvastatin

c)

Metavastatin

d)

Pravastatin

e)

Simvastatin

39.

True or False: All of the synthetic statins have the 3,5-dihydroxy carboxylic acid but do not have the decaline rings of natural statins

a)

True

b)

False

40.

True or False: Statins do decrease the production of cholesterol via inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase, but this does not lower LDL from diet but allows for circulating LDL to be continuously excreted

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Which of the following are risks in statin use?

a)

Developing Diabetes

b)

Increased LFTs

c)

Cataracts

d)

Myalgias

e)

All of the above

42.

Which statin has less protein binding and is less likely to displace warfarin?

a)

Atorvastatin

b)

Rosuvastatin

c)

Pravastatin

d)

Simvastatin

43.

Which statins are prodrugs that need to be hydrolyzed to active metabolites?

a)

Atorvastatin

b)

Lovastatin

c)

Simvastatin

d)

Pravastatin

44.

True or False: Statins increase lipoprotein oxidation but decrease inflammation

a)

True

b)

False

45.

True or False: Statins undergo extensive first pass metabolism

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Which enzyme levels need to be monitored on Statins?

a)

Hepatic transaminases LFTs

b)

Creatine phosphokinase CPK

c)

Cardiac Troponin

d)

BNP

47.

PCSK9 protease naturally causes degradation of LDL receptors on hepatocyte cell membranes. PCSK9 inhibitors allow for enhanced expression of LDL-receptors. What are the net effects?

a)

Decreased LDL in blood

b)

Increased excretion of cholesterol

c)

Increased LDL in hepatocytes

d)

Increased cholesterol production

48.

What are the clinical aspects of Niacin immediate release

a)

Metabolism through conjugation

b)

Metabolism through amidation

c)

Crystallized tablet

d)

Flushing

e)

Polygel matrix

49.

What are some clinical aspects of Niacin ER 8hour tablets?

a)

Metabolism is conjugation

b)

Metabolism is amidation

c)

HPMC, povidone

d)

Polygel matrix

e)

Hepatotoxicity

50.

What are some clinical aspects of Niacin SR 24hr tablets?

a)

Polygel matrix

b)

Metabolism is conjugation

c)

Metabolism is amidation

d)

HPMC, povidone

e)

Hepatotoxicity

51.

True or False: Lovastatin IR release increases bioavailability in the fasted state

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Which bile acid sequestrant has dose dependent LDL lowering and less GI side effects than the others?

a)

Colesevelam

b)

Cholestyramine

c)

Colestipol

53.

True or False: Fenofibrate is a lipophilic prodrug undergoing hydrolysis to active Fenofibric acid, it should be taken with food or high fat meal

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Which form of fenofibrates has the best bioavailability due to ionization to increase absorption in aqueous GI environments?

a)

Gemfibrozil

b)

Fenofibrates

c)

Trillipix

d)

Clofibrate

55.

Which fenofibrate formulations require food to be eaten?

a)

Nonmicronized

b)

Nanoparticles

c)

Micronized

d)

Trillipix

e)

Microcoated

56.

Which fenofibrate formulations do not require food?

a)

Nanoparticle

b)

Hard gelatin

c)

IDDP

d)

Choline salt

e)

Nonmicronized

57.

True or False: PCSK9 enzyme is located intracellularly for the monoclonal antibody inhibitors to bind

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Which PCSK9 inhibitor has the lowest incidence of patient's developing neutralizing antibodies?

a)

Repatha

b)

Praluent

59.

What is the trade name for N3 fatty acid ethyl esters?

(a)  

60.

What is the trade name of Icosapent ethyl

(a)  

61.

What is the trade name for N3 carboxylic acids

(a)  

62.

Which fatty acid brand only contains EPA?

a)

Lovaza

b)

Vascepa

c)

Epanova

63.

You have a patient present with history of MI, PAD, and a CABG surgery. Are you using primary or secondary prevention treatments?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

64.

You have a patient present with diabetes, hypertension, and they smoke about one pack of cigarettes per day. They otherwise have unremarkable health history. Are they going to be treated with primary or secondary prevention

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

65.

Which of the following are modifiable ASCVD risk factors?

a)

Hypercholesterolemia

b)

Age

c)

Sleep Apnea

d)

Obesity

e)

Diabetes

66.

If you have a patient with an LDL-c of >190mg/dL but no other risk enhancing factors present, what is the best strategy of treatment?

a)

High intensity statin

b)

Lifestyle changes only

c)

Moderate intensity statin

67.

True or false: The higher the ASCVD risk, the greater the likelihood of benefits of therapy outweighing risks

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Which of the following are good lifestyle management changes a patient should do to reduce risk of ASCVD

a)

Increase intake of vegetables, fruits, legumes, nuts, whole grains, and fish

b)

Replace unsaturated fats with saturated fats

c)

Increase red meat consumption

d)

Engage in 1-2 hours weekly of aerobic or moderate exercise routine

e)

Replace saturated fats with more unsaturated fats

69.

What are the ABCD'S of primary prevention?

a)

Blood pressure goals

b)

Cholesterol goals with statins

c)

Diabetes control with metformin, SGLT2, GLP1s

d)

Aspirin in all patients

e)

Smoking cessation

70.

Which patients would not be good candidates for ASA therapy for primary prevention?

a)

80 year old male with diabetes, HTN, and smokes

b)

52 year old female with high bleed risk on warfarin therapy

c)

45 year old male with 15% risk and no bleeding risk

71.

True or False: The higher the 10 year ASCVD risk score (>10%) the less ASA net benefit and higher GI bleed rates which is not favorable benefits vs risks

a)

True

b)

False

72.

What were the results of the ARRIVE aspirin primary prevention trial?

a)

ASA found to reduce risk of primary outcome and no difference in side effects and safety

b)

ASA found to have no difference in primary outcome and increased side effects GI bleeds

c)

ASA found to increase risk of primary outcome and increase risk of side effects GI bleeds

73.

The ASPREE trial looked at aspirin for primary prevention in adults >70 years old with no history of ASCVD or high risk of bleeding. What were the findings of this?

a)

ASA had reduced risk of primary outcome and increased risk of major hemorrhage

b)

ASA had no difference in risk of primary outcome and increased risk of major hemorrhage

c)

ASA had increased risk of primary outcome and decreased risk of major hemorrhage

74.

What medications would primarily target a TG level above 500-1000

a)

Fibrates

b)

Bile acid sequestrants

c)

Niacin

d)

Omega-3 FA

75.

True or False: The mediterranean diet was found to significantly reduce risk of primary endpoint of Major CV events compared to normal dietary fats

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Losing weight and making dietary changes for cholesterol can reduce the LDL by at least what?

a)

20-30%

b)

10%

c)

50%

77.

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors like statins can up-regulate LDL receptors to clear more LDL on top of what other effects?

a)

Shrink atherogenic blockages

b)

Reduce inflammation

c)

Antioxidant effects

d)

Antithrombotic effects

e)

All of the above

78.

Which of the following effects do Statins have on total cholesterol?

a)

Decrease LDL

b)

Increase HDL

c)

Decrease HDL

d)

Increase TG

e)

Decrease TG

79.

True or False: Statins are contraindicated in pregnancy, nursing, and active liver disease but rarely cause liver disease

a)

True

b)

False

80.

What baseline monitoring should be done prior to starting a statin?

a)

Lipids

b)

LFTs

c)

Creatine Kinase

d)

A1c

e)

Troponin

81.

True or False: Rhabdomyolysis is a muscle myopathy/weakness with a CK >10x ULN with an increase in SrCr

a)

True

b)

False

82.

If a patient presents with myalgia pain and CK is >10 ULN what is the appropriate strategy?

a)

Stop Statin and recheck CK in one week

b)

Start a different statin/lower dose after resolution

c)

Admit patient and administer IV fluids

d)

Continue on same statin therapy

83.

CoQ10 supplementation can possible reduce muscle pain by statins blocking CoQ10 production but what does it not accomplish in statin myalgias?

a)

Reduce CK elevations

b)

Should be used in every patient

c)

Has drug interaction with statin

d)

improves primary endpoint CV mortality

84.

What is the threshold of liver transaminase (ALT/AST) elevations to stop a statin

a)

>3x ULN

b)

>10x ULN

c)

2x ULN

85.

Pulmonary Hypertension is a constriction of the pulmonary arteries, what are the 3 main pathways of this?

a)

Prostacyclin pathway: Decreased aracidonic acid to COX --> Decreased Prostacyclin -> Decreased cAMP -> decreased vasodilation + increased proliferation

b)

NO/CGMP Pathway: Decreased NO --> Decreased cGMP --> Increased PDE5 -> Decreased vasodilation + increased proliferation.

c)

Endothelin Pathway: Increased Endothelin --> Increased ET-A and ET-B receptors --> Increased vasoconstriction + proliferation

d)

cAMP Pathway: Increased cAMP --> Increased Prostacyclin --> Increased vasodilation and Decreased antiproliferation

86.

What is the most common type of pulmonary hypertension?

a)

Left sided heart disease: HFrEF, Vavular, Congenital

b)

Lung diseases: COPD, Sleep apnea, Altitude sickness

c)

Thrombosis: PE, Tumor, parasites

d)

Idiopathic

87.

Pulmonary arterial hypertension is Group 1, and connective tissue disorders are the most common cause. What are also some drugs that can cause this?

a)

SSRI

b)

Amphetamines

c)

St. John's wort

d)

Interferon Alpha and beta

e)

All of the above

88.

True or False: Dyspnea, edema, and fatigue are symptoms of HFrEF and PAH. If a patient has syncope, would this point more to HFrEF or PAH?

a)

PAH

b)

HFrEF

89.

What are some signs of PAH?

a)

JVD

b)

Ascites

c)

Peripheral Edema

d)

Cool Extremities

e)

Increased Wedge pressure

90.

How would a Stage 4 Pulmonary Hypertension patient present with symptoms according to activity?

a)

Physical activity is normal

b)

Mild limitation of physical activity

c)

Significant Limitation of physical activity

d)

Symptoms present at rest

91.

An 6 minute exercise endurance <165meters, Right atrial pressure >14mmHg, and BNP >300ng/l would associate with better or worse prognosis?

a)

Worse

b)

Better

92.

What is the Functional Test to officially diagnose PAH?

a)

RH catheterization vasodilator test

b)

Autoantibody tests

c)

Ventilation perfusion scan/angiography

93.

Which of the following is high and would indicate PAH?

a)

mPAP >25mmHg at rest

b)

sPAP >35mmHg

c)

sPAP 15mmHg

d)

dPAP >10mmHg

94.

If a patient has a PCWP >15mmHg what is this indicative of?

a)

Post capillary PH

b)

Pre capillary PH

95.

Calcium Channel blockers would not be considered for treatment for pulmonary hypertension which is?

a)

Stage 4 PH

b)

Right Heart failure

c)

Elevated right atrial pressure

d)

Increased Cardiac Output

e)

Decreased Cardiac output

96.

Which CCBs would be used in pulmonary hypertension for patients with low HR?

a)

Nifedipine ER 30mg BID

b)

Amlodipine 2.5mg daily

c)

Diltiazem 120mg/day

97.

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors are used for which functional classes of pulmonary hypertension?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

98.

Vasodilator tests are performed first in Pulmonary hypertension to dictate who will respond to CCBs. If a patient does not obtain a decrease in mPAP of >10mmHg and maintain hemodynamics, will they be eligible for CCBs?

a)

Yes

b)

No

99.

Which PDE inhibitor improves exercise capacity, FC, hemodynamics, and also can reduce worsening of FC 2 or 3

a)

Sildenafil

b)

Tadalafil

100.

SGC Stimulator Riociguat enhances cGMP and increases NO. What is contraindicated?

a)

Abrupt stopping of doses

b)

Pregnancy

c)

PDE5 inhibitors

d)

Nitrates

101.

Riociguat is approved for which FC classes?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

102.

Which Endothelin receptor antagonists are ET-A selective?

a)

Bosentan

b)

Macitentan

c)

Ambrisentan

103.

What are shared side effects of all endothelin receptor antagonists

a)

Elevated hepatic enzymes

b)

Edema

c)

Anemia

d)

Headache

104.

True or False: Macitentan was the first ERA to show decrease in morbidity and mortality end points

a)

True

b)

False

105.

True or False: Prostacyclins have antiplatelet and antiproliferative properties to delay progression of lung disease and increase risk of bleeding

a)

True

b)

False

106.

Which prostacyclin drug reduces mortality for FC 3 + 4 PH

a)

Epoprostenol

b)

Treprostinil

c)

Iloprost

107.

What is a common side effect of all prostacyclins?

(a)  

108.

Which prostacyclin has a longer half life that has less ADRs related to CADD-legacy pump malfunction but does not reduce mortality

a)

Epoprostenol

b)

Treprostinil

c)

Iloprost

109.

Which Prostacyclin has IV, inhalation, and PO routes but higher risk of gram-negative bloodstream infections

a)

Epoprostenol

b)

Treprostinil

c)

Iloprost

110.

Selexipag is an oral selective IP receptor agonist, reduces mortality and morbidity alone or with ERAs and PDE5i. Are you able to miss doses more than 3 days without retitrating?

a)

Yes

b)

No

111.

Which PH oral treatments have the highest recommendation of use together?

a)

Ambrisentan

b)

Tadalafil

c)

Bocentan

d)

Sildenafil

112.

What is a first line agent in FC IV PH

a)

Epoprostenol

b)

Ambrisentan

c)

Tadalafil

d)

Nifedipine