WorksheetsCardio IPC Exam 4
Total questions: 112
Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins
True or False: Atherosclerosis is an accumulation of WBCs, fatty material, calcium, and scar tissue on the wall of the artery, once it has set in it can be reversed
True
False
Macrophages oxidize LDL-cholesterol and lead to what type of formation that clogs artery?
Foam cell
Thrombus
Triglycerides
What kind of bonds to Saturated fatty acids have?
C=C double bonds
C-C single bonds
A fatty acid labeled 16:0 would be what type of fatty acid
Saturated
Unsaturated
Unsaturated fatty acids have which types of bonds and show up as what type of number symbol?
C=C double bonds
C-C single bonds
16:0
16:1
Omega-6 fatty acids have the first double bonds 6 Carbons away from the alpha carbon, and Omega 3 has the first double bond 3 carbons away. Oxidized LDL can make these chains very susceptible to attack from what?
Electrophiles
Nucleophiles
ROS
H+
Which of the following are effects from the formation of lipid peroxide formation from LDL oxidation with ROS
Fibrosis
Inflammation
DNA/protein damage
Foam cell formation
Which of the following decreased risk of cardiovascular disease in diet studies?
MUFA
PUFA
Trans Fats
Carbohydrates from Starches
Carbohydrates from Grains
Triglycerides are formed by glycerol and fatty acids, under which lipolysis will yield glycerol and convert to what?
LDL
HDL
Glucose
Protein
True or False: We consume more cholesterol in our diet than we do producing it in biosynthesis
True
False
Cholesterol is made in our body from what?
(a)
Which of the following are important roles of cholesterol in our body?
Bile acid precursor
Hormonal steroid precursor
Vitamin D3 precursor
Vitamin C precursor
Cell membrane structural integrity
What is the rate limiting step in acetylCoA transformation to form mevalonic acid which is the major molecule to convert to cholesterol?
HMG-CoA reductase
HMG-CoA oxidase
HMG-CoA esterase
HMG-CoA protease
Bile acids are formed from cholesterol in the ________ and are metabolized by _________
Hepatocytes; CYP enzymes
Chief cells; CYP enzymes
Hepatocytes; glucuronidation
Goblet cells; esterase
Where do LDL lipoproteins carry lipids?
To peripheral cells
To the liver
Where do HDL lipoproteins carry lipids
To the peripheral cells
To the liver
Which lipoprotein carries the largest amount % of cholesterol?
HDL
LDL
VLDL
Chylomicrons
Which of the following anti-hyperlipidemics reduce lipoprotein production
Niacin
Gemfibrozil
Ezetimibe
Cholestyramine
Atorvastatin
Nicotinic acid is a precursor to NAD+ found as an electron mitochondrial carrier to the ETC. Niacin activates the niacin receptor which has what effect?
Reduce lipolysis
increase LDL
reduce TG
Increase lipoprotein lipase activity
Increase HDL levels
Which of the following are side effects of Niacin?
Vasodilation/Flushing
Hypoglycemia
Increase Uric acid
Increasing activity of hypotensive agents
Hyperglycemia
The AIM-HIGH trial showed what outcomes for using Niacin with a statin
Reduced events of MI, stroke, revascularization
Increased events of MI, stroke, revascularization
No difference in events of MI, stroke, revascularization
Fibrates are PPARa agonists which are ester prodrugs, what is their type of compound action and acid type?
Hydrophobic
Hydrophilic
Amphipathic
Isobutyryl carboxylic acids
Steroid nucleus compounds
What is the MOA of Fibrates?
Activate the niacin receptor to reduce LDL and TG
Activate the PPARa nuclear receptor in skeletal muscle to move Fatty acids out of vessels
Inhibit the rate limiting enzyme HMG-CoA reductase
Inhibit PCSK9 enzymes that breakdown LDL receptors
What effects do we see from Fibrate MOA?
Reduced lipolysis
Reduced TGs and VLDL
Inhibits fatty acid oxidation
Enhanced lipoprotein lipase activity
Which of the following fibrate drugs increase warfarin levels?
Clofibrate
Gemfibrozil
Fenofibrate
True or False: Gemfibrozil and Fenofibrates can increase bleeding risk and increase tPA production, decrease platelet aggregation, and decrease fibrinogen
True
False
Which of the following can increase myalgias and rhabdomyolysis when combined with statins?
Clofibrate
Gemfibrozil
Fenofibrate
MTP is located in the ER of hepatocytes and it increases production of TG lipoproteins like VLDL and chylomicrons. Lomitapide is used to inhibit this protein. What are the net effects?
Decreased VLDL
Decreased TG transfer
Prevents ApoB lipoproteins to assemble
All of the above
What does Mipomersen do to ApoB lipoprotein synthesis?
Replaces phosphodiester with phosphorothioate to stop nuclease degradation
Antisense blocking of mRNA coding
Blocks translation of ApoB
Both Mipomersen and Lomitapide for familial hypercholesterolemia can cause what ADE?
Hepatic steatosis
Transaminase elevations
Hyperglycemia
Flushing
Ezetimibe is a fluorinated compound inhibits cholesterol absorption in the small intestine which what?
Interfere with Triglyceride absorption
Be synergistic with Bile acid sequestrants
Inhibit brush border transporter NPC1L1
Can be toxic
What drug is ezetimibe is best used in combination with?
(a)
Which of the following enhance cholesterol removal?
Gemfibrozil
Cholestyramine
Statins
Niacin
PCSK9 inhibitors
LDL-c circulating in the blood is taken up by LDL receptors in hepatocytes where which things can happen?
Cholesterol is produced from Acetyl CoA
Steroid hormones produced
Bile acids produced
Manufacturing cholesterol for cell membranes
All of the above
Bile acid sequestrants do what?
Ion exchange for Cl- and bind to negatively charged bile acids to excrete them in feces
Absorb into hepatocyte to increase bile acid production for excretion
Bile acid sequestrants decrease LDL levels by doing what?
Lowering bile acid levels by excretion in feces which allows for cholesterol to be used to increase bile acids
Blocking the negative feedback loop to allow for less cholesterol to be made into bile acids
Blocking the negative feedback loop to allow for more cholesterol to be made into bile acids
Which drugs interact with bile acid sequestrants?
PPIs
Thiazides
Digoxin
Warfarin
Statins
which of the following are natural statins with decaline ring structure?
Lovastatin
Atorvastatin
Metavastatin
Pravastatin
Simvastatin
True or False: All of the synthetic statins have the 3,5-dihydroxy carboxylic acid but do not have the decaline rings of natural statins
True
False
True or False: Statins do decrease the production of cholesterol via inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase, but this does not lower LDL from diet but allows for circulating LDL to be continuously excreted
True
False
Which of the following are risks in statin use?
Developing Diabetes
Increased LFTs
Cataracts
Myalgias
All of the above
Which statin has less protein binding and is less likely to displace warfarin?
Atorvastatin
Rosuvastatin
Pravastatin
Simvastatin
Which statins are prodrugs that need to be hydrolyzed to active metabolites?
Atorvastatin
Lovastatin
Simvastatin
Pravastatin
True or False: Statins increase lipoprotein oxidation but decrease inflammation
True
False
True or False: Statins undergo extensive first pass metabolism
True
False
Which enzyme levels need to be monitored on Statins?
Hepatic transaminases LFTs
Creatine phosphokinase CPK
Cardiac Troponin
BNP
PCSK9 protease naturally causes degradation of LDL receptors on hepatocyte cell membranes. PCSK9 inhibitors allow for enhanced expression of LDL-receptors. What are the net effects?
Decreased LDL in blood
Increased excretion of cholesterol
Increased LDL in hepatocytes
Increased cholesterol production
What are the clinical aspects of Niacin immediate release
Metabolism through conjugation
Metabolism through amidation
Crystallized tablet
Flushing
Polygel matrix
What are some clinical aspects of Niacin ER 8hour tablets?
Metabolism is conjugation
Metabolism is amidation
HPMC, povidone
Polygel matrix
Hepatotoxicity
What are some clinical aspects of Niacin SR 24hr tablets?
Polygel matrix
Metabolism is conjugation
Metabolism is amidation
HPMC, povidone
Hepatotoxicity
True or False: Lovastatin IR release increases bioavailability in the fasted state
True
False
Which bile acid sequestrant has dose dependent LDL lowering and less GI side effects than the others?
Colesevelam
Cholestyramine
Colestipol
True or False: Fenofibrate is a lipophilic prodrug undergoing hydrolysis to active Fenofibric acid, it should be taken with food or high fat meal
True
False
Which form of fenofibrates has the best bioavailability due to ionization to increase absorption in aqueous GI environments?
Gemfibrozil
Fenofibrates
Trillipix
Clofibrate
Which fenofibrate formulations require food to be eaten?
Nonmicronized
Nanoparticles
Micronized
Trillipix
Microcoated
Which fenofibrate formulations do not require food?
Nanoparticle
Hard gelatin
IDDP
Choline salt
Nonmicronized
True or False: PCSK9 enzyme is located intracellularly for the monoclonal antibody inhibitors to bind
True
False
Which PCSK9 inhibitor has the lowest incidence of patient's developing neutralizing antibodies?
Repatha
Praluent
What is the trade name for N3 fatty acid ethyl esters?
(a)
What is the trade name of Icosapent ethyl
(a)
What is the trade name for N3 carboxylic acids
(a)
Which fatty acid brand only contains EPA?
Lovaza
Vascepa
Epanova
You have a patient present with history of MI, PAD, and a CABG surgery. Are you using primary or secondary prevention treatments?
Primary
Secondary
You have a patient present with diabetes, hypertension, and they smoke about one pack of cigarettes per day. They otherwise have unremarkable health history. Are they going to be treated with primary or secondary prevention
Primary
Secondary
Which of the following are modifiable ASCVD risk factors?
Hypercholesterolemia
Age
Sleep Apnea
Obesity
Diabetes
If you have a patient with an LDL-c of >190mg/dL but no other risk enhancing factors present, what is the best strategy of treatment?
High intensity statin
Lifestyle changes only
Moderate intensity statin
True or false: The higher the ASCVD risk, the greater the likelihood of benefits of therapy outweighing risks
True
False
Which of the following are good lifestyle management changes a patient should do to reduce risk of ASCVD
Increase intake of vegetables, fruits, legumes, nuts, whole grains, and fish
Replace unsaturated fats with saturated fats
Increase red meat consumption
Engage in 1-2 hours weekly of aerobic or moderate exercise routine
Replace saturated fats with more unsaturated fats
What are the ABCD'S of primary prevention?
Blood pressure goals
Cholesterol goals with statins
Diabetes control with metformin, SGLT2, GLP1s
Aspirin in all patients
Smoking cessation
Which patients would not be good candidates for ASA therapy for primary prevention?
80 year old male with diabetes, HTN, and smokes
52 year old female with high bleed risk on warfarin therapy
45 year old male with 15% risk and no bleeding risk
True or False: The higher the 10 year ASCVD risk score (>10%) the less ASA net benefit and higher GI bleed rates which is not favorable benefits vs risks
True
False
What were the results of the ARRIVE aspirin primary prevention trial?
ASA found to reduce risk of primary outcome and no difference in side effects and safety
ASA found to have no difference in primary outcome and increased side effects GI bleeds
ASA found to increase risk of primary outcome and increase risk of side effects GI bleeds
The ASPREE trial looked at aspirin for primary prevention in adults >70 years old with no history of ASCVD or high risk of bleeding. What were the findings of this?
ASA had reduced risk of primary outcome and increased risk of major hemorrhage
ASA had no difference in risk of primary outcome and increased risk of major hemorrhage
ASA had increased risk of primary outcome and decreased risk of major hemorrhage
What medications would primarily target a TG level above 500-1000
Fibrates
Bile acid sequestrants
Niacin
Omega-3 FA
True or False: The mediterranean diet was found to significantly reduce risk of primary endpoint of Major CV events compared to normal dietary fats
True
False
Losing weight and making dietary changes for cholesterol can reduce the LDL by at least what?
20-30%
10%
50%
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors like statins can up-regulate LDL receptors to clear more LDL on top of what other effects?
Shrink atherogenic blockages
Reduce inflammation
Antioxidant effects
Antithrombotic effects
All of the above
Which of the following effects do Statins have on total cholesterol?
Decrease LDL
Increase HDL
Decrease HDL
Increase TG
Decrease TG
True or False: Statins are contraindicated in pregnancy, nursing, and active liver disease but rarely cause liver disease
True
False
What baseline monitoring should be done prior to starting a statin?
Lipids
LFTs
Creatine Kinase
A1c
Troponin
True or False: Rhabdomyolysis is a muscle myopathy/weakness with a CK >10x ULN with an increase in SrCr
True
False
If a patient presents with myalgia pain and CK is >10 ULN what is the appropriate strategy?
Stop Statin and recheck CK in one week
Start a different statin/lower dose after resolution
Admit patient and administer IV fluids
Continue on same statin therapy
CoQ10 supplementation can possible reduce muscle pain by statins blocking CoQ10 production but what does it not accomplish in statin myalgias?
Reduce CK elevations
Should be used in every patient
Has drug interaction with statin
improves primary endpoint CV mortality
What is the threshold of liver transaminase (ALT/AST) elevations to stop a statin
>3x ULN
>10x ULN
2x ULN
Pulmonary Hypertension is a constriction of the pulmonary arteries, what are the 3 main pathways of this?
Prostacyclin pathway: Decreased aracidonic acid to COX --> Decreased Prostacyclin -> Decreased cAMP -> decreased vasodilation + increased proliferation
NO/CGMP Pathway: Decreased NO --> Decreased cGMP --> Increased PDE5 -> Decreased vasodilation + increased proliferation.
Endothelin Pathway: Increased Endothelin --> Increased ET-A and ET-B receptors --> Increased vasoconstriction + proliferation
cAMP Pathway: Increased cAMP --> Increased Prostacyclin --> Increased vasodilation and Decreased antiproliferation
What is the most common type of pulmonary hypertension?
Left sided heart disease: HFrEF, Vavular, Congenital
Lung diseases: COPD, Sleep apnea, Altitude sickness
Thrombosis: PE, Tumor, parasites
Idiopathic
Pulmonary arterial hypertension is Group 1, and connective tissue disorders are the most common cause. What are also some drugs that can cause this?
SSRI
Amphetamines
St. John's wort
Interferon Alpha and beta
All of the above
True or False: Dyspnea, edema, and fatigue are symptoms of HFrEF and PAH. If a patient has syncope, would this point more to HFrEF or PAH?
PAH
HFrEF
What are some signs of PAH?
JVD
Ascites
Peripheral Edema
Cool Extremities
Increased Wedge pressure
How would a Stage 4 Pulmonary Hypertension patient present with symptoms according to activity?
Physical activity is normal
Mild limitation of physical activity
Significant Limitation of physical activity
Symptoms present at rest
An 6 minute exercise endurance <165meters, Right atrial pressure >14mmHg, and BNP >300ng/l would associate with better or worse prognosis?
Worse
Better
What is the Functional Test to officially diagnose PAH?
RH catheterization vasodilator test
Autoantibody tests
Ventilation perfusion scan/angiography
Which of the following is high and would indicate PAH?
mPAP >25mmHg at rest
sPAP >35mmHg
sPAP 15mmHg
dPAP >10mmHg
If a patient has a PCWP >15mmHg what is this indicative of?
Post capillary PH
Pre capillary PH
Calcium Channel blockers would not be considered for treatment for pulmonary hypertension which is?
Stage 4 PH
Right Heart failure
Elevated right atrial pressure
Increased Cardiac Output
Decreased Cardiac output
Which CCBs would be used in pulmonary hypertension for patients with low HR?
Nifedipine ER 30mg BID
Amlodipine 2.5mg daily
Diltiazem 120mg/day
Phosphodiesterase inhibitors are used for which functional classes of pulmonary hypertension?
1
2
3
4
Vasodilator tests are performed first in Pulmonary hypertension to dictate who will respond to CCBs. If a patient does not obtain a decrease in mPAP of >10mmHg and maintain hemodynamics, will they be eligible for CCBs?
Yes
No
Which PDE inhibitor improves exercise capacity, FC, hemodynamics, and also can reduce worsening of FC 2 or 3
Sildenafil
Tadalafil
SGC Stimulator Riociguat enhances cGMP and increases NO. What is contraindicated?
Abrupt stopping of doses
Pregnancy
PDE5 inhibitors
Nitrates
Riociguat is approved for which FC classes?
1
2
3
4
Which Endothelin receptor antagonists are ET-A selective?
Bosentan
Macitentan
Ambrisentan
What are shared side effects of all endothelin receptor antagonists
Elevated hepatic enzymes
Edema
Anemia
Headache
True or False: Macitentan was the first ERA to show decrease in morbidity and mortality end points
True
False
True or False: Prostacyclins have antiplatelet and antiproliferative properties to delay progression of lung disease and increase risk of bleeding
True
False
Which prostacyclin drug reduces mortality for FC 3 + 4 PH
Epoprostenol
Treprostinil
Iloprost
What is a common side effect of all prostacyclins?
(a)
Which prostacyclin has a longer half life that has less ADRs related to CADD-legacy pump malfunction but does not reduce mortality
Epoprostenol
Treprostinil
Iloprost
Which Prostacyclin has IV, inhalation, and PO routes but higher risk of gram-negative bloodstream infections
Epoprostenol
Treprostinil
Iloprost
Selexipag is an oral selective IP receptor agonist, reduces mortality and morbidity alone or with ERAs and PDE5i. Are you able to miss doses more than 3 days without retitrating?
Yes
No
Which PH oral treatments have the highest recommendation of use together?
Ambrisentan
Tadalafil
Bocentan
Sildenafil
What is a first line agent in FC IV PH
Epoprostenol
Ambrisentan
Tadalafil
Nifedipine
