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Microbiology

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Grade A milk is classified as:

a)

Milk that has a bacterial count 25,000 per ml once raw and not to exceed 10,000 bacteria per ml once pasteurized

b)

Milk that has a bacterial count 75,000 per ml when raw and not to exceed 15,000 bacteria per ml once pasteurized

c)

Milk that has a bacterial count 100,000 per ml when raw and not to exceed 25,000 bacteria per ml once pasteurized

d)

Milk that has a bacterial count 50,000 per ml when raw and not to exceed 10,000 bacteria per ml once

2.

Milk-borne disease for humans include:

a)

M. tuberculosis

b)

B. anthracis

c)

S. typhi

d)

Q fever

3.

Milk-borne diseases for cows include:

a)

M. bovis

b)

B. anthracis

c)

S. typhi

d)

Q fever

4.

Which of the following are methods for testing for the production of beta-lactamase?

a)

Chromogenic cephalosporin method

b)

Acidometric method

c)

Iodometric method

d)

all of these

5.

Which of the following indicates a positive reaction for the beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method?

a)

Production of acid

b)

Color change

c)

Reduction of nitrates

d)

Decolorization of a starch-iodine mixture

6.

Which of the following media cannot be used in the confirmed test in water analysis?

a)

EMB agar

b)

Endo's agar

c)

BGBL broth

d)

Lactose broth

7.

In the bacteriological analysis of water, the CONFIRMED test consists of:

a)

Demonstration of Gram negative non-sporulating rods from an agar slant

b)

Gas in a lactose tube

c)

Typical coliform colonies on EMB agar plates

d)

Acid and gas in lactose tubes

8.

The bacteriological examination of water consists of:

a)

The total plate count

b)

Detecting the presence or absence of coliforms and the estimation of the Most Probable Number (MPN)

c)

Both of these

9.

Which substance is NOT commonly added to produce a selective medium?

a)

Meat extract

b)

Dyes

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Acid

10.

Fecal cultures are inoculated on bismuth sulfite or brilliant green agars specifically for the isolation of:

a)

Shigella species

b)

Campylobacter species

c)

Vibrio species

d)

Salmonella species

11.

In search for carriers of Salmonella typhi, the plating medium of choice is:

a)

SS

b)

BS

c)

BG

d)

EMB

12.

Select the media of choice for recovery of Vibrio cholerae from a stool specimen:

a)

MacConkey agar and thioglycolate media

b)

Blood agar and selenite broth

c)

TCBS and alkaline peptone water

d)

Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar

13.

Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) is used for the recovery of:

a)

Yersinia enterocolitica

b)

Clostridium perfringens

c)

Yersinia intermedia

d)

Clostridium difficile

14.

MUG test detects for:

a)

β\beta -Galactosidase 

b)

β\beta  -Glucuronidase

c)

Catalase

d)

Tryptophanase

15.

Flagella staining technique most commonly used in clinical laboratories is:

a)

Wayson

b)

Kinyoun

c)

Dienes

d)

Leifson

16.

True for sensitivity testing:

a)

Most organisms are incubated at 35oC in room air, but increased CO2 is used for testing of specific fastidious bacteria

b)

Similarly, the incubation time may be increased beyond 16 hours to enhance detection of certain resistance patterns

c)

both of these

d)

Note of these

17.

the concentration of calcium and magnesium ions in susceptibility testing medium is significant when testing the susceptibility of Pseudomonas aeruginosa to:

a)

Polymixin B

b)

Nalidixic acid

c)

Penicillin

d)

Gentamicin

18.

Which of the following filters can give 100% sterility?

a)

Seitz

b)

Millipore (0.22 μ\mu  m)

c)

Millipore (0.5 μ\mu  m)

d)

both A and B

19.

Micrococcus and Staphylococus species are differentiated by which test?

a)

Fermentation of glucose (OF tube)

b)

Gram's stain

c)

Catalase test

d)

All of these

20.

A spherical, Gram-positive coccus that is catalase positive , non-motile and unable to produce acid from glucose anaerobically is best identified as a member of the genus:

a)

Micrococcus

b)

Staphylococcus

c)

Veillonella

d)

Moraxella

21.

Exfoliatin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for causing:

a)

Carbuncles

b)

toxic shock syndrome

c)

Enterocolitis

d)

Scalded skin syndrome

22.

Slime production is associated with which Staphylococcus species?

a)

S. aureus

b)

S. intermedius

c)

S. epidermidis

d)

S. saprophyticus

23.

Which of the following is RESISTANT to 5 μ\mu  g novobiocin?

a)

S. saprophyticus

b)

S. epidermidis

24.

The etiologic agent commonly associated with septicemia and meningitis of newborns is:

a)

S. pyogenes

b)

S. pneumoniae

c)

S. agalactiae

25.

Which of the following organisms is able to hydrolyze sodium hippurate to benzoic acid and glycine?

a)

S. agalactiae

b)

E. faecalis

c)

S. pneumoniae

26.

The bacitracin susceptibility test is used for the presumptive identification of:

a)

Group D streptococci

b)

Viridans streptococci

c)

Group A streptococci

d)

Group B streptococci

27.

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Viridans streptococci can be differentiated by which test?

a)

Optochin disk test

b)

CAMP test

c)

Bacitracin disk test

d)

bile esculin test

28.

Solubility in the presence of sodium desoxycholate is characteristic of:

a)

streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Group B streptococci

c)

Group D streptococci

29.

the salt tolerance test (6.5% salt broth) is used to presumptively identify:

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Streptococcus equines

c)

Streptococcus bovis

d)

Group D streptococci (enterococci)

30.

The Quellung test is used to identify which Streptococcus spp.?

a)

S. pyogenes

b)

S. agalactiae

c)

S. sanguis

d)

S. pneumoniae

31.

Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) media is used primarily for the selective recovery of which organism from genital specimens?

a)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

b)

Neisseria sicca

c)

Neisseria lactamica

d)

Neisseria flavescens

32.

The superoxol test is used as a presumptive test for:

a)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

b)

Neisseria lactamica

c)

Neisseria meningitides

d)

Moraxella catarrhalis

33.

Which of the following regents is added to detect the production of indole?

a)

p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

b)

Bromcresol purple

c)

MR

d)

Cytochrome oxidase

34.

A negative methyl red reaction is characteristic of:

a)

Escherichia

b)

Proteus

c)

Providencia

d)

Enterobacter

35.

The Voges-Proskauer (VP) test detects which end product of glucose fermentation?

a)

Acetoin

b)

Nitrite

c)

Acetic acid

d)

H2S

36.

Which genera are positive for phenylalanine deaminase?

a)

Enterobacter, Escherichia and Salmonella

b)

Klebsiella, and Enterobacter

c)

Morganella, Providencia and Proteus

d)

Proteus, Escherichia and Shigella

37.

A positive gelatin reaction is characteristic of:

a)

Serratia liquefaciens

b)

Salmonella enteritidis

c)

Morganella morganii

d)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

38.

Which Escherichia coli type is commonly associated with chronic diarrhea in infants and nursery outbreaks in the United States?

a)

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

b)

Enteropathogenic E. coli

c)

Enteroinvasive E. coli

d)

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

39.

An isolate of E. coli recovered from the stool of a patient with severe bloody diarrhea should be tested for what sugar before sending to a reference laboratory for serotyping?

a)

Sorbitol

b)

Mannitol

c)

Raffinose

d)

Sucrose

40.

Which genera of Enterobacteriacea are usually nonmotile at 36oC?

a)

Shigella, Klebsiella and Yersinia

b)

Proteus, Providencia and Salmonella

c)

Escherichia, Edwardsiella and Enterobacter

d)

Serratia, Morganella and Hafria

41.

Which single test best separates Klebsiella oxytoca from Klebsiella pneumoniae?

a)

urease

b)

sucrose

c)

citrate

d)

indole

42.

Production of a yellow pigment is characteristic of which species of Enterobacter?

a)

E. cloacase

b)

E. aerogenes

c)

E. sakazakii

d)

E. gergoviae

43.

In grouping Shigella organisms, agglutination by Group B antisera indicates that the species is:

a)

Shigella dysenteriae

b)

Shigella boydii

c)

Shigella flexneri

d)

Shigella sonnei

44.

Pus with blue green-color was aspirated from empyema. A gram stain of the aspirated material showed many WBCs and numerous gram-negative bacilli. The most likely etiologic agent in this case would be:

a)

Legionella pneumophia

b)

Morganella morganii

c)

Pseudomonas auruginosa

d)

Acinetobacter anitratus

45.

The blood bank reports that samples of banked blood stored at refrigerator temperature have negative bacillus. the organisms known to be implicated in such cases are:

a)

Pseudomonas fluorescens and Pseudomonas putida

b)

Alcaligenes faecalis and Alcalignes odorans

c)

Acinetobacter calcoaceticus spp anitratus and Iwoffi

d)

Pseudomonas cepacia and Pseudomonas stutzeri

46.

Only toxigenic strains of which serogroup are implicated in epidemic infections of Vibrio Cholerae?

a)

01

b)

02

c)

03

d)

04

47.

The porphyrin test is most useful for the identification of which of the following?

a)

Streptococcus sp.

b)

Moraxella sp.

c)

Nocardia sp.

d)

Haemophilus sp.

48.

The predominant serotype of Haemophilus influenzae implicated in meningeal infection is:

a)

Serotype A

b)

Serotype B

c)

Serotype C

d)

Serotype D

49.

Epiglottitis in children is a common manifestation of an infection with which of the following?

a)

S. pyogenes

b)

M. catarrhalis

c)

S. mutans

d)

H. influenzae

50.

Which Haemophilus sp. is difficult to isolate and recover from genital ulcers and swollen lymph nodes?

a)

H. aphrophilus

b)

H. ducreyi

c)

H. haemolyticus

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