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Worksheets

Bio 205 Finals

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

is the study of disease patterns, such as the frequency and spread of the disease

a)

Epidemiology

b)

Etiology

c)

Microbiology

d)

Pathology

2.

If virus/bacterium spread worldwide

a)

pandemic

b)

endemic

c)

epidemic

3.

Low red blood cells is called

a)

anemia

b)

neutropenia

c)

Thrombocytopenia

4.

low in RBC, WBC, and Thrombocytes is called

a)

Pancytopenia

b)

Thrombocytopenia

c)

anemia

d)

neutropenia

5.

if disease is continually present within a specific region it is called?

a)

endemic

b)

pandemic

c)

epidemic

6.

what kind of vector where mosquitoes carries malaria and transmit it to human via voting

a)

biological vector

b)

mechanical vector

7.

causative agent of encephalitis is spread by mosquitoes.

a)

west nile virus

b)

zika virus

c)

Chikungunya virus

d)

malaria

8.

are mechanical vector and move from feces from picnic food and deposit contaminants

a)

flies

b)

mosquitoes

c)

ticks

d)

fleas

9.

eating contaminated peanut butter from a food distributor is an example of

a)

vehicle transmission disease

b)

mechanical transmission disease

c)

biological transmission disease

10.

the number of deaths in a given area or period, or from a particular cause

a)

mortality

b)

morbidity

11.

is the measure of problems/disability caused by disease.

a)

mortality

b)

morbidity

12.

proved that bacteria caused wine spoilage, developed immunization techniques, and developed the rabies vaccine

a)

Louis Pasteur

b)

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

c)

Robert Hooke

d)

Alexander Fleming

13.

is used to eliminate pathogens in dairy, wine, and beer products.

a)

pasteurization

b)

sanitization

c)

disinfection

d)

sterilization

14.

may be given to a patient infected with rabies by giving immune globulin

a)

passive immunity

b)

active immunity

c)

artificial passive immunity

d)

natural active immunity

15.

a person receives antibodies via injection.

a)

artificial passive immunity

b)

natural active immunity

c)

active immunity

d)

passive immunity

16.

are grouped based on their mechanism of action whether they are broad/narrow spectrum or bacteriostatic/bactericidal.

a)

antibiotics

b)

antituberculosis

c)

antifungals

d)

antivirals

17.

mos antibiotics are ___ at low concentration.

a)

bacteriostatic

b)

bactericidal

c)

broad spectrum

d)

narrow spectrum

18.

___ is a Beta-Lactam antibiotic

a)

Penicillin

b)

Quinolone

c)

Amino-glycosides

d)

Daptomycin

19.

What antibiotic is Rx of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?

a)

vancomycin

b)

clindamycin

c)

minocycline

d)

linezolid

20.

What antibiotic is Rx of Vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (VRSA)?

a)

linezolid

b)

vancomycin

c)

minocycline

d)

clindamycin

21.

permanent tooth discoloration in children are side effect of?

a)

Tetracycline

b)

macrolide

c)

beta-lactams

d)

penicillin

22.

If a patient develops severe diarrhea after a course of antibiotic treatment, you might suspect?

a)

Clostridium difficile

b)

Hepatitis C

c)

RSV

d)

Herpes

23.

is acquired by direct contact with the patient or environment

a)

transient flora

b)

human flora

c)

microflora

d)

normal flora

24.

caused by Clostridium difficile is one of the most common hospital-acquired infections (> 500 000/year)

a)

colitis

b)

spores

c)

severe diarrhea

d)

fever

25.

A patient with a confirmed case of Clostridium difficile should

a)

have standard precautions initiated, as well as contact precautions.

b)

stopping the antibiotics thought to be causing the infection

c)

be excluded from the workplace for 48 hours after their symptoms of diarrhoea and/or vomiting have ceased.

d)

take antibiotics as prescribed by your doctor and never share the medication with others.

26.

is the most common cause of septic arthritis

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Clostridium difficile colitis

c)

Acute Cholecystitis

d)

Appendicitis

27.

skin infection found in the upper dermis and lymphatics

a)

Erysipelas

b)

Cellulitis

c)

Folliculitis

d)

Impetigo

28.

Deeper dermis and subcutaneous tissues infection that spread

a)

Cellulitis

b)

Erysipelas

c)

Folliculitis

d)

Impetigo

29.

An R.N. wearing gloves to prevent contact with a patient’s blood will

a)

decrease entry of the pathogen into the body and break the chain of infection

b)

increase entry of the pathogen into the body and break the chain of infection

c)

break the entry of the pathogen into the body and break the chain of infection

d)

open the entry of the pathogen into the body and break the chain of infection

30.

There are three categories/types of Transmission-Based Precautions, except...

a)

contact precaution

b)

droplet precaution

c)

airborne precaution

d)

standard precaution

31.

When activities generate splashes or sprays of bodily fluids

a)

wear a gown when caring for a patient

b)

hand hygiene and cough etiquette

c)

the safe use and disposal of sharps

d)

routine environmental cleaning

32.

A patient with a confirmed case of Bordetella pertussis should have standard precautions initiated, as well as?

a)

droplet precaution

b)

contact precaution

c)

airborne precaution

33.

Covering one’s mouth/nose when one sneezes helps to prevent

a)

airborne transmission

b)

contact transmission

c)

droplet transmission

34.

A patient with a confirmed case of tuberculosis should have standard precautions initiated, as well as?

a)

airborne precautions

b)

contact precautions

c)

droplet precautions

d)

standard precautions

35.

A patient with a confirmed case of Clostridium difficile should have standard precautions initiated, as well as

a)

contact precaution

b)

droplet precaution

c)

airborne precaution

36.

Thoroughly cleaning a patient’s room after discharge helps limit the spread of disease by

a)

direct contact

b)

indirect contact

c)

vehicle transmission

d)

biological transmission

37.

A physician unknowingly using a ninfected Stethoscope Is considered an

a)

Indirect way of transmitting disease

b)

direct way of transmitting disease

c)

biological way of transmitting disease

d)

mechanical way of transmitting disease

38.

is used for cleaning instruments, but skin contact should be avoided.

a)

Phenol

b)

Glutaraldehyde

c)

hydrogen peroxide

d)

ortho-phthalaldehyde

39.

is a process used to remove contaminants by chemical or physical means.

a)

decontamination

b)

Disinfection

c)

Sanitization

d)

Sterilization

40.

is the process that reduces the total bacteria contamination level so that an object can be handled safely.

a)

decontamination

b)

sanitization

c)

disinfection

d)

sterilization

41.

can be used to inhibit growth on fruits and vegetables.

a)

Gamma irradiation

b)

UV Light

c)

Hydrogen peroxide

d)

Ethylene oxide

42.

is as effective as chlorine, but is used as a mild antiseptic for wound cleaning.

a)

Hydrogen peroxide

b)

Gamma Irradiation

c)

UV Light

d)

Ethylene Oxide

43.

The process that eliminates vegetative, pathogenic microbes from an inanimate object

a)

disinfection

b)

decontamination

c)

sanitization

d)

sterilization

44.

The use of ____ lessens the amount of time needed to disinfect or sterilize medical instruments.

a)

air

b)

water

c)

heat

d)

soap

45.

is a gas sterilants

a)

Ethylene Oxide

b)

Hydrogen Peroxide

c)

formaldehyde

d)

propylene oxide

46.

are effective against gram-positive bacteria, but not bacillus spores, enteroviruses, and hepatitis B.

a)

Quaternary ammonium compounds

b)

Hydroxylammonium compounds‎

c)

Chloroxylenol

d)

Methylammonium compounds‎

47.

are the hardest microbial structures to kill/most difficult to destroy.

a)

endospores

b)

spores

c)

megaspore

48.

when used on skin, is effective in killing all of the following except bacterial spores.

a)

alcohol

b)

soap

c)

sanitizer

d)

water

49.

the most efficient means of sterilization is

a)

autoclave

b)

filtration

c)

radiation

d)

dry heat

50.

is often used to diagnose the causative agent for Gonorrhea,  Herpes simplex virus , HIV

a)

PCR testing aka NAAT (nucleic acid amplification testing)

b)

urine testing

c)

Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

d)

stool testing

51.

infection can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women but also cause conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis

a)

chlamydia/gonorrhea

b)

urethritis

c)

conjunctivitis

d)

diverticulitis

52.

Chlamydia’s takes ____ between exposure and symptoms → a large number of INFECTED BUT ASYMPTOMATIC individuals → spread the disease WITHOUT KNOWING IT!

a)

1-3 weeks

b)

2-14 days

c)

1 week

d)

1-4 weeks

53.

Patients with____ are at risk for developing opportunistic infections, fungal infections, cancer

a)

HIV

b)

UTI

c)

septic arthritis

d)

Clostridium difficile colitis

54.

is the most common chronic bloodborne infection in the United States and therefore the most common bloodborne

a)

Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

b)

hepatitis B virus (HBV)

c)

human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

55.

Drugs used to treat a ___ infection include Acyclovir and valacyclovir (valtrex)

a)

herpes

b)

HIV

c)

chlamydia

d)

gonorrhea

56.

are the most frequent bacterial infection in woman

a)

cystitis/pyelonephritis

b)

Pseudomonas infection

c)

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

d)

Urethritis

57.

gall bladder infection

a)

cholecystitis

b)

cystitis

c)

pyelonephritis

d)

urethritis

58.

can cause diarrhea in individuals who have eaten undercooked hamburger

a)

pathogenic E. coli

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Clostridium kluyveri

d)

Thiobacillus novellus

59.

is a protozoan parasite most commonly infects human gastrointestinal tracts

a)

Giardia

b)

fluke

c)

tapeworm

d)

pinworm

60.

a parasitic group that only contains single-celled organisms

a)

protozoa

b)

helminths

c)

arthropods

61.

A person infected with Giardia should be treated with fluids,

electrolytes, and antimicrobials such as

a)

metronidazole

b)

tinidazole

c)

Ivermectin

d)

Albendazole

62.

Giardia, Entamoeba, Pinworm parasite is transmitted by

a)

contaminated food

b)

sexual contact

c)

dirty water

d)

blood

63.

Viruses are classified by whether they contain _____

a)

RNA/DNA

b)

RNA

c)

DNA

64.

Most antibiotics are bacteriostatic at _____ concentrations

a)

low

b)

high

c)

set

d)

medium

65.

What is not an antimicrobial therapy effectiveness?

a)

Assess the presence/severity of side effects

b)

Laboratory andother clinical test results

c)

Physical changes in the patient

d)

symptoms gone after few days taking antibiotic

66.

A health care worker wearing gloves to prevent contact with a patient's blood will have an effect on entry of the pathogen into the body part of the (a)  

67.

Environment/animals/fomites are a possible (a)   of infection

68.

(a)   is the physical removal of all foreign matter

69.

Human immunodeficiency virus If left untreated, which of the followingcan lead to (a)  

70.

A (a)   to test for the cause of a bladder infection checks for pyuria and nitrite

71.

Cystitis/pyelonephritis (UTI) are the most frequently in ages ______♀

a)

16-35 yrs old

b)

21-35 yrs old

c)

18-40 yrs old

d)

25-45 yrs old

72.

Always perform (a)   to diagnose catheter-relatedbloodstream infections

73.

These are SYMPTOMS of Cholecystitis, except..

a)

RUQ pain/may radiate to the back

b)

nausea

c)

vomiting

d)

diarrhea

74.

Three diseases are associated with contaminated dairy products or poultry, except..

a)

Campylobacter

b)

Salmonella

c)

Shigella

d)

listeria

75.

Giardia is a protozoan parasite most commonly infects human (a)  

76.

Wash with soap and water method of hand hygiene is best to be used when caring for a patient with _____

a)

diarrhea

b)

dizziness

c)

headache

d)

allergies

77.

How can chlamydia be transmitted?

a)

Spread the disease without knowing it

b)

Spread the disease by being sexually active

c)

Spread the disease by by breathing, coughing, sneezing.

d)

spread the disease by feces, urine, or saliva.

78.

Pain/high blood pressure, tachycardia, fever is examples of

(a)  

79.

Performing (a)   before and after administering an injection

80.

what is the clinical indication for the use of broad-spectrum antibiotic (empirical rx)

(a)  

81.

simply using antibiotic for no reason/avoiding finishing a full antibiotic prescription/taking an antibiotic for a viral infection can..?

a)

increase the resistance of bacteria to antibiotics

b)

decrease the resistance of bacteria to antibiotics

c)

completely resistance of bacteria to antibiotics

d)

increase antibiotic effectiveness