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SI Lab Tests

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which blood test checks for anemia

a)

Complete Blood Count

b)

Complete Metabolic Panel

c)

Hemeoccult

d)

PT/INR

2.

A Complete Blood Count can evaluate a patient's

a)

Hematologic system

b)

Immunologic system

c)

Electrolyte status

d)

Kidney function

3.

The full name for a CBC is a

(a)  

4.

The acronym for a Complete Blood Count is

(a)  

5.

Which of these is NOT evaluated by a Complete Metabolic Panel

a)

Glucose

b)

Intravascular clotting

c)

Liver Function

d)

Electrolyte Status

6.

Which of these forms of imaging expose a patient to radiation

a)

X-Ray

b)

Computerized Tomography

c)

Magnetic Resonance Imaging

d)

Computerized Tomography Angiography

7.

MRI exposes a patient to radiation

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Ultrasound imaging exposes a patient to radiation

a)

True

b)

False

9.

X-Ray imaging exposes a patient to radiation

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Computerized Tomography (CT) exposes a patient to radiation

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Echocardiography uses X-Rays to evaluate a heart

a)

True

b)

False

12.

If a CBC shows anemia that means ____ is low

a)

WBCs

b)

INR

c)

Albumin

d)

RBCs

13.

Which condition(s) can cause anemia

a)

Polycythemia Vera

b)

Sickle Cell

c)

Dietary deficiency

d)

Hemorrhage

14.

Moving to a higher altitude causes a normal physiologic increase in RBCs

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Leukopenia is used to describe low

a)

RBCs

b)

D-Dimer

c)

Glucose

d)

WBCs

16.

A Complete Metabolic Panel evaluates bleeding time

a)

True

b)

False

17.

The full name for a CMP is a

(a)  

18.

The acronym for a Complete Metabolic Panel is a

(a)  

19.

A CMP is commonly obtained in healthy patients to monitor their response to medications

a)

True

b)

False

20.

A CT scan uses X-Rays

a)

True

b)

False

21.

An MRI uses X-Rays

a)

True

b)

False

22.

What are some advantages of X-Rays?

a)

Speed

b)

Cost

c)

Radiation Exposure

d)

Are indicated for use in pregnancy

23.

X-Rays can NEVER be ordered in a pregnant patient

a)

True

b)

False

24.

For a suspected stroke a CT Head with IV contrast should be ordered first

a)

True

b)

False

25.

EKG/ECG stands for

a)

Exceptionally K/Cool Guys & Gals

b)

Eggs, K/Coffee, Grits

c)

Electrocardiogram

d)

Danger Squiggles

26.

An EKG/ECG can detect all heart attacks

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The acronym for an Electrocardiogram is a

(a)  

28.

The acronym UA is used for which test

(a)  

29.

The test name Urinalysis can be abbreviated as

(a)  

30.

A UA can check for

a)

Urinary Tract Infection

b)

Excess Glucose

c)

Heart Damage

d)

Kidney Damage

31.

Oliguria is a condition where patient makes than ____ of urine per day

a)

<1,000ml

b)

<600ml

c)

<400ml

d)

<200ml

32.

Anuria is a condition where a patient makes ____ of urine per day

a)

<800ml

b)

<500ml

c)

<300ml

d)

<100ml

33.

The acronym MRI is used to describe which test

(a)  

34.

Magnetic Resonance Imaging can be abbreviated as

(a)  

35.

MRIs are convenient to use because they are quick to obtain

a)

True

b)

False

36.

What are reasons an MRI may not be appropriate for a patient?

a)

Patient has claustrophobia

b)

Patient is pregnant

c)

Patient has an acute life threatening disease

d)

Patient has potential brain cancer

37.

Ultrasound imaging exposes patients to radiation

a)

True

b)

False

38.

What are some conditions an Ultrasound can evaluate for

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Stroke

c)

Abscess

d)

Acid Reflux

39.

A D-Dimer is used to check for

a)

Abnormal Bleeding Time

b)

Anemia

c)

Intravascular Clotting

d)

Infection

40.

Which test can be used to evaluate intravascular clotting

(a)  

41.

A D-Dimer has very few false positives

a)

True

b)

False

42.

The test name Arterial Blood Gas can be abbreviated as

(a)  

43.

The acronym ABG stands for which blood test

(a)  

44.

ABG can be used to monitor

a)

Patients on ventilators

b)

Cardiac enzymes

c)

Diabetes

45.

A Respiratory Acidosis is compensated by a

a)

Respiratory Alkalosis

b)

Respiratory Acidosis

c)

Metabolic Acidosis

d)

Metabolic Alkalosis

46.

The normal pH for the human body is

a)

7.0-7.1

b)

7.35-7.45

c)

7.8-8.0

d)

8.0-8.1

47.

A Metabolic Acidosis is compensated by a

a)

Respiratory Alkalosis

b)

Respiratory Acidosis

c)

Metabolic Alkalosis

d)

Metabolic Acidosis

48.

The acronym PFT stands for

a)

Pretty Fancy Tea

b)

Pulmonary Function Test

c)

Potatoes Fried Thoroughly

d)

Please Forget That

49.

The test name PFT is an acronym for a

(a)  

50.

The test name Pulmonary Function Test can be abbreviated as

(a)  

51.

Conditions that a PFT is commonly used for include

a)

Asthma

b)

Heart Attack

c)

COPD

d)

Diabetes

52.

A CTA is used to more accurately see a patient's

a)

Bones

b)

Vasculature

c)

Nervous System

53.

A CTA of the Chest is most commonly used to diagnose a

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Heart Attack

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Pulmonary Embolism

54.

A CTA of the brain can be used to evaluate for

a)

Aneurysms

b)

Stenosis

c)

Embolisms

d)

Occlusions

55.

Some conditions that a lumbar puncture and CSF analysis can be used to evaluate for include

a)

Meningitis

b)

Brain/Spinal Cancers

c)

Urinary Tract Infection

d)

Cerebral Hemorrhage

56.

It's normal for leukocytes to be in CSF

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Blood is normally not seen in the CSF

a)

True

b)

False

58.

PT/INR is used to commonly test for

a)

Infection

b)

Clotting disorders

c)

Cancer

d)

Kidney Damage

59.

Newer blood thinner medications like Apixaban and Rivaroxaban completely eliminate the risk of bleeding as a side effect while providing the protective benefits

a)

True

b)

False

60.

The INR level for a patient with A Fib on Warfarin is

a)

0-1

b)

2-3

c)

5-6

d)

1-4

61.

The acronym BNP is used for which blood test

(a)  

62.

Brain Natriuretic Peptide can be abbreviated as

(a)  

63.

BNP is commonly used to identify and risk assess patients with

a)

Brain cancer

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Congestive Heart Failure

d)

Heart Attack

64.

BNP can be used to detect CHF but does NOT determine severity of illness

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Troponin is a blood test used to detect what disease

a)

Congestive Heart Failure

b)

Diabetes

c)

Heart Attack

d)

Pneumonia

66.

A troponin can detect a heart attack an EKG/ECG missed

a)

True

b)

False

67.

How many days does it take for Troponin to be cleared from the blood stream

a)

2-3 Hours

b)

1-3 Days

c)

7-10 Days

d)

2-3 Weeks

68.

Echocardiogram exposes a patient to radiation

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Which condition can an Echocardiogram evaluate for

a)

Congestive Heart Failure

b)

Appendicitis

c)

Acid Reflux

d)

Pneumonia

70.

An Echocardiogram is commonly used to detect and monitor heart valve abnormalities

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Cardiac Catheterization exposes a patient to radiation

a)

True

b)

False

72.

A Cardiac Catheterization can be used to detect

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Congestive Heart Failure

c)

Arterial Blockage

d)

Stroke

73.

Cardiac Catheterization can be performed in an emergency setting

a)

True

b)

False

74.

An MRI can be used to evaluate a patient's spinal column as well as brain

a)

True

b)

False

75.

The acronym CSF is used to describe a sample of

a)

Coke, Sprite, Fanta

b)

Cerebrospinal Fluid

c)

Clowns Sans Frontiers

d)

Cats Sure are Fuzzy

76.

Cerebrospinal Fluid Can be Abbreviated as

(a)  

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