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Equine 2 Cert - Unit 4 Diseases

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which pathogen can multiply rapidly without a host?

a)

Parasite

b)

Bacteria

c)

Fungi

d)

Protozoa

2.

What type of immunity allows the body to produce its own antibodies?

a)

Passive

b)

Active

c)

Current

d)

Permanent

3.

Which pathogen is a single celled organism?

a)

Parasite

b)

Viruses

c)

Fungi

d)

Protozoa

4.

Mycology is the study of which of the following?

a)

Parasite

b)

Fungi

c)

Protozoa

d)

Bacteria

5.

How many different shapes of bacteria are there?

a)

Three

b)

Four

c)

Two

d)

Five

6.

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease also known as which of the following?

a)

Heaves

b)

Wobblers

c)

Strangles

d)

Flu

7.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of COPD?

a)

Nasal discharge

b)

Stumbling

c)

Wheezing

d)

Coughing

8.

Scratches is also referred to as which of the following?

a)

Crusty pastern

b)

Stinky heel

c)

Oily heel

d)

Greasy heel

9.

Scratches affects which of the following parts of a horse?

a)

Fetlocks

b)

Pasterns

c)

Hocks

d)

Cannon

10.

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for scratches?

a)

Clipping hair in the infected area

b)

Carefully removing scabs with a mild soap

c)

Applying an anti-fungal ointment

d)

Scrubbing with chemical soap

11.

Periodic Ophthalmia is also referred to as which of the following?

a)

Sun blindness

b)

Moon blindness

c)

Eye blindness

d)

Sore eyes

12.

Which of the following is administered to a horse who has contracted Botulism?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Anti Toxin

c)

Bute

d)

Antibiotics

13.

Strangles is a disease which affects what part of the horse?

a)

Neurological system

b)

Muscular system

c)

Upper respiratory system

d)

Digestive system

14.

Tetanus is also referred to as which of the following?

a)

Lockmouth

b)

Lockjaw

c)

Lockthroat

d)

Lockface

15.

Which bacterial disease is highly contagious and can be contracted through direct or indirect contact?

a)

Botulism

b)

Rabies

c)

Strangles

d)

Influenza

16.

Equine Infectious Anemia is spread by which of the following?

a)

Parasites

b)

Horse flies

c)

Mosquitoes

d)

Rodents

17.

Which two herpes viruses cause severe clinical signs?

a)

EHV-1, EHV-2

b)

EHV-2, EHV-4

c)

EHV-1, EHV-4

d)

EHV-6, EHV-4

18.

Which of the following is a genotype for rabies which is carried by raccoons, skunks and foxes?

a)

Variant

b)

Classic

c)

Non-variant

d)

Carrier

19.

Influenza is most commonly caused by what type of virus?

a)

Type D

b)

Type C

c)

Type B

d)

Type A

20.

Rabies is considered which type of disease?

a)

Bacterial

b)

Non-communicable

c)

Infectious

d)

Zoonotic

21.

Which of the following animals is the source of infective sporocysts causing EPM?

a)

Raccoons

b)

Mice

c)

Opossums

d)

Skunks

22.

EPM is a disease caused by a protozoan affecting which part of a horse?

a)

Digestive system

b)

Muscular system

c)

Central nervous system

d)

Respiratory system

23.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of EPM?

a)

Stiffness

b)

Coughing

c)

Head tilt

d)

Paralysis

24.

To help prevent EPM, a horse owner should do which of the following?

a)

Keep feed closed in metal containers

b)

Keep feed covered with a tarp

c)

Keep feed inside of feed bags

d)

Keep feed outside

25.

How does a horse contract EPM?

a)

Being bitten by an opossum

b)

Ingesting residue from opossum feces

c)

Being bitten by a skunk

d)

Ingesting residue from mice feces

26.

What is it called when the laminae in the foot becomes so inflamed and damaged it no longer supports the coffin bone, which then rotates and sinks?

a)

Acute laminitis

b)

Symptomatic laminitis

c)

Chronic laminitis

d)

Asymptomatic laminitis

27.

Osteochondrosis Dissecans is NOT caused by which of the following?

a)

Mineral deficiencies

b)

High energy diet

c)

Contaminated feed

d)

Growing too fast

28.

Wobbler syndrome is the malformation or compression of what part of the horse?

a)

Leg bones

b)

Joints

c)

Spinal cord

d)

Hip bone

29.

Wobbler syndrome typically affects what type of horse?

a)

Older

b)

Younger

c)

Middle-aged

d)

Both A and B

30.

Which of the following will NOT help prevent Osteochondrosis Dissecans?

a)

Providing a balanced diet

b)

Providing regular exercise

c)

Providing a high energy diet

d)

Providing routine examinations

31.

Which of the following diseases causes the skin to rip and tear easily?

a)

HERDA

b)

Lavender foal syndrome

c)

PSSM

d)

LFS

32.

Which of the following diseases is only found in the Arabian horse breed?

a)

Hereditary equine regional dermal asthenia

b)

PSSM

c)

Lavender foal syndrome

d)

ESPM

33.

Which of the following is a disease where the horse’s muscles are unable to store glucose (sugars) for energy?

a)

HERDA

b)

CCDL

c)

LFS

d)

PSSM

34.

Which of the following diseases primarily affects quarter horses, draft horses and warmbloods?

a)

HERDA

b)

PSSM

c)

CCDL

d)

LFS

35.

Which of the following diseases only affects the quarter horse breed?

a)

LFS

b)

PSSM

c)

HERDA

d)

EPSM

36.

Which of the following is a behavioral disorder which causes horses to refuse to eat or lower their feed intake?

a)

Geophagia

b)

Cribbing

c)

Anorexia

d)

Windsucking

37.

Which of the following is a disorder in horses which causes them to ingest sand or dirt which is rich in iron or copper?

a)

Cribbing

b)

Anorexia

c)

Windsucking

d)

Geophagia

38.

Which of the following behavioral disorders causes damage to the incisors?

a)

Cribbing

b)

Geophagia

c)

Anorexia

d)

Overeating

39.

Which of the following may cause intestinal obstruction?

a)

Anorexia

b)

Windsucking

c)

Geophagia

d)

Cribbing

40.

Which of the following is often caused by social or environmental changes?

a)

Cribbing

b)

Anorexia

c)

Geophagia

d)

Windsucking

41.

Which disease is caused by an allergic reaction to particles in hay?

a)

Wobblers

b)

Scratches

c)

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

d)

Equine Infectious Anemia

42.

Which disease can lead to cataract formation and blindness?

a)

Botulism

b)

Sarcoids

c)

Periodic Ophthalmia

d)

Equine Infectious Anemia

43.

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for Sarcoids?

a)

Cryosurgery

b)

Radiation therapy

c)

Traditional surgery

d)

All are treatments for Sarcoids

44.

Which rare disease is almost always fatal and caused by toxins preventing the transmission of nervous impulses?

a)

Botulism

b)

Sarcoids

c)

Strangles

d)

Wobblers

45.

Which disease is also known as swamp fever?

a)

Equine Infectious Anemia

b)

West Nile Virus

c)

Tetanus

d)

Sarcoids

46.

Which of the following tests are performed to determine if a horse is infected with Equine Infectious Anemia?

a)

Moore test

b)

Coggins test

c)

Davis test

d)

Coffin test

47.

What is it called when the coffin bone rotates and sinks?

a)

Founder

b)

Lockjaw

c)

Scratches

d)

Laminitis

48.

Which disease has symptoms of swelling, hair loss, pain and ulceration of the heels?

a)

Scratches

b)

Equine Infectious Anemia

c)

Equine Encephalomyelitis

d)

Founder

49.

Which of the following is a highly contagious disease of the upper-respiratory system caused by bacteria?

a)

Sarcoids

b)

Strangles

c)

Tetanus

d)

Laminitis

50.

Which of the following is a symptom of Tetanus?

a)

Inability to open mouth

b)

Lost eye sight

c)

Hair loss

d)

Hives

51.

Which of the following diseases cause tumors on the connective tissue?

a)

Sarcoids

b)

Wobblers

c)

Scratches

d)

Tetanus

52.

What disease is also known as sleeping sickness?

a)

Equine Infectious Anemia

b)

Equine Encephalomyelitis

c)

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

d)

Osteochondrosis Dissecans

53.

Diseases can be causes by which of the following?

a)

Nutrient deficiencies

b)

Pathogens

c)

Both A and B

d)

Only viruses

54.

Which type of bacteria is spherical shaped?

a)

Bacilli

b)

Spirilli

c)

Cocci

d)

Fungi

55.

Which type of pathogen has various life cycles and can be located internally or externally?

a)

Viruses

b)

Bacteria

c)

Parasites

d)

Fungi