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Worksheets

Study Assistant A (MowExA)

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 5hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The normal procedure used when checking out electrical circuits, is to connect the:

a)

Voltmeter and ammeter in series

b)

Voltmeter and ammeter in parallel

c)

Voltmeter in parallel and the ammeter in series

d)

Voltmeter in series and the ammeter in parallel

2.

The instrument used to obtain air velocity values is the:

a)

Pedometer

b)

Hydrometer

c)

Anemometer

d)

Odometer

3.

When required to cut capillary tubing, a mechanic should use a:

a)

Side wheel cutter

b)

File

c)

Hacksaw

d)

Tube cutter

4.

Devices using water columns for measuring small pressures above or below atmospheric pressure, as in air ducts or gas lines are called:

a)

Manometers

b)

Barometers

c)

Micrometers

d)

Thermometers

5.

Which of the following gauges would you use, to check a leaky discharge valve in an compressor head?

a)

Compound gauge

b)

Head gauge

c)

High pressure gauge

d)

Non condensible gas

6.

A ton of refrigeration or air conditioning capacity is equal to:

a)

200 British Thermal Units in one hour

b)

1,200 British Thermal Units in one hour

c)

144,000 British Thermal Units in one day

d)

12,000 British Thermal Units in one hour

7.

Enthalpy is:

a)

All of the answers apply to the question

b)

The entropy less the temperature

c)

Sensible heat less latent heat

d)

The heat content of a substance

8.

If a liquid vapour refrigerant mixture has a quality of 75%, it is:

a)

Saturated

b)

Superheated

c)

Mostly vapour

d)

Mostly liquid

9.

Which of the following is the Rankine Scale for absolute zero?

a)

-273

b)

-460

c)

-100

d)

0

10.

If air has a specific volume of 14 cu. ft./lb., what is its density?

a)

0.625 lbs./cu. ft.

b)

0.0714 lbs./cu. ft.

c)

0.7 lbs./cu. ft.

d)

1.4 lbs./cu. ft.

11.

The heat rejected from an standard air conditioning system equals about:

a)

1.25 times the net refrigeration effect

b)

1.00 times the net refrigeration effect

c)

1.75 times the net refrigeration effect

d)

1.50 times the net refrigeration effect

12.

Sensible heat may be defined as the heat that is required to:

a)

Raise or lower the temperature of 1 pound of a substance 1 degree centigrade

b)

Change the temperature of a substance without changing its state

c)

Raise or lower the temperature of 1 pound of a substance 1 degree Fahrenheit

d)

Change the state of a substance without changing its temperature

13.

Boyle's Law states, that if the temperature remains constant, the pressure varies inversely as the:

a)

Gas state changes

b)

Volume

c)

Absolute temperature

d)

Absolute pressure

14.

What is meant by the expression, "Refrigeration Effect"?

a)

Capacity of the condensing unit

b)

K factor of a coil

c)

Number of heat units absorbed by an evaporator

d)

Amount of BTU in fixture

15.

When one end of an iron bar is heated by a flame, the heat will travel to the other end by:

a)

All the answers apply to the question

b)

Conduction

c)

Convection

d)

Radiation

16.

Latent heat may be defined as the heat that is required to:

a)

Change the state of a substance without changing its temperature

b)

Raise or lower the temperature of 1 pound of a substance 1 degree centigrade

c)

Raise or lower the temperature of 1 pound of substance 1 degree fahrenheit

d)

Change the temperature of a substance without changing its state

17.

In what part of a refrigeration system is superheat greatest?

a)

Discharge line

b)

Suction line

c)

Compressor

d)

Evaporator

18.

How is density expressed?

a)

In cubic feet per pound

b)

By specific volume

c)

By vapour pressure

d)

In pounds per cubic feet

19.

In selecting the size of the condensing units, the capacity is calculated at its:

a)

Highest operating suction pressure

b)

Lowest operating suction pressure

c)

Lowest operating condensing pressure

d)

Highest operating condensing pressure

20.

How many BTU's must be added to 10 lbs. of ice stored at 20 degrees F.,to convert it to water at 35 degrees F.?

a)

153

b)

1530

c)

294

d)

2940

21.

A fluid:

a)

Must be in the liquid state to be a fluid

b)

Can be either a liquid or a gas

c)

Can be either a liquid or a solid

d)

Cannot exist in a vapour state

22.

Horizontal piping runs should:

a)

Pitch toward the compressor

b)

Pitch away from the compressor

c)

Be level

d)

Pitch in the direction of flow

23.

Suction risers are normally sized for oil return on the basis of:

a)

No load

b)

Normal load

c)

Minimum load

d)

Maximum load

24.

Suction lines for multiple evaporators are connected to a common suction line. How should the connections be made to the common or main suction line?

a)

At the side

b)

On the top

c)

At an angle of 45o

d)

On the bottom

25.

Suction lines are usually sized for:

a)

2 pounds pressure drop

b)

2 degree temperature change

c)

1 degree temperature change

d)

1 pound pressure drop

26.

By using nitrogen within the piping during brazing operation:

a)

Exterior scale formation is minimized

b)

Discolouration is prevented

c)

The explosion hazard is confined

d)

Copper oxide formation is prevented

27.

Why is a double suction riser required on some installations?

a)

To save space

b)

To increase capacity

c)

To assist in oil return

d)

To lower installation costs

28.

In sizing pipelines in a reciprocating refrigeration system, the most critical line is the:

a)

Discharge line

b)

Condenser drain line

c)

Suction line

d)

Liquid Line

29.

A suction line loop should:

a)

Go around the compressor

b)

Go down to floor level

c)

Be 8' high

d)

Rise to the top of the evaporator

30.

Short forged flare nuts are preferred over the long forged flare nuts because they:

a)

Overcome the effect of frost

b)

Are easier to install

c)

Save brass

d)

Allow for sharper bends

31.

The acceptable minimum gas velocities which should be maintained in horizontal runs of suction lines is:

a)

750 F.P.M.

b)

1500 F.P.M.

c)

500 F.P.M.

d)

900 F.P.M.

32.

Flash gas in the liquid line:

a)

Reduces system capacity

b)

Is caused by too much refrigerant

c)

Keeps the liquid line cool

d)

Helps push liquid refrigerant up the riser

33.

Consideration of sub-cooling to remove flash gas should be given at:

a)

Liquid lifts above 30 feet

b)

Liquid lifts above 15 feet

c)

Liquid lifts above 45 feet

d)

All times

34.

Why must the flux be removed after soldering and brazing?

a)

To help one see the quality of the job

b)

Make a stronger joint

c)

To prevent corrosion

d)

Polish the joint

35.

If all the nitrogen used for pressure testing an Refrigeration System is not removed, what will the most serious effect be?

a)

High suction pressure

b)

Formation of nitric acid

c)

Formation of copper nitrate

d)

High head pressure

36.

When piping two or more compressors in parallel, care should be taken to:

a)

Make piping slope to one compressor

b)

Insulate lines between compressors

c)

Install oil equalizer line

d)

Make sure suction lines have correct I.D. ratio

37.

Oil in the crankcase of a compressor foams because:

a)

The wrong type of oil is used

b)

The suction pressure has been reduced

c)

The crankcase is too hot

d)

Overcharge of oil

38.

Which of the following is a thermodynamic property of refrigerants?

a)

Flammability

b)

Leakage tendency

c)

Enthalpy

d)

Odour

39.

In a mixture of oil and a miscible refrigerant, which results in the highest percentage of refrigerant in the mixture?

a)

High temperature, high pressure

b)

Low temperature, low pressure

c)

High temperature, low pressure

d)

Low temperature, high pressure

40.

Which of the following is not a desirable characteristic of a good refrigerant?

a)

Non toxic

b)

High specific volume

c)

High critical temperature

d)

Low boiling point

41.

A compressor with forced lubrication has an oil pressure gauge on the unit reading 65 psi.If the crankcase pressure is 35 psi, what is the net oil pressure to the bearings?

a)

35 psi

b)

100 psi

c)

30 psi

d)

25 psi

42.

Which one of the following is not used in determining compressor displacement?

a)

Revolutions per minute

b)

Number of cylinders

c)

Diameter of the cylinder

d)

Length of piston

43.

A compressor with a displacement of 15 cfm actually pumps 12 cfm. What is its volumetric efficiency?

a)

120%

b)

40%

c)

75%

d)

80%

44.

All refrigeration compressor suction and discharge valves are opened and closed by:

a)

Inherent spring tension

b)

Pressure differentials

c)

Bleed-off pressure

d)

External springs

45.

Clearance volume in a compressor:

a)

Has no effect on compressor capacity

b)

Has an effect on compressor capacity

c)

Varies depending upon compressor speed

d)

Is the same on all compressors

46.

What is the compression ratio of a compressor with a head pressure of 145.3 psig, and a suction pressure of 25.3 psig?

a)

12.8 to 1

b)

8.0 to 1

c)

5.7 to 1

d)

4.0 to 1

47.

What rule-of-thumb can be used for water consumption on water-cooled condensers using city water?

a)

1 1/2 gpm per ton of refrigeration

b)

2 gpm per ton of refrigeration

c)

3 gpm per ton of refrigeration

d)

2 1/2 gpm per ton of refrigeration

48.

Reduced condenser air quantity is not caused by:

a)

High ambient temperature

b)

Dirty fan blades

c)

Prevailing winds

d)

Dirt on the coil

49.

Approximately how much air flow is required per ton by an air cooled condenser?

a)

1,000 cfm per ton

b)

250 cfm per ton

c)

1,500 cfm per ton

d)

500 cfm per ton

50.

In an evaporator or condenser coil, which is the primary and which is secondary surface?

a)

Primary is outside, secondary is inside

b)

Primary is the fin, secondary is the tube

c)

Primary is inside, secondary is outside

d)

Primary is the tube, secondary is the fin

51.

Reducing the quantity of air flow across an evaporator would have what effect:

a)

Lower the suction pressure

b)

Increase the superheat

c)

Raise the head pressure

d)

Increase efficiency

52.

An oversized evaporator coil in a refrigeration system will tend to:

a)

Maintain a high relative humidity

b)

Increase the operating time of the compressor

c)

Have no effect on humidity

d)

Maintain a low relative humidity

53.

If a thermostatic expansion valve hunts severely, we might reduce hunting by:

a)

Reducing the superheat setting

b)

Changing to a liquid charge

c)

Setting the valve for higher superheat

d)

Installing a larger valve

54.

How will a capillary tube which is to long affect the condensing unit?

a)

Its capacity will be decreased

b)

Its capacity will be increased

c)

The condensing unit will be overloaded

d)

Capillary tube design will not affect the condensing unit

55.

The low-side float is controlled by the:

a)

Rate of refrigerant condensation

b)

Evaporator temperature

c)

Rate of refrigerant evaporation

d)

Evaporator pressure

56.

The thermostatic expansion valve has three operating pressures:

a)

Evaporator, bulb and condensing pressure

b)

Evaporator, spring and bulb pressure

c)

Evaporator, spring and suction pressure

d)

Evaporator, spring and adjusting pressure

57.

Liquid flood-back from the evaporator is most likely to occur when a thermostatic expansion valve has a:

a)

Cross charge

b)

Liquid charge

c)

Dry Charge

d)

Vapour Charge

58.

When heat is added to a system being dehydrated by evacuation:

a)

The temperature pressure relationship of water is changed

b)

A high vacuum requirement is still required

c)

The oil will boil

d)

A pressure of below 100 microns is still required

59.

When is it permissible to use the hermetic compressor in the system for evacuation of the system?

a)

On any system

b)

On packaged equipment under 3 tons

c)

On field installed systems over 3 tons

d)

Never

60.

What is most ignored by a customer, owning a packaged air conditioning system having an air conditioning deficiency?

a)

Condensate drainage

b)

Lubrication

c)

Broken belt

d)

Filters

61.

A low pressure control is wired in series with a thermostat and motor. What takes place when the thermostatic expansion valve is stuck in the closed position?

a)

Pressure control cuts out and motor remains inoperative

b)

Pressure control allows the unit to remain running

c)

Pressure control operates on a short cycle

d)

Pressure control is not affected

62.

What indicates a suction valve leak on a reciprocating compressor?

a)

A rapid decrease in head pressure when the compressor is idle

b)

A hissing sound

c)

Inability of the compressor to produce a high vacuum

d)

A decrease in vacuum when the compressor is idle

63.

Routine preventive measures for heat cramps and heat exhaustion are drinking water and taking ?

a)

none of the answers apply

b)

sugar cubes

c)

salt tablets

d)

aspirin

64.

In servicing a system, you find that the running capacitor needs replacing. The capacitance may vary no more than + or - what percent of that capacitor being replaced.

a)

20%

b)

10%

c)

5%

d)

15%

65.

In starting up a chilled water system, the first piece of equipment to start should be the:

a)

Compressor oil pump

b)

Compressor if it has a built-in oil pump

c)

Chilled water pump

d)

Condenser water pump

66.

In water cooled condensers, the water flows :

a)

through the tubes

b)

over the shell

c)

through the fins

d)

over the tubes

67.

In the condenser, the refrigerant vapour condensed back to a liquid form because:

a)

heat flows out of the refrigerant

b)

the condenser coil is hotter than the cooling medium

c)

all of the answers apply to this question

d)

the compressor raised the saturation temp above the temperature of the cooling medium

68.

In checking a unit, you found that you were not getting any liquid at the inlet of the expansion valve. The probable cause is:

a)

Blocked dehydrator

b)

Undercharge

c)

Poor bulb contact

d)

Frozen expansion valve

69.

A refrigeration system has an air-cooled condenser that is located outdoors, the remainder of the system being located indoors. If the system cycle is off during cold weather, the compressor may not start on the next "on" cycle because:

a)

The head pressure may be too high

b)

The evaporator pressure may be too low

c)

The refrigerant may all have migrated to the compressor

d)

All of the answers apply to the question

70.

When checking voltage on start-up, it is important to maintain voltage as close to the name plate rating as:

a)

15%

b)

10%

c)

20%

d)

5%

71.

Abnormally, low suction pressure is undesirable because:

a)

The motor of a hermetic compressor might overheat

b)

Compressor horsepower does not decrease as load decreases

c)

The evaporator loses superheat

d)

Evaporator capacity decreases

72.

Some packaged air conditioners using full hermetic type compressors, are fitted with a thermostatic expansion valve with an internal bleed port. What is the purpose of the bleed port?

a)

Decrease running cycle

b)

Increase evaporator pressure during off-cycle

c)

Keep evaporator from frosting

d)

Maintain full flow through distributor

73.

A belt driven compressor with a 10" diameter flywheel is being operated on a 3 HP condensing unit at 700 RPM, driven by a 1,750 RPM motor with a 4" pulley. The manufacturer uses the same compressor body on a 5 HP condensing unit operating at 1,050 RPM. What size motor pulley would be required with the 5 HP condensing unit?

a)

9" diameter

b)

18" diameter

c)

6" diameter

d)

3" diameter

74.

Oil pressure failure controls are installed on certain compressors and when the compressor is started and oil pressure is built up within the time delay setting, the control will:

a)

Open contact to heater circuit

b)

Close contact to heater circuit

c)

Open contact to main control circuit

d)

Open contact to low pressure control

75.

The abnormality of an "undercharged system" can be mistaken for:

a)

Inadequate condenser

b)

Low compressor capacity

c)

Overcharged system

d)

Restricted system

76.

If an air cooled condensing unit equipped with a low pressure control is located in a basement, which is unheated in winter and the Box to which it is connected is in a warm place, what happens in the system that affects the temperature in the box?

a)

Refrigerant condenses in the compressor

b)

High pressure control fail to go out

c)

Fixture is to cold

d)

Condensing unit runs continuous

77.

The effect which a thermostatic expansion valve with a partially discharged power element, would have on an evaporator is:

a)

An evaporator saturated with refrigerant

b)

A loss of flow of saturated vapour in the evaporator

c)

A high suction pressure

d)

Superheat hunting by the valve

78.

A shell and coil condenser needs cleaning. How would you accomplish this?

a)

Reverse flow of water

b)

Clean with chemicals

c)

Take the ends off and scrape pass cavities

d)

Reamer

79.

The coil of a normally closed lock-out relay is wired in____ with the overload protectors, and in ____ with the compressor contactor holding coil.

a)

Parallel, parallel

b)

Series, Parallel

c)

Parallel, series

d)

Series, series

80.

Static electricity in computer and data processing rooms is generally caused by:

a)

High frictional losses

b)

Low coil temperatures

c)

Low humidity

d)

High humidity

81.

What resistance is there in a set of good, normally closed relay contacts?

a)

10 ohms

b)

5 ohms

c)

0 ohms

d)

15 ohms

82.

When testing a capacitor with an ohmmeter, if the meter goes to the low end of the scale and then slowly returns to the high end, what is the probable condition of the capacitor?

a)

Bad

b)

Good

c)

Shorted

d)

Open

83.

A dual element fuse has:

a)

Two normal one-time fuse links

b)

A thermal cut-out only

c)

A thermal cut-out and a normal fuse link

d)

The ability to carry LRA of a motor, but not to protect against short

84.

Checking the secondary of a transformer, you find the output is 24 volts and 20 amperes. The turns ratio of the transformer is 5 to 1 (primary to secondary). Determine the voltage and amperage of the primary.

a)

120 volts, 4 amperes

b)

120 volts, 100 amperes

c)

240 volts, 50 amperes

d)

240 volts, 2 amperes

85.

Soft iron is most suitable for use in a:

a)

Permanent magnet

b)

Magneto

c)

Natural magnet

d)

Temporary magnet

86.

Impedance consists of:

a)

May include all of the answers

b)

Inductance

c)

Capacitance

d)

Resistance

87.

The total capacitance of two 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series is:

a)

200 microfarads

b)

25 microfarads

c)

50 microfarads

d)

100 microfarads

88.

Operation of the potential relay is based on the principle that:

a)

Starting current is greater than running current

b)

Motors develop counter-emf

c)

Locked-rotor current results in voltage drop in the power lines

d)

Capacitors store electrical energy

89.

What is the secondary voltage of a step-down transformer having primary voltage 110, number of turns in the primary winding 2,200; and number of turns in the secondary winding is 180?

a)

90V

b)

260V

c)

9V

d)

36V

90.

If the inductive reactance in an A-C circuit is greater than the capacitive reactance, such as, in an induction motor or solenoid valve, does the amperage lead or lag the voltage?

a)

Amperage lags

b)

Depends on applied voltage

c)

Has no effect

d)

Amperage leads

91.

The most fundamental rule of static electricity is:

a)

The right-hand rule

b)

Ohm's law

c)

Charges will always attract metal

d)

Like charges repel while unlike charges attract

92.

Where and when should a motor be tested, to determine whether or not it is being supplied electric current of sufficient voltage?

a)

At the motor, while it is starting

b)

At the motor, with switch off

c)

At the entrance switch, with the motor running

d)

At the entrance switch, with the motor disconnected

93.

The amperage drawn by a 240V compressor motor, as compared to 120V compressor motor under the same load conditions is:

a)

1/2

b)

Twice

c)

Equal

d)

4 times

94.

What are the basic voltages that can be taken off a 4-wire, 208 volt system?

a)

208/3/60 and 208/120/1/60

b)

208/3/60

c)

208/3/60 and 220/110/1/60

d)

220/208/3/60 and 220/208/1/60

95.

The most common type of motor starter is the:

a)

Autotransformer type

b)

Star-delta starter

c)

Across the line starter

d)

Primary reactance type

96.

Of several types of overload relays, the least affected by temperature changes is the:

a)

Magnetically operated type

b)

Bi-metal element type

c)

Ambient compensated type

d)

Melting alloy type

97.

Name the type of single-phase motor that requires no starting switch or mechanism.

a)

Repulsion induction

b)

Shaded pole

c)

Split phase

d)

Capacitor start

98.

In a "current relay", the coil is wired in series with:

a)

The starting winding

b)

The starting capacitor

c)

Both the run and start windings

d)

The running winding

99.

A cycle in the electrical terms can be defined as:

a)

One alternation

b)

Four alternations

c)

Three alternations

d)

Two alternations

100.

In an A-C circuit, what properties do you multiply together to get the wattage?

a)

Voltage, amperage and power factor

b)

Voltage, amperage and resistance

c)

Voltage and amperage

d)

Voltage and power

101.

The basic elements of a control system are:

a)

Control device, source of energy and controller

b)

Controller, controlled device and control agent

c)

Source of energy, controller and controlled variable

d)

Coil, control device and controller

102.

If you were called upon to recommend a single element control, for a refrigeration system designed for the evaporator to operate on a defrost cycle, which one of the following controls would you select?

a)

Snap action valve

b)

Temperature-regulating valve

c)

High pressure control

d)

Low pressure control

103.

The term "modulating control" signifies:

a)

A control with several positions between open and closed

b)

A control with infinite positions between open and closed

c)

Either an open or closed position

d)

An electrically operated unit

104.

Feedback is necessary for:

a)

Floating control

b)

Two-position control

c)

All of the answers apply to the question

d)

Proportional control

105.

For outdoor air and exhaust dampers to close with power failure or interruption, a necessary component is:

a)

Single phase double throw thermostat

b)

Spring return motor

c)

Two-position motor

d)

Proportional motor

106.

An actuator for proportional control usually contains:

a)

A bellows

b)

A heat anticipator

c)

Any of the answers apply to the question

d)

A potentiometer

107.

The value at which the controller is set, and represents the desired value of the controlled variable is known as:

a)

Set point

b)

Control point

c)

Offset point

d)

Differential point

108.

The function of a lock-out relay is to:

a)

Re-cycle modulating damper to full open position

b)

Provide power to oil pump after compressor has stopped for one minute

c)

Protect against nuisance trip-outs

d)

Provide motor and start-up protection against re-cycling

109.

If not properly installed, a hot-gas muffler might trap:

a)

Suction gas

b)

Superheated vapour

c)

Hot gas

d)

Oil

110.

The width of an A-belt would be:

a)

1/2 inch

b)

3/4 inch

c)

5/8 inch

d)

3/8 inch

111.

The crankcase pressure regulating valve:

a)

Closes on rise of inlet pressure

b)

Closes on rise of outlet pressure

c)

Opens on rise of outlet pressure

d)

Opens on rise of inlet pressure

112.

The most effective method of installing a vibration eliminator is:

a)

At a right angle to the vibration

b)

Opposite to the vibration

c)

In line with the vibration

d)

At least 12 inches from the source of the vibration

113.

As the temperature of the refrigerant passing through a drier is lowered, the affinity for water of molecular sieve or activated alumina is:

a)

Fluctuates

b)

Increased

c)

Decreased

d)

Does not change

114.

In the hot-gas bypass control method for capacity control, the system component which is bypassed is the:

a)

Distributor

b)

Compressor

c)

Evaporator

d)

Condenser

115.

A liquid to suction refrigerant heat exchanger might cause:

a)

The compressor to overheat

b)

To much sub-cooling for proper operation of the expansion valve

c)

Flash vapour in the liquid line

d)

The suction line to sweat

116.

The purpose of a suction line accumulator is to:

a)

Accumulate excess vapour

b)

Trap liquid refrigerant

c)

Trap and accumulate the non-condensables

d)

Trap oil

117.

Suction line filters must be sized correctly in order to avoid:

a)

Excessive pressure drop in suction line

b)

Floodback to the compressor

c)

Compressor overloading

d)

Expansion valve hunt

118.

Human comfort requires a relative humidity of about:

a)

40%

b)

50%

c)

30%

d)

20%

119.

The wet bulb temperature is the same as the dry bulb temperature when you have:

a)

75% R.H.

b)

100% R.H.

c)

25% R.H.

d)

50% R.H.

120.

The cooling effect produced when sweat evaporates from the skin is a result of:

a)

Heat loss by radiation

b)

None of these

c)

Heat loss by convection

d)

Latent heat loss

121.

As a "rule-of-thumb", what C.F.M. of air through the evaporator is required per ton of air conditioning?

a)

400 C.F.M.

b)

200 C.F.M.

c)

600 C.F.M.

d)

800 C.F.M.

122.

The psychometric chart is a graph of the temperature-pressure relationship of:

a)

Refrigerant

b)

Oil

c)

Steam

d)

Water

123.

The relationship between water vapour content and air temperature is termed:

a)

Humidity ratio

b)

Relative humidity

c)

Humidity index

d)

Relative density

124.

Primarily, reheat is needed to:

a)

Raise the temperature of chilled air

b)

Raise the temperature of dehumidified air

c)

Raise the temperature of humidified air

d)

Temper cool outdoor air

125.

Stratification can be avoided with:

a)

Larger return air grilles

b)

Lowest possible positioning of return air grilles

c)

Sufficient air flow

d)

Larger distribution diffusers

126.

The most efficient type of duct system is the:

a)

Square

b)

Round

c)

Rectangular

d)

Oblong

127.

A damper controls air flow by:

a)

Varying positions

b)

Varying air volume

c)

All of the answers apply to the question

d)

Varying resistance to flow

128.

Air is :

a)

a mixture

b)

an atom

c)

a compound

d)

an element

129.

Air washers are used to fulfill two distinct purposes. These are to:

a)

Neutralize static and pre-cool air

b)

Clean and pre-cool air

c)

Increase humidity and raise temperature

d)

Reduce pollen and add humidity

130.

The refrigerant pressure drop in the condenser is due to

a)

temperature drop

b)

friction

c)

capillary tube action

d)

subcooling

131.

What is the main advantage of a centrifugal pump?

a)

It is self-priming

b)

It is the cheapest means of moving large quantities of fluids

c)

Its motor can be readily changed

d)

It is the best means of obtaining a very high pressure

132.

A pump impeller running in the opposite direction will be indicated, when it:

a)

Draw less current

b)

produce more head and draw more current

c)

produce less head and draw less current

d)

produce less head and draw more current

133.

A three-way valve having two inlets and one outlet is classified as a:

a)

Diverting valve

b)

Two-position valve

c)

Pilot operated valve

d)

Mixing valve

134.

Refrigerant cylinders should be pressure tested every:

a)

4 years

b)

6 years

c)

3 years

d)

5 years

135.

In transferring refrigerant from one cylinder to another, it is a good idea to avoid filling the cylinder more than per cent full.

a)

70%

b)

85%

c)

75%

d)

80%

136.

You and a helper are cleaning parts with a caustic soda solution, and some solution splashes in his eye. First thing you should do is:

a)

Apply mineral oil to prevent further damage

b)

Call a doctor before attempting first aid

c)

Wash with boric acid solution to neutralize

d)

Flush with large amounts of water

137.

What may occur if a cylinder full of liquid refrigerant is left in a warm place for a long period of time?

a)

The refrigerant may begin to decompose

b)

Hydrostatic pressure may burst the cylinder

c)

Nothing will happen, as this is a normal occurrence

d)

Loss of pressure may collapse the cylinder

138.

What precaution must always be used when pressure testing a system with nitrogen?

a)

A dryer must always be installed in the connecting piping to prevent moisture from entering

b)

An oil separator must be installed in the connecting piping to avoid contaminating the system

c)

The nitrogen must not be left in the system more than a few hours, or it will begin to react chemically with the oil and the refrigerant

d)

A pressure regulator must be installed between the cylinder and the system being tested

139.

Where should the vapour seal be applied to an insulated wall?

a)

Between two layers of insulation

b)

Makes no difference

c)

Warm side

d)

Cold side

140.

Respiration is the:

a)

Heat evolved from life process of fruits and vegetables

b)

Air leaks at cooler doors

c)

Sweating on cooler walls

d)

Formation of moisture on meat due to evaporative evolution