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P2 PPT - Quiz 1

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 2hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

what deals with vital involuntary functions?

a)

medulla

b)

cerebellum

c)

pituitary gland

d)

hypothalamus

2.

what deals with motor coordination

a)

medulla

b)

cerebellum

c)

pituitary gland

d)

thalamus

3.

what deals with sleep, arousal, and attention

a)

medulla

b)

cerebellum

c)

RAS

d)

pituitary gland

4.

what controls the function of other endocrine glands

a)

medulla

b)

thalamus

c)

RAS

d)

pituitary gland

5.

what is the sensory relay station

a)

medulla

b)

thalamus

c)

RAS

d)

cerebellum

6.

what regulates autonomic nervous system, responsible for the production of many hormones, regulates sleep, body temp, and other functions

a)

medulla

b)

thalamus

c)

hypothalamus

d)

pituitary gland

7.

what deals with fear, anxiety, and aggression

a)

cerebellum

b)

pituitary gland

c)

amygdala

d)

hypothalamus

8.

what is associated with learning and memory formation (in particular long-term memory) spatial navigation memory

a)

hypothalamus

b)

thalamus

c)

cerebral cortex

d)

hippocampus

9.

what is associated with vision, somatosensory, hearing, strategic, and effortful processing, goal-directed behaviors, voluntary color, and motor functions

a)

amygdala

b)

hippocampus

c)

thalamus

d)

cerebral cortex

10.

chemical messengers that enable neuron to neuron communication

a)

neuroglia

b)

neuron

c)

neurotransmitters

d)

astrocytes

11.

where are neurotransmitters released from?

a)

pre-synaptic terminal

b)

post synaptic terminal

c)

both

d)

neither of these

12.

neurotransmitters interact with ???

a)

pre synaptic receptors

b)

post synaptic receptors

c)

both

d)

neither

13.

electrically excitable cell that processes and transmits information via an electrochemical process

a)

neuron

b)

neurotransmitters

c)

neuroglia

d)

astrocytes

14.

non-neuronal support cells that perform a variety of essential functions in the CNS

a)

neurotransmitters

b)

neuron

c)

neuroglia

d)

none of these

15.

examples of neuroglia

a)

astrocytes

b)

oligodendrocytes

c)

microglia

d)

all options

16.

a protective functional separation of the circulating blood from the ECF of the CNS that limits the penetration of substances and drugs

(a)  

17.

what are the important ion channels for the CNS

a)

Na

b)

K

c)

Ca

d)

Cl

18.

what are important mechanisms in the CNS

a)

voltage-gated mechanisms

b)

ligand-gated (receptor mediated)

c)

metabotropic (G protein-coupled receptor mediated)

d)

neurological memory response

19.

what must a neurotransmitter be shown in order to be present?

a)

presynaptic terminals and the neurons that form from these terminals

b)

neurons formed postsynaptic terminals

c)

presynaptic nerve activity

d)

post-synaptic nerve activity

20.

where does the transmitter need to be released from?

a)

the presynaptic nerve with presynaptic nerve activity

b)

the postsynaptic nerve with postsynaptic nerve activity

c)

the presynaptic nerve with postsynaptic nerve activity

d)

the postsynaptic nerve with presynaptic nerve activity

21.

select acetylcholine receptors

a)

M1

b)

M3

c)

M5

d)

Nicotinic

e)

muscimol

22.

what is the acetylcholine antagonist for muscarine

a)

dihydro-beta-erythroidine

b)

atropine

c)

picrotoxin

d)

baclofen

23.

what is the acetylcholine antagonist for nicotine

a)

atropine

b)

picrotoxin

c)

baclofen

d)

dihydro-beta-erythroidine

24.

what is the role of M1, M3, M5 in the CNS

a)

inhibitory

b)

excitatory

c)

role in arousal and consciousness

d)

autoreceptor, decreases neurotranmitter release

25.

what is the role of M2, M4 in CNS

a)

inhibitory

b)

excitatory

c)

role in arousal and consciousness

d)

autoreceptor, decreases neurotransmitter release

26.

what are the acetylcholine agonists

a)

muscarine

b)

nicotine

c)

muscimol

d)

picrotoxin

27.

role of nicotinic receptors in CNS

a)

inhibitory

b)

excitatory

c)

role in arousal and consciousness

d)

increase neurotransmitter release, tole of nicotine addiction

28.

GABAa agonist

a)

2-OH-saclofen

b)

picrotoxin

c)

baclofen

d)

muscimol

29.

GABAa antagonist

a)

2-OH-saclofen

b)

picrotoxin

c)

muscimol

d)

baclofen

30.

GABAa role in CNS

a)

inhibitory

b)

excitatory

c)

ligand-gated ion channel site of action of sedative/hypnotics, alcohol, general anesthetics

d)

roles in memory, excitotoxicity of neurons

31.

receptors of glutamate

a)

NMDA

b)

AMPA

c)

KA

d)

mGlu1,2,3,4,5,6,8

e)

metotropic

32.

antagonist of NMDA

a)

NBQX

b)

ACET

c)

dizocilpine

d)

baclofen

33.

antagonist of AMPA

a)

NBQX

b)

ACET

c)

ACPD

d)

MCPG

34.

antagonist of KA?

a)

NBQX

b)

ACET

c)

ACPD

d)

MCPG

35.

agonist of metabotropic receptors

a)

NBQX

b)

ACET

c)

ACPD

d)

MCPG

36.

antagonist of metabotropic receptors

a)

NBQX

b)

ACET

c)

ACPD

d)

MCPG

37.

which glutamate receptors are excitatory?

a)

NMDA

b)

AMPA

c)

KA

d)

mGlu1 & 5

38.

which glutamate receptors are inhibitory

a)

NMDA

b)

AMPA

c)

mGlu2-4

d)

mGlu6-8

39.

role of NMDA, AMPA, KA, and metabotropic receptors in the CNS

a)

inhibitory

b)

excitatory

c)

roles in memory, excitotoxicity of neurons

d)

neuronal excitation

40.

what is the role of mGlu 1 & 5 in the CNS?

a)

inhibitory

b)

exhibitory

c)

neuronal excitation

d)

roles in memory, excitotoxicity of neurons

41.

what is the role of mGlu2-4, 6-8 in the CNS

a)

inhibitory

b)

excitatory

c)

neuronal excitation

d)

role in thalamic sensory processing

42.

receptors for dopamine

a)

D1

b)

D2

c)

D3

d)

D4

e)

D5

43.

What are the agonist for D1 & 5

a)

dihyrexidine

b)

phenothiazines

c)

bromocriptine

d)

phenothiazines

44.

antagonists for D1 & 5

a)

dihydrexidine

b)

phenothiazines

c)

bromocriptine

d)

pentothiazines

45.

what are the agonists for D2-4

a)

dihydrexidine

b)

phenothiazines

c)

bromocriptine

d)

phenothiazines

46.

antagonists for D2-4

a)

dihydrexidine

b)

pentothiazines

c)

bromocriptine

d)

phenothiazines

47.

role of D1 and 5 in the CNS

a)

inhibitory

b)

excitatory

c)

basal ganglia function

d)

decreases dopamine release, reducing firing of neurons

48.

role of D2-4 in the CNS

a)

inhibitory

b)

excitatory

c)

decreases dopamine release, reduces firing of neurons

d)

basal ganglia function

49.

receptor for serotonin

a)

5-HT receptors

b)

ketanserin

c)

ondansetron

d)

piboserod

50.

antagonist of 5-HT2

a)

ketanserin

b)

ondansetron

c)

piboserod

d)

5-HT2-4

51.

antagonist of 5-HT3

a)

ketanserin

b)

ondansetron

c)

piboserod

d)

5-HT1

52.

antagonist of 5-HT4

a)

ketanserin

b)

ondansetron

c)

piboserod

d)

5-HT1

53.

where serotonin receptor is inhibitory

a)

5-HT1

b)

5-HT2

c)

5-HT3

d)

5-HT4

54.

serotonin receptors are excitatory

a)

5-HT1

b)

5-HT2

c)

5-HT3

d)

5-HT4

55.

role of 5-HT1 in the CNS

a)

inhibitory

b)

excitatory

c)

anxiety and depression

d)

tole in antipsychotic action

56.

role of 5-HT2 in the CNS

a)

inhibitory

b)

excitatory

c)

mediate fast neuronal transmission in neocortex

d)

tole in antipsychotic action

57.

role of 5-HT3 in CNS

a)

inhibitory

b)

excitatory

c)

antipsychotic action

d)

mediate fast neuronal transmission in neocortex

58.

role of 5-HT4 in CNS

a)

inhibitory

b)

excitatory

c)

antipsychotic actions

d)

cognitive process and anxiety

59.

what are the opioid peptide receptors

a)

mu

b)

kappa

c)

delta

d)

gamma

60.

what is the agonist of mu

a)

endorphin

b)

enkephalin

c)

dynorphine

d)

suvorexant

61.

agonist of delta

a)

endorphin

b)

enkephalin

c)

dynorphin

d)

suvorexant

62.

agonist of kappa

a)

endorphin

b)

enkephalin

c)

dynorphine

d)

suvorexant

63.

antagonist of opioid peptides

a)

dynorphine

b)

naloxone

c)

suvorexant

d)

dynorphine

64.

role of opioid peptides in the CNS

a)

inhibitory

b)

excitatory

c)

analgesic role in sensory processing; drug dependency for opioids and other substances

d)

arousal

65.

receptors of orexins

a)

OX 1

b)

OX 2

c)

orexin A

d)

orexin B

e)

all options

66.

what is the antagonist for orexins

a)

naloxone

b)

suvorexant

c)

dynorphine

d)

endorphin

67.

role of orexins in CNS

a)

inhibitory

b)

exhibitory

c)

arousal

d)

fast neuronal transmission in neocortex

68.

condition with calming or drowsiness - decreases in motor activity and coordination

a)

sedation

b)

hypnosis

c)

anesthesia

69.

induction of sleep - increased tendency to sleep, but easily awakened

a)

sedation

b)

hypnosis

c)

anesthesia

70.

loss of consciousness associated with the absence of response to pain, not easily awakened

a)

sedation

b)

hypnosis

c)

anesthesia

71.

what are the major CNS effects

a)

sedation

b)

hypnosis

c)

asthenia

d)

coma

72.

where do barbiturates bind on the GABAa receptor

a)

allosteric site

b)

postsynaptic terminal

c)

presynaptic terminal

d)

ligand-gated channels

73.

what do barbiturates do for GABAa

a)

increase affinity for the receptor

b)

decrease affinity for the receptor

74.

what do barbiturates increase

a)

hyperpolarization

b)

potassium channel influx by opening channel

c)

chloride channel influx by increasing channel open time

d)

sodium channel influx by closing channel

75.

effects of barbiturates on the CNS

a)

complete depressants sedation

b)

relief of anxiety

c)

amnesia

d)

hypnosis, anesthesia

e)

coma

76.

TRUE/FALSE: the MOA of barbiturates occur in the CNS neuronal synapses

a)

true

b)

false

77.

barbiturates effects on liver

a)

increase microsomal enzyme activity

b)

leads to PK tolerance

c)

decrease plasma levels of other drugs

d)

decreases respiration and BP

78.

what are barbiturates effects on respiratory and cardiovascular systems

a)

no effect up to anesthetic doses

b)

decrease respiration and BP

c)

increase hyperpolarization

79.

TRUE/FALSE: barbiturates enhance membrane hyperpolarization and neuronal inhibtion

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

80.

Therapeutic use of barbiturates

a)

hypnotics

b)

anticonvulsants

c)

anesthetics

d)

sedative

81.

what drugs are preferred over barbiturates as a hypnotic

a)

Diazepam

b)

BNZs

c)

non-BNZs

d)

barbiturates are the preferred class

82.

which barbiturate is long-acting and acts as a sedative and anticonvulsant

a)

butalbital

b)

methohexital

c)

secobarbital

d)

phenobarbital

83.

which barbiturate is intermediate-acting and acts as a hypnotic

a)

primidone

b)

methohexital

c)

secobarbital

d)

pentobarbital

84.

which barbiturate is ultra-short acting and acts as an anesthetic

a)

primidone

b)

methohexital

c)

secobarbital

d)

phenobarbital

85.

acute toxicity that can occur with barbiturates

a)

severe respiratory and cardiovascular depression

b)

signs include decrease in respiration and BP

c)

loss of consciousness

d)

interaction with other CNS depressants

86.

chronic toxicity that can occur with barbiturates

a)

addiction

b)

tolerance

c)

withdrawal symptoms (anxiety, tremors, nausea, vomiting, seizures, weight loss, etc.)

d)

all options

87.

TRUE/FALSE: treatment of acute barbiturate toxicity is maintaining respiration and removal of the drug

a)

true

b)

false

88.

TRUE/FALSE: treatment for chronic barbiturate toxicity is to gradually taper the dose and substitute a cross-tolerant BNZ

a)

true

b)

false

89.

PK characteristics of barbiturates

a)

readily diffuses across all membranes

b)

metabolized in the liver and excreted in the urine

c)

highly bound to plasma proteins

d)

redistribution accounts for differences in duration of action

90.

which drugs are safer than barbiturates

(a)  

91.

what is the prototype for BNZs

a)

diazepam

b)

alprazolam

c)

triazolam

d)

midazolam

92.

BNZs bind to which receptors

a)

alpha 1

b)

alpha 2

c)

both of these subunits

d)

neither of these hunny

93.

TRUE/FALSE: BNZ/s MOA is binding to sites on the GABAa receptor and increase affinity

a)

True

b)

false

94.

what effect do BNZs have on the CNS

a)

sedation, hypnosis, and anesthesia at higher doses

b)

skeletal relaxant with central effect

c)

anticonvulsant

d)

tolerance

e)

paradoxical excitement, euphoria

95.

therapeutic use of BNZs

a)

anxiolytics

b)

sedative/hypnotics

c)

muscle relaxants/antispastics

d)

pre-anesthetics/anesthetic

96.

TRUE/FALSE: BNZs MOA occur at CNS neuronal synapses

a)

true

b)

false

97.

which BNZ is used as anxiolytics

a)

alprazolam

b)

triazolam

c)

midazolam

d)

clonazepam

98.

which BNZ is used as a sedative/hypnotics

a)

alprazolam

b)

triazolam

c)

diazepam

d)

midazolam

99.

which BNZ is used as a muscle relaxant

a)

triazolam

b)

diazepam

c)

alprazolam

d)

clonazepam

100.

which BNZ is used as pre-anesthetic/anesthetic

a)

alprazolam

b)

triazolam

c)

midazolam

d)

clonazepam

101.

which BNZs are short acting

a)

triazolam

b)

midazolam

c)

alprazolam

d)

clonazepam

102.

which BNZs are intermediate acting

a)

midazolam

b)

triazolam

c)

alprazolam

d)

diazepam

103.

BNZs that are long acting

a)

clonazepam

b)

midazolam

c)

diazepam

d)

triazolam

104.

BNZs are VERY long acting

a)

triazolam

b)

midazolam

c)

diazepam

d)

alprazolam

105.

which is most rapidly inactivated?

a)

diazepam

b)

alprazolam

c)

clonazepam

d)

midazolam

106.

which drug is often used for panic attacks with rapid oral absorption/onset

a)

diazepam

b)

midazolam

c)

clonazepam

d)

alprazolam

107.

what are some adverse effects of BNZs

a)

sedation

b)

ataxia

c)

amnesia

d)

idiosyncratic responses

e)

tolerance, abuse liability, withdrawal symptoms

108.

what is the drug used to treat acute overdose of BNZs

a)

zolpidem

b)

barbiturates

c)

flumazenil

d)

none of these are correct

109.

characteristics of flumazenil

a)

BNZ antagonist

b)

requires repeated doses

c)

reverses sedation

d)

all options

110.

which drugs are non-BNZs agonists

a)

zolpidem

b)

zaleplon

c)

eszopiclone

d)

all options

111.

TRUE/FALSE: non-BNZs bind selectively to alpha2 subunits

a)

true

b)

false

112.

TRUE/FALSE: non-BNZs enhance membrane hyperpolarization

a)

True

b)

false

113.

what does non-BNZs cause a rapid onset of

a)

sedation

b)

anesthesia

c)

hypnosis

d)

insomnia

114.

which drug is available in a quick-acting SL tablet

a)

zolpidem

b)

zaleplon

c)

eszopiclone

115.

therapeutic uses of non-BNZs

a)

sleep disorders

b)

CNS depressant

c)

anesthesia

d)

neither of these

116.

adverse effects of non-BNZs

a)

extension of CNS depressents

b)

dependence liability

c)

ataxia

d)

sedation

117.

which drug is the melatonin receptor agonist

a)

no options

b)

zolpidem

c)

ramelteon

d)

those melatonin gummies -duh

118.

T/F: the MOA of ramelteon is potent and selective agonist MT1 and MT2 in the hypothalamus

a)

True

b)

false

119.

onset of action of ramelteon

a)

1 hour

b)

instantly

c)

30 mins

d)

6 hours

120.

does ramelteon cause dependence

a)

yes

b)

no

121.

does ramelteon cause rebound insomnia

a)

yes

b)

no

122.

therapeutic use for ramelteon

a)

insomnia (characterized by difficulty in falling asleep)

b)

sedation

c)

hypnosis

d)

seizures

123.

Adverse effects of ramelteon

a)

cardiovascular effects

b)

liver damage

c)

dizziness

d)

endocrine changes

124.

T/F: buspirone is a unique anxiolytic agent, NOT a CNS depressant

a)

True

b)

False

125.

MOA of buspirone

a)

partial agonist at 5-HT1a receptor

b)

full agonist at 5-HT1a receptor

c)

antagonist at 5-HT1a receptor

d)

partial antagonist at 5-HT1a receptor

126.

onset of buspirone

a)

1 hour

b)

30 min

c)

12 hours

d)

3-4 weeks

127.

therapeutic use of buspirone

a)

chronic anxiety

b)

useful in elderly patients

c)

useful in younger population

d)

works as anxiolytic agent

128.

Buspirone does NOT cause

a)

marked sedation

b)

amnesia

c)

tolerance, dependence

d)

muscle relaxation

129.

what are some adverse effects of buspirone

a)

GI distress

b)

tachycardia

c)

paresthesias

d)

muscle relaxation

130.

T/F: suvorexant is an orexin receptor antagonist

a)

true

b)

false

131.

adverse effects of suvorexant

a)

insomnia

b)

unusual dreams

c)

amnesia

d)

day time sedation

132.

use of suvorexant

a)

hypnosis

b)

sedation

c)

insomnia

d)

none of these

133.

use of propranolol

a)

prevent acute situational performance anxiety

b)

insomnia

c)

chronic anxiety

d)

sedation

134.

what is the MOA of propranolol

a)

block peripheral symptoms of anxiety (HR and tremor)

b)

controls wakefulness

c)

treats performance anxiety cause by sympathetic stimulations

d)

promotes sleep

135.

peptides involved in the control of wakefulness

a)

orexin A

b)

Orexin B

c)

Orexin 1

d)

Orexin2

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