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Renal Summative 1

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Syntopy of ren dextra anterior with the question mark is…

a)

gaster

b)

duodenum

c)

pelvis renalis

d)

cauda pancreatitis

2.

What nerves play a role in colic pain?

a)

ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerve

b)

vagal nerve and truncus sympathicus

c)

vagal nerve and subcostal nerve

d)

iliohypogastric and phrenic nerve

3.

Complete the sequence below!

renal artery→ segmental artery→ (1)→ arcuate artery→(2)

a)

(1)testicular artery, (2)interlobar artery

b)

(1)interlobar artery, (2)cortical radiate veins

c)

(1) afferent arteriole, (2) efferent arteriole

d)

(1)interlobar artery, (2)cortical radiate artery

4.

A man present with urination incontinence and premature ejaculation. where would the anatomical problems concerning pelvic floor muscles lies within?

a)

m. transversus perinei profundus and m. sphincter urethra externus

b)

m. transversus perinei profundus and m. sphincter urethra internus

c)

m. bulbospongiosus and m. ischiocavernosus

d)

m. transversus perinei superficialis and m. transversus urethrae externus

5.

Pontine micturition center stimulates sympathetic nerve to relax detrusor muscle and contract internal urethral sphincter muscle

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Renal corpuscle is prominent in medulla

a)

True

b)

False

7.

What is the structure pointed by question mark?

a)

thick limb ascending

b)

papillary duct of bellini

c)

collecting tubule

d)

vasa recta

8.

What is the structure pointed by question mark?

a)

papillary duct of bellini

b)

collecting duct

c)

proximal straight tubule

d)

thick limb descending

9.

Choose the correct order of glomerular filtration from capillary lumen to urinary space!

a)

(1) fenestrations, (2) podocytes slits, (3) basement membrane

b)

(1) basement membrane, (2)podocytes, (3) fenestrations

c)

(1) fenestrations, (2) basement membrane, (3) podocytes slits

d)

(1) podocytes slits, (2) basement membrane, (3) fenestrations

10.

… lines the luminal mucosa of bladder

a)

detrusor muscle

b)

transitional epithelium

c)

tunica adventitia

d)

corpus spongiosum

11.

Acid-base balance is influenced by…

a)

H2O, H+, HCO3-

b)

pCO2, HCO3-, H+

c)

HCO3-, H+, CO2

d)

pO2, CO2, HCO3-

12.

D3 can help enhance the immune system because it plays a role in Ca2+ metabolism. This can be easily obtained by sunbathing for 15 mins/day at 10AM

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Which of the following is true about the efferent arteriole?

a)

carries blood to the glomerulus

b)

filters a protein-free plasma into the tubular component

c)

carries blood from the glomerulus

d)

involved in exchanges with the fluid in the tubular lumen

14.

Secretion will occur if the pressure exerted by the capillary is greater than the pressure outside of the capillary

a)

True

b)

False

15.

The urge to pee is first felt at what volume (mL)?

a)

120 mL

b)

130 mL

c)

140 mL

d)

150 mL

16.

What is the normal pH range in our body?

a)

7.00 - 7.10

b)

7.15 - 7.25

c)

7.35 -7.45

d)

7.40 - 7.50

17.

Which of these are NOT the effect of pH disturbances?

a)

Unstable cell membrane

b)

Alter protein structure

c)

Break lipid structure

d)

Denature proteins (e.g., enzyme and hormones)

18.

What happens if we add acid to a buffer?

a)

It will react to the acid of the buffer and will result in a slightly basic environment

b)

It will react to the base conjugate of the buffer and will result in a slightly acid environment

19.

Buffer is a mixture of strong acid and its conjugate base

a)

True

b)

False

20.

What indicates the strength of an acid?

a)

Kw

b)

Ka

c)

Ka

d)

Kh

21.

The strongest influence for ADH release is

a)

Osmolarity greater than 280 mOsm

b)

Decreased blood pressure

c)

Decreases in atrial stretch due to low volume

d)

Increased blood pressure

22.

The aquaporin two, when triggered by Vasopressin will attached on the basolateral side of the tubular cells

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Ingesting istonic saline willchange osmolarity and cause increase of volume 

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Which did not happened when the blood pressure is low?

a)

Increased in sympathetic activity 

b)

Release of renin from granular cell 

c)

Adrenal cortex releases aldosteron 

d)

Proximal tubule will increase Na+ Absorption 

e)

Nacl transportation will be increased

25.

Which is NOT the cause of acidosis metabolism? 

a)

Ingesting too much alcohol 

b)

Excessive bicarbonate ion 

c)

Depletion of lactic acid 

d)

Shock 

e)

Starvation

26.

The 2nd most  common cause of acid base imbalance? 

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis 

c)

Metabolic alkalosis 

d)

Respiratory alkalosis 

27.

Guess the wrong statement 

a)

Anaerobic glucose metabolism will produce lactic acid 

b)

H2CO3 is part of the volatile acid

c)

Organic acid yields only ketone bodies 

d)

Transporting co2 as bicarbonate ion release hydrogen ion 

28.

Increase in plasma osmolality cause decrease in saliva 

a)

True 

b)

False

29.

Metabolic acidosis will be compensate by 

a)

Increase respiration rate 

b)

Secretion of bicarbonate ion 

c)

Decrease respiration rate 

d)

Retention of bicarbonate ion 

30.

Biofilm will cause infections and makes it harder for antibiotic to push through 

a)

True 

b)

False 

31.

Asymptomatic UTI is when microbiology test show 10^5 CFU/ml urine

a)

True 

b)

False 

32.

Staphylococcus saprophyticus is common cause for UTI 

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Intrinsic urinary tract abnormalities include:

a)

Stents 

b)

Urethral catheters

c)

Neurogenic bladder 

34.

Corynebacterium is highly susceptible to vancomycin 

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Sequestration happens in falciparum, knowlesi, and vivax. it is a process in which not all of the RBC that is infected by this protozoa is present in the peripheral circulation.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Children with chronic malaria nephropathy may have a good prognosis (reversible in 4-6 weeks)

a)

True

b)

False

37.

How long is the hepatic phase of p. vivax?

a)

8 days

b)

5.5 days

c)

3 days

d)

12 days

38.

Asexual growth of p. malariae happens outside the host’s body

a)

True

b)

False

39.

A strong indication for renal and urinary tract disorders by P.Vivax indicated by the binding of P.Vivax to chondroitin sulphate A

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Red color of urine happens due to glomerular hemorrhage

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Presence of ketone in the urine indicates high level/increase of fat metabolism

a)

True

b)

False

42.

The recommended time frame for urine sample collection is : <3 hours

a)

True

b)

False

43.

What causes the yellow-green color foam in urine

a)

Protien

b)

Bilirubin

c)

Nitrate

d)

Glucose

44.

What is the benefit of using morning urine sample?

a)

Can evaluate substances that requires incubation or augmentation such as nitrite and protein

b)

Can evaluate substances that requires incubation or augmentation such as nitrite and protein

c)

Can be used for emergency setting

d)

Immediate result

45.

The reference interval for Serum Na+ is 126 to 135 mmol/L.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a high fever and is hyperventilating. His ABG results are pH 7.51, PaCO2 28 mm Hg, and HCO3- 24 mEq/L. The nurse should identify that the client has which of the following acid-base imbalances?

a)

Metabolic Acidosis

b)

Metabolic Alkalosis

c)

Respiratory Acidosis

d)

Respiratory Alkalosis

47.

The average concentration of potassium in the erythrocytes is 105mmol/L.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

It is recommended to do hemolysis before measuring the concentration of potassium

a)

True

b)

False

49.

A nurse is caring for a client whose ABG results are PH 7.30, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 19 meq/L. the nurse should identify that the client has which of the following acid-base imbalances

a)

Metabolic Acidosis

b)

Metabolic Alkalosis

c)

Respiratory Acidosis

d)

Respiratory Alkalosis

50.

The most common cause for post infection glomerulonephritis is group B streptococcus alpha hemolyticus

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Which is the right order for eradication of acute UTI ?

(1) prevent urosepsis

(2) eliminate acute infection

(3) reduce/prevent renal parenchymal damage

a)

(1)-(2)-(3)

b)

(3)-(2)-(1)

c)

(3)-(1)-(2)

d)

(2)-(1)-(3)

52.

Do not think that glomerulonephritis or nephritic syndrome is post streptococcal if the patient has :

a)

family history of glomerular disease

b)

no evidence of extra-renal disease

c)

no previous history of similar symptoms for the past year

d)

no evidence of chronic kidney disease

53.

Most frequent route of infection of UTI in neonates is

a)

ascending from urethral orifice

b)

descending from bladder/kidney

c)

from surface of skin

d)

hematogenous

54.

How to achieve high sensitivity for UTI testing ?

a)

leukocyte esterase test

b)

nitrile stick test

c)

microscopy test

d)

combine a,b,and c

e)

blood test

55.

Which of the following is not the etiology of nephritic syndrome

a)

Infection

b)

Genetics

c)

Trauma

d)

Drugs

56.

How many days after pharyngitis will clinical manifestation of postinfectious nephritic syndrom occur ?

a)

2-3 days

b)

3-6 weeks

c)

7-14 days

d)

4-8 days

57.

Post-streptococcal glomerular disease is more common in adults then children

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Glomerulus affected by nephritic syndrome when viewed under light microscopy will show...

a)

Enlarged and hypercellular appearance

b)

superepithelial deposits

c)

antibody complexes

d)

starry sky, granular appearance

59.

Early antibiotic treatment is likely to prevent PSGN

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Hyponatremia is when plasma concentration of Na+ is <135mmol/L (T)

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Potassium imbalance from  K+ redistribution can be caused by metabolic acidosis

a)

True

b)

False

62.

What is the normal level for potassium in adults ?

a)

2.3 - 5.1

b)

3.4 - 4.8

c)

3.7 - 5.9

d)

3.6 - 7.2

63.

Below are symptoms of hypokalemia except

a)

muscle weakness

b)

respiratory failure

c)

cardiac arrhythmia

d)

GI  muscle weakness

64.

Edema is NOT caused by 

a)

increased venous pressure due to heart failure

b)

high plasma protein in liver disease

c)

high capillary permeability due to anaphylactic shock

d)

low lymph drainage due to obstruction in filariasis