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Quiz 1-3 Review

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The branch of science that studies groups of specialized cells and how they work together is called

a)

Physiology

b)

Histology

c)

Anatomy

d)

Cytology

2.

The study of the heart, blood, and blood vessels is which of the following approaches?

a)

Systemic anatomy

b)

Regional anatomy

c)

Developmental anatomy

d)

Surface anatomy

3.

List the levels of organization from the highest to lowest level of complexity.

(a)  

4.

In the prone position,

a)

the body faces posteriorly

b)

the body is lying in anatomical position face up

c)

the body is lying in anatomical position face down

d)

the head is turned to the left, and the eyes are closed.

5.

A frontal (coronal) section is in a place that

a)

divides the body into left and right sections

b)

divides the body along the midline

c)

divides the body into anterior and posterior sections

d)

divides the body into superior and inferior sections

6.

Which of the following directional reference pairs consists of anatomical equivalents when referring to the human body?

a)

proximal, lateral

b)

anterior, ventral

c)

cranial, caudal

d)

cephalic, posterior

7.

The space that contains organs of the respiratory, cardiovascular, digestive, urine, and reproductive systems is called the

a)

pelvic cavity

b)

pleural cavity

c)

mediastinum

d)

none of these answers are correct.

8.

The urinary bladder is located in the ______ cavity.

a)

abdominal

b)

thoracic

c)

pelvic

d)

pleural

9.

If a person has peritonitis, which of the following organs will be affected within the peritoneum.

a)

urinary bladder

b)

heart

c)

lungs

d)

stomach

10.

In epithelial tissues

a)

cells that are damaged or lost at the surface cannot be replaced

b)

cells obtain nutrients via blood vessels found in the tissues

c)

extracellular fluid or fibers separate the individual cells

d)

there is little or no intercellular space between the cells

11.

Which of the following is not a primary tissue type?

a)

epithelial

b)

skeletal

c)

muscle

d)

neural

12.

Which type of epithelium lines the renal pelvis, ureters, and urinary bladder?

a)

cuboidal

b)

columnar

c)

transitional

d)

squamous

13.

The type of cartilage that is specialized to resist compression is

a)

osteocartilage

b)

elastic cartilage

c)

fibrous cartilage

d)

hyaline cartilage

14.

Tendons, aponeuroses, and ligaments are all composed of __________ connective tissue, which contains tightly packed collagen fibers aligned parallel to applied forces.

a)

Dense regular

b)

Osseous

c)

Cartilaginous

d)

Reticular

15.

Extracellular fibers and _____ comprise the matrix that surrounds the cells of a connective tissue.

a)

melanocytes

b)

ground substance

c)

fibroblasts

d)

mesenchymal cells

16.

Which of the following cell types trigger an immune response in the stratum spinosum?

a)

Langerhans (dendritic) cells

b)

keratinocytes

c)

melanocytes

d)

mast cells

17.

The epidermis in a section of thin skin includes four layers. In what order do these occur from the basal lamina to the superficial surface?

(a)  

18.

The most abundant cells in the epidermis are _______.

a)

melanocytes

b)

keratinocytes

c)

Merkel cells

d)

Langerhans cells

19.

In the dermis, repeated ultraviolet exposure can result in damage to ______, causing abnormal connective structure and premature wrinkling.

a)

Langerhans cells

b)

Merkel cells

c)

sebaceous glands

d)

fibroblasts

20.

The epidermal layer that is found only in thick skin is called ______.

a)

Stratum Corneum

b)

Stratum Basale

c)

Stratum Lucidum

d)

Stratum Granulosum

21.

Nerve fibers in the skin are found in which of the following layers?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Reticular layer of dermis

c)

Papillary layer of dermis

d)

Subcutaneous layer of dermis

22.

The subcutaneous (hypodermis) layer consists of loose connective tissue with abundant ______.

a)

keratinocytes

b)

adipocytes

c)

merkel cells

d)

melanocytes

23.

Eccrine sweat glands _______.

a)

are most common in the axilla

b)

are the same as apocrine glands

c)

function in thermoregulation

d)

are usually attached to hair follicles

24.

Sebaceous glands are often associated with ______.

a)

nails

b)

eccrine sweat glands

c)

hair follicles

d)

apocrine sweat glands

25.

Arrector pili consists of ______.

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Loose connective tissue

c)

Smooth muscle

d)

Cardiac muscle

26.

Which of the following is produced within red bone marrow?

a)

blood cells

b)

adipose tissue

c)

calcium

d)

protein

27.

The matrix of bone includes

a)

2/3 calcium phosphate

b)

small amount of other calcium salts

c)

1/3 collagen fibers

d)

sodium phosphate

28.

Mature bone cells that maintain and monitor the protein and mineral content of the surrounding matrix are called ______.

a)

osteocytes

b)

osteoprogenitor cells

c)

osteoblasts

d)

osteoclasts

29.

The functional unit of mature bones is called the ______.

a)

trabeculae

b)

osteons

c)

lamellae

d)

canaliculi

30.

Roofing bones of the skull form via ______ ossification.

a)

synovial

b)

intramembranous

c)

intrachondral

d)

symphyseal

31.

How do hormones regular the pattern of bone growth?

a)

They don't; hormones are not involved in bone growth processes.

b)

They change the rates of osteoblast and osteoclast activity.

c)

They control the rate of movement of the epiphyseal line.

d)

They ensure that intramembranous ossification occurs throughout life.

32.

Each year, approximately ______ of the adult skeleton is demolished and then rebuilt or replaced.

a)

1/2

b)

1/4

c)

1/5

d)

1/3

33.

An example of the pneumatized bone is the ______.

a)

parietal bone

b)

femur

c)

vertebra

d)

ethmoid bone

34.

A shallow depression on the surface of a bone is called a _______.

a)

tuberosity

b)

trochanter

c)

fossa

d)

foramen

35.

Which of the following is true of the foramen magnum?

a)

It allows passage of the carotid arteries into the head.

b)

It is located between the parietal and occipital bones.

c)

It is located in the inferior surface of the occipital bone.

d)

It is the second largest foramen in the cranium.

36.

Which of the following contains the mastoid process?

a)

frontal

b)

temporal

c)

sphenoid

d)

ethmoid

37.

An anterior exaggeration of the lumbar curve can lead to which of the following?

a)

lordosis

b)

scoliosis

c)

kyphosis

d)

None of the answers are correct.

38.

Which of the following structures can most easily be felt on the dorsum?

a)

transverse process

b)

spinous process

c)

vertebral body

d)

intervertebral disc

39.

Choose the correct combination matching the type of rib to its associated number of ribs.

a)

false ribs; 4

b)

true ribs; 4

c)

floating ribs; 6

d)

false ribs; 10

40.

The most inferior portion of the sternum to which the diaphragm and rectus abdominis muscle attach is called the ______.

a)

manubrium

b)

body

c)

xiphoid process

d)

sternal angle

41.

The pectoral girdle, upper limb bones, pelvic girdle, and lower limb bones make up the

a)

axial skeleton

b)

appendicular skeleton

c)

pelvis

d)

thoracic cage

42.

The ______ is the most fractured carpal bone.

a)

Scaphoid

b)

Capitate

c)

Pisiform

d)

Trapezium

43.

There are ______ phalanges in the appendicular skeleton.

a)

20

b)

28

c)

40

d)

56

44.

The bones of the pelvis ______.

a)

are bones of the axial skeleton only

b)

are bones of the appendicular skeleton only

c)

include both axial and appendicular elements

d)

include two prominent sesamoid bones

45.

The largest bone of the pelvic girdle is the ______.

a)

pubis

b)

ischium

c)

sacrum

d)

ilium

46.

In the ankle, the largest tarsal bone is the ______.

a)

navicular bone

b)

talus

c)

calcaneus

d)

cuboid bone

47.

The longest, heaviest bone in the body is the _______.

a)

tibia

b)

femur

c)

fibula

d)

ilium

48.

The structure that surrounds a synovial joint is called (a) ______.

a)

meniscus

b)

joint capsule

c)

synovial membrane

d)

bursa

49.

Which of the following associations is the most accurate?

a)

synarthroses - slightly movable

b)

amphiarthroses - freely movable

c)

diarthroses - immovable

d)

diarthroses - synovial

50.

Small, synovial fluid-filled pockets in connective tissue are called ______.

a)

tendons

b)

intrinsic ligaments

c)

fat pads

d)

bursae

51.

How many skeletal muscles are there in the muscular system?

a)

50

b)

206

c)

700+

d)

116

52.

What type of muscles are involuntary?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Smooth

c)

Cardiac

d)

Fibrous

53.

The layers of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle from the inside to the outside in correct order are (a)   .

54.

The attachment of a muscle to a bone is called ______.

a)

a bursa

b)

a capsule

c)

a ligament

d)

a tendon

55.

Which of these orders of functional muscle structures progresses from the smallest to the largest in diameter?

a)

muscle, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril

b)

fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril, muscle

c)

muscle, muscle fiber, myofibril, fascicle

d)

myofibril, muscle fiber, fascicle, muscle

56.

The complex known as the triad consists of ______.

a)

actin, myosin, and myofilaments

b)

one A band, one H zone, and one I band

c)

One transverse tubule and two terminal cisternae

d)

One sarcomere, one sarcoplasmic reticulum, and one sarcoplasm

57.

The portion of a sarcomere that contains the troponin and tropomyosin is the ______.

a)

H band

b)

I Band

c)

A Band

d)

Z line

58.

The area of a myofibril where there are no myosin filaments is the _____.

a)

A band

b)

I band

c)

H band

d)

M line

59.

The ______ is a dense regular connective tissue layer that surrounds the entire skeletal muscle.

a)

perimysium

b)

sarcolemma

c)

epimysium

d)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

e)

endomysium

60.

The smallest functional units of the muscle fibers are the _____.

a)

fascicles

b)

sarcomeres

c)

myofilaments

d)

cisternae

e)

neuromuscular synapses

61.

When contraction occurs, ______.

a)

The A band remains constant

b)

the H band gets smaller

c)

the I band begins to get smaller and disappear

d)

the Z lines move closer together

62.

In muscles that have been repeatedly stimulated to produce near-maximal tension, the net effect is ______.

a)

hypertrophy

b)

recruitment

c)

atrophy

d)

reduced tone

63.

A very good sprinter is likely to have ______.

a)

more slow twitch fibers than average

b)

more intermediate fibers than average

c)

more fast twitch fibers than average

d)

average muscles; performance is based solely on training

e)

None of the answers are correct.

64.

Which of the following muscles is the most powerful muscle involved in the process of chewing or manipulating food in the mouth?

a)

masseter

b)

omohyoid

c)

temporalis

d)

pterygoid

e)

hyoglossus

65.

Orbicularis oris, orbicularis oculi, and platysma are part of the group of muscles known as the muscles of _____.

a)

facial expression

b)

mastication

c)

the extra-ocular region

d)

the tongue

e)

the pharynx

66.

The facial nerve supplies the muscles of ______.

a)

The tongue

b)

The eyes

c)

Mastication

d)

The anterior neck

e)

Facial expression

67.

The trigeminal nerve controls which group of muscles?

a)

muscles of facial expression

b)

muscles of mastication

c)

muscles of the tongue

d)

muscles of the pharynx

e)

muscles of the eye

68.

The muscle that is useful to musicians, as in playing a trumpet, is the _____ muscle.

a)

masseter

b)

orbicularis oris

c)

procerus

d)

temporalis

e)

buccinator

69.

The deepest lateral layer of the abdominal muscles is the ______.

a)

transversus abdominis

b)

rectus abdominis

c)

internal oblique

d)

external oblique

e)

Psoas major

70.

The muscles that form the rotator cuff include the ______.

a)

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, deltoid, teres major

b)

biceps brachii and deltoid

c)

teres minor, infraspinatus, supraspinatus, and subscapularis

d)

pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, and subscapularis

e)

subclavius, deltoid, and pectoralis minor

71.

Inflammation of the flexor tendon sheath within the wrist area can restrict movement and irritate the ______, resulting in carpal tunnel syndrome.

a)

Musculocutaneous nerve

b)

Median nerve

c)

Ulnar nerve

d)

Radial nerve

e)

Axillary nerve

72.

The serratus anterior muscle is innervated by (the) ______.

a)

cervical nerves

b)

accessory nerve

c)

dorsal scapular nerve

d)

long thoracic nerve

e)

None of the answers are correct.

73.

The diamond-shaped (a)   muscle originates on the middle of the neck and back, and inserts on the clavicles and scapular spines, covering the upper back and extending to the base of the skull.

74.

Which of the following muscles belongs to the group known as hamstrings?>>

a)

Semitendinosus

b)

Semimembranosus

c)

Gracilis

d)

Biceps femoris

e)

Sartorius

75.

The _______ tendon is the strongest, thickest tendon in the body.

a)

tibialis anterior

b)

fibularis longus

c)

calcaneal

d)

fibularis brevis

e)

quadriceps

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