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Principles of real estate 2

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

¼ is an example of a/an…?

a)

Improper fraction

b)

Root Fraction

c)

Proper Fraction

d)

Integrated fraction

2.

Proper fractions are always less than…?

a)

1

b)

0.1

c)

0.5

d)

0

3.

¼ is equal to…?

a)

0.4

b)

4

c)

0.25

d)

0.2

4.

If a lender charges an origination fee of 1 point on a $200,000 loan, how much will the origination fee be…?

a)

1,000

b)

4,000

c)

2,000

d)

200

5.

What is the area of a triangle with a base dimension of 6’-0” and a height of 12’-0”…?

a)

36 sq ft

b)

72 sq ft

c)

18 sq ft

d)

32 sq ft

6.

The top number in a written fraction is called the…?

a)

Demoninator

b)

Root

c)

Numerator

d)

Integer

7.

The total commission on a sale is $5,000. The commission split between the seller and buyer broker is 50/50. How much will the buyer’s broker earn as a commission…?

a)

$2,000

b)

$2,500

c)

$10,000

d)

$1,250

8.

If the sale price on a home was $250,000, and the broker commission was $15,000, what was the commission rate for the sale…?

a)

6% (percent)

b)

5% (percent)

c)

4% (percent)

d)

3% (percent)

9.

In an improper fraction, the ……………. is smaller than the numerator?

a)

Denominator

b)

Root

c)

Decimal

d)

Integer

10.

All appraisals must contain which of the following…?

a)

The Opinion of Value

b)

The date on which the appraisal value was determined

c)

All of the Above

d)

The purpose for which the appraisal was done

11.

This principle affirms that the maximum value of a property tends to be set by the cost of acquiring an equally desirable and valuable substitute property…?

a)

Principle of conformity

b)

Principle of substitution

c)

Principle of Externalities

d)

Principle of Anticipation

12.

This principle holds that it is the future, not the past, which is of prime importance in estimating value…?

a)

Principle of change

b)

Principle of conformity

c)

Principle of anticipation

d)

Principle of externalities

13.

A tax assessor produces which of the following types of value…?

a)

Assessed Value

b)

Market Value

c)

Book value

d)

Investment Value

14.

Which of the following appraisal methods will most likely be used to determine the value of a commercial building…?

a)

Income Approach

b)

Market Data Approach

c)

Cost Approach

d)

Sales Comparison Approach

15.

Market value is equal to…?

a)

The average price a property will bring in the market

b)

The highest price a property will bring in the market

c)

The most probable price a property will bring in the market

d)

The lowest price a property will bring in the market

16.

When appraising a property using the sales comparison approach, which of the following factors is used to adjust comparable properties to the subject property…?

a)

All of the above

b)

The day of the sale

c)

The terms and conditions of the sale

d)

The physical features of the house

17.

This appraisal method is typically used to determine the value of residential properties…?

a)

Income Approach

b)

Cost Approach

c)

Sales Comparison Approach

d)

Assessed Approach

18.

An estimate of the value of property resulting from an analysis of facts about the property is known as a/an…?

a)

Appraisal

b)

Assessment

c)

Pro-Forma

d)

Listing Estimate

19.

The price paid regardless of pressures, motives or intelligence is referred to as the…?

a)

Insured Price

b)

Market Price

c)

Investment Price

d)

Assessed Price

20.

What do lenders require from all borrowers prior to issuing a loan…?

a)

Pre-approval

b)

Recommendations

c)

Investment property as collateral

d)

Activation fees

21.

A mortgage payment includes principal, interest, insurance, and…?

a)

Deductibles

b)

Fees

c)

Taxes

d)

Discount Points

22.

The relationship between the amount of a mortgage loan and the lender’s opinion of the value of property pledged to secure payment of the loan is known as the…?

a)

Debt to income Ratio

b)

Value To Payment Ratio

c)

Loan to Value Ratio

d)

Interest to Principal Ratio

23.

If an owner obtained an $80,000 loan on a $100,000 property, what LTV was provided by the lender…?

a)

75% (percent)

b)

80% (percent)

c)

70% (percent)

d)

65% (percent)

24.

Lenders base their LTV ratio on which of the following…?

a)

The contract price only

b)

The greater of the appraised value or the contract price

c)

The appraised value only

d)

The lesser of the appraised value or the contract price

25.

In this type of mortgage, the scheduled payment will not amortize the loan over the mortgage term…?

a)

Balloon mortgage

b)

Conventional mortgage

c)

Fully amortized mortgage

d)

FHA mortgage

26.

Which of the following terms will have the largest monthly mortgage payment…?

a)

15 year loan

b)

20 year loan

c)

30 year loan

d)

10 year loan

27.

The U.S Central bank is known as the…?

a)

Federal Reserve System

b)

Central Reserve System

c)

U.S. Reserve System

d)

National Bank

28.

Once a bank make a loan to a borrower, the bank may sell that loan in which of the following markets…?

a)

Stock Market

b)

Trading Market

c)

Secondary Mortgage Market

d)

Primary Mortgage Market

29.

Which of the following purchases newly originated and seasoned agricultural loans from lenders…?

a)

Freddie Mac

b)

Fannie Mae

c)

Ginnie Mae

d)

Farmer Mac

30.

A permitted deviation from specific requirements of a zoning ordinance because of the special hardship to a property owner is known as a…?

a)

Variance

b)

Reconsideration

c)

Special Use

d)

Conforming Use

31.

If an owner is experiencing economic hardship due to the limitations on his property, a variance may be granted for which of the following…?

a)

An increased lot coverage allowance

b)

A less stringent high limitation

c)

A reduced setback requirement

d)

All of the Above

32.

Radon most often enters a house through…?

a)

The foundation walls

b)

The roof

c)

Underground storage tanks

d)

Windows

33.

An auto-repair shop that exists in a newly developed residential neighborhood is an example of a…?

a)

Non-Conforming Use

b)

Conforming Use

c)

Spot Use

d)

Variance Use

34.

A permitted deviation from specific requirements of a zoning ordinance because of the special hardship to a property owner is known as a…?

a)

Variance

b)

Reconsideration

c)

Special Use

d)

Conforming Use

35.

The use of lead-based paint in residential properties was banned in what year…?

a)

1970

b)

1968

c)

1964

d)

1978

36.

Water damage, combined with improper ventilation can lead to which of the following…?

a)

Mold

b)

Carbon Monoxide

c)

Radon

d)

Carbon Dioxide

37.

Lead can be found in which of the following…?

a)

Insulation

b)

Floor Tiles

c)

Plumbing Pipes

d)

All of te Above

38.

Zoning is an example of…?

a)

Escheat

b)

Eminent Domain

c)

Police Power

d)

Condemnation

39.

A Property Report issued by sellers of a sub-division to prospective buyers includes which of the following…?

a)

The number of homes currently occupied

b)

Soil conditions affecting foundations

c)

The type of title the buyer will receive

d)

All of the Above

40.

Which of the following imposes height restrictions on buildings…?

a)

All of the Above

b)

Certificate of occupancy

c)

Building Permits

d)

Zoning

41.

Which of the following is a primary goal of a property manager…?

a)

Maximize the return on investment for the property owner

b)

Minimize the number of repairs done on the property

c)

Create a database of potential tenants

d)

Spending the operating budget set aside by the property owner

42.

A transaction in which the sale proceeds fall short of the balance owed on the property is known as a…?

a)

REO

b)

Short Sale

c)

Buy-Down

d)

Foreclosure

43.

Who becomes the owner of a property after it becomes an REO…?

a)

The Seller

b)

The State

c)

The Lender

d)

The Broker

44.

Which of the following is used to determine the amount of equity in a distressed property…?

a)

All of the Above

b)

BPO

c)

Property Evaluation

d)

Comparative Market Analysis

45.

Real estate licensees who specialize in commercial real estate must be have an understanding of which of the following…?

a)

All of the above

b)

BPOs

c)

Real estate finance

d)

Financing available for first-time homebuyers

46.

A person who manages properties for an owner as the owner’s agent is referred to as a…?

a)

Property Manager

b)

Real Estate Broker

c)

On-Site Manager

d)

Apartment Locator

47.

Individuals primarily invest in real estate for cash flow and….?

a)

Depreciation

b)

Scalability

c)

Active Participation

d)

Appreciation

48.

Which of the following is an association of owners and managers, primarily in the office building market…?

a)

CPM

b)

ARM

c)

BOMA

d)

AIA

49.

A non-judicial foreclosure typically occurs when there is a…?

a)

Mortgage

b)

Short Sale

c)

Deed of Trust

d)

REO

50.

If a property owner is behind on their mortgage, their property may ultimately result in which of the following…?

a)

REO

b)

Short Sale`

c)

Foreclosure

d)

All of the Above

51.

An increase in value is known as…?

a)

Depreciation

b)

Demand

c)

Leverage

d)

Appreciation

52.

The use of a mortgage when buying an investment property is an example of…?

a)

Negative Amortization

b)

Leverage

c)

Equity Build Up

d)

Depreciation

53.

By using a high amount of leverage to purchase a property, the investor will experience a ……….. degree of risk?

a)

Lower

b)

Significantly Lower

c)

Higher

d)

Moderate

54.

The profit realized from the sale of real estate or other investments is known as…?

a)

Capital Gains

b)

Leverage

c)

Equity

d)

Appreciation

55.

A method of depreciation under which improvements are depreciated at a constant rate throughout the estimated useful life of the improvement is known as...?

a)

Variable Depreciation

b)

Straight Line Depreciation

c)

Dynamic Depreciation

d)

Fixed- Rate Depreciation

56.

The amount of decrease in value of an asset that is allowed in computing the value of the property for tax purposes is known as…?

a)

Appreciation

b)

Inflation

c)

Depreciation

d)

Deflation

57.

The use of debt financing of an investment to maximize the return per dollar of equity invested is known as…?

a)

Capital Gain

b)

Leverage

c)

Appreciation

d)

Inflation

58.

The use of a mortgage when buying an investment property is an example of…?

a)

Negative Amortization

b)

Equity Build up

c)

Depreciation

d)

Leverage

59.

This is a section of the U.S. Internal Revenue Service Code that allows investors to defer capital gains taxes on any exchange of like-kind properties for business or investment purposes…?

a)

Section 12-A

b)

Section 1031 Exchange

c)

Section 11 Exchange

d)

section 13

60.

A lessor is also known as a…?

a)

Landlord

b)

Tenant

c)

Grantor

d)

Grantee

61.

A tenant is also referred to as a…?

a)

Grantee

b)

Lessee

c)

Grantor

d)

Grantee

62.

A contract between an owner and tenant, setting forth conditions upon which the tenant may occupy and use the property and the term of the occupancy is referred to as a…?

a)

Purchase Contract

b)

Lease

c)

Deed

d)

Listing Contract

63.

Leases with a term of greater than ……... must be in writing to be enforceable?

a)

6 months

b)

1 year

c)

2 years

d)

3 years

64.

If a tenant decides to rent out a second bedroom in their apartment to a new roommate, the roommate’s lease is considered a/an…?

a)

Term Lease

b)

Tenancy at Sufferance

c)

Sub-Lease

d)

Assigned Lease

65.

An annual budget that includes only the items of income and expense expected for week-to-week operation is known as a…?

a)

Marketing Budget

b)

Operaring Budget

c)

Maintenence Budget

d)

Investment Budget

66.

Which of the following is a common duty of a property manager…?

a)

Performing on-going maintenence

b)

Collecting Rent

c)

Leasing

d)

All of The Above

67.

Who is primarily responsible for preparing the operating budget…?

a)

The Owner

b)

The Property Manager

c)

The Owners Accountant

d)

The Real Estate Broker

68.

Which of the following is included in the operating budget…?

a)

Capital Expidentures

b)

Employee Salaries

c)

Estimated Maintenence Costs

d)

All of The Above

69.

If a toilet is leaking, what type of maintenance must be performed…?

a)

Construction Maintanence

b)

Preventative Maintanence

c)

Corrective Maintanence

d)

Cosmetic Maintanence

70.

The CAN-SPAM Act applies to solicitation involving…?

a)

Emails

b)

Telephone

c)

Fax Machines

d)

Direct Mail

71.

Which of the following is a type of maintenance performed by a property manager…?

a)

Routine Maintenance

b)

Corrective Maintenance

c)

All of The Above

d)

Preventative Maintenance

72.

A person, who by a written instrument, transfers to another the interest in land is referred to as the…?

a)

Grantee

b)

Grantor

c)

Lessor

d)

Lessee

73.

All deeds must be in accordance with the…?

a)

TREC statutes

b)

Civil Statutes

c)

Statute of Limitations

d)

Statute of Frauds

74.

All deeds must include which of the following…?

a)

All of the Above

b)

State that consideration was given

c)

Include the words of conveyance

d)

Signature of the grantor

75.

A deed gets ……...... in the public record?

a)

Delivered

b)

Closed

c)

Recorded

d)

Signed

76.

Which type of deed provides the greatest amount of protection…?

a)

Quitclaim Deed

b)

Bargain And Sale Deed

c)

General Warranty Deed

d)

Special Warranty Deed

77.

The final and absolute transfer of a deed from a seller to a buyer in such a manner that it cannot be recalled by the seller is known as…?

a)

Delivery

b)

Closing

c)

Recording

d)

Converted

78.

The seller in a transaction is also referred to as the…?

a)

Grantor

b)

Grantee

c)

Lessor

d)

Lessee

79.

If the chain of title is incomplete, there is said to be a…?

a)

Cleared Title

b)

Cloud on Title

c)

Notice on Title

d)

Marketed Title

80.

Express or implied knowledge of a fact is considered…?

a)

Inquiry Notice

b)

Actual Notice

c)

Acknowledged Notice

d)

Constructive Notice

81.

Which of the following occurs at the closing of a real estate transaction…?

a)

The purchase money is transferred to the seller

b)

The buyer closes on their mortgage

c)

All of the Above

d)

Signing of the loan documents

82.

The seller receives the funds for the purchase of their property at the…?

a)

Signing of the Sale Contract

b)

Signing of the Listing Contract

c)

Deed Recordation

d)

Closing

83.

The boundary of a property and any improvements on the property is shown on the…?

a)

Deed

b)

Site Map

c)

Property Survey

d)

Property Map

84.

The closing agent prepares a ……………………... to prove that all funds have been paid out correctly?

a)

P&L Statement

b)

Disbursment Sheet

c)

Expense Sheet

d)

Transfer Statement

85.

Items that are owed by the seller but ultimately paid by the buyer are known as…?

a)

Accrued Items

b)

Pre Paid Items

c)

Credit Items

d)

Debit Items

86.

The signing and transfer of documents and distribution of funds occurs at the…?

a)

Recording

b)

Closing

c)

Granting

d)

Property Transfer

87.

The person in charge of conducting a real estate closing is referred to as a/an…?

a)

Closing Agent

b)

Mediator

c)

Administrator

d)

Broker

88.

After a purchase contract is signed by both parties, both the contract and the …………………. are delivered to the escrow agent…?

a)

Earnest Money

b)

Letter of Intent

c)

Inspection Report

d)

Chain of title

89.

The division of certain settlement costs between a buyer and seller is known as…?

a)

Distribution

b)

Apportion

c)

Closing

d)

Proration

90.

A seller needs to be reimbursed by the buyer for prepaid property taxes. The reimbursement will take the form of a ……………. for the seller on the Settlement Statement?

a)

Bill

b)

Fee

c)

Debit

d)

Credit