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PSYCO 105 (second half)

Total questions: 185

Worksheet time: 3hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is developmental psychology?

a)

studying changes in biological, physical, behavioural and physiological processes with age

b)

genetically programmed biological process that governs growth of bodies and motor skills during infancy and childhood

2.

What are the three different research designs used to study developmental psychology?

a)

cross-sectional, maturational, developmental

b)

longitudinal, cross-sectional, developmental

c)

sequential, longitudinal, psychological

d)

sequential, longitudinal, cross-sectional

3.

What is cross-sectional design?

a)

same set of people studied as they age

b)

people of different ages are studied at a given time

c)

test several cohorts as they age

4.

In cross-sectional design, data is obtained (a)   .

5.

Which is a flaw of cross-sectional design?

a)

data is obtained too slowly

b)

difficult to tell if age or other factors (eg. growing up in different periods) influence results

c)

data is obtained too quickly

d)

easy to tell if age or other factors (eg. growing up in different periods) influence results

6.

What is longitudinal design?

a)

same set of people studied as they age

b)

test several cohorts as they age

7.

Which definition corresponds to the term "cohort"?

a)

group of individuals that share the same place of birth

b)

group of individuals that share biological relatives

c)

group of individuals born at different times

d)

group of individuals born at the same time

8.

Which is a flaw of longitudinal design?

a)

data is collected too quickly

b)

more comprehensive than other designs

c)

long-term and time-consuming; subjects could drop out/die

d)

short-term and time-consuming; subjects could drop out/die

9.

Which definition does NOT correspond to sequential design?

a)

subjects are presented with sequences of numbers

b)

combination of both cross-sectional and longitudinal designs

c)

a method of studying developmental psychology

d)

tests several cohorts as they age

10.

Which research design is the most comprehensive?

a)

Longitudinal

b)

Sequential

c)

Cross-sectional

11.

Complete this statement: "The three stages of prenatal development, in order from earliest to latest, are __1__, embryonic, and __2__."

a)

1: macrobiotic, 2: germinal

b)

1: fetal, 2: germinal

c)

1: germinal, 2: zygotic

d)

1: germinal, 2: fetal

e)

1: haploid, 2: diploid

12.

During the first two weeks of development (germinal stage), a single sperm fertilizes an ovum (egg), resulting in a (a)   .

13.

When does a zygote become a mass of cells that attaches to the uterus?

a)

2-3 days after conception

b)

4-6 days after conception

c)

1-5 days after conception

d)

10-14 days after conception

e)

15-20 days after conception

14.

The embryonic stage extends from the end of week two to the end of week ____.

a)

nine

b)

eight

c)

four

d)

six

15.

During which week does an embryo become a fetus?

a)

tenth

b)

fifth

c)

ninth

d)

eleventh

16.

At which stage do the placenta and umbilical cord develop?

a)

germinal

b)

embryonic

c)

fetal

17.

Which event occurs by week twenty-four?

a)

fetus is viable

b)

eyes open

18.

At which week does a fetus reach the age of viability?

a)

twenty-eighth

b)

twentieth

c)

twenty-fourth

d)

eighteenth

19.

A twenty-third pair of chromosomes of XX corresponds to the female sex. A pair of __ corresponds to the male sex.

a)

AB

b)

ZY

c)

XY

d)

YY

20.

Sperm can contain either the X or Y chromosome, while an egg can only contain the __ chromosome.

a)

X

b)

Y

21.

The Y chromosome contains the TDF gene that triggers male sexual development. What does TDF stand for?

a)

totally dank frogs

b)

testis detrimental factor

c)

testis developmental factor

d)

testis determining factor

22.

At six to eight weeks, the TDF gene initiates the development of the testes, which, like ovaries, produce the sex hormones known as (a)   .

23.

What are teratogens?

a)

environmental agents that may cause abnormal prenatal development

b)

tactile, auditory, and chemical perceptual systems

c)

genetically programmed biological processes that govern growth of bodies and motor skills during infancy and childhood

24.

____ ____ ____ can pass from mother to baby and cause in some cases brain damage, deafness or blindness.

a)

sexually transmitted diseases

b)

stress and androgens

c)

virtually transmitted diseases

25.

FASD is characterized by cognitive, behavioural and physical deficits. The disorder is caused by prenatal exposure to ____.

a)

marijuana

b)

alcohol

c)

loud music

d)

bright light

26.

What does FASD stand for?

a)

Fetal Adrenaline Spectrum Disorder

b)

Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder

c)

Frequent Alcohol Spectrum Disorder

27.

What does Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS) include?

a)

a cluster of developmental abnormalities such as facial abnormalities, malformed brains, psychological and social impairments

b)

a cluster of developmental abnormalities such as skin abnormalities, malformed eyes, psychological and social impairments

c)

a cluster of developmental abnormalities such as liver abnormalities, malformed cochlea, psychological and social impairments

28.

Tactile, ____, and chemical perceptual systems are known to be stimulated and operational at birth.

a)

alcohol

b)

adrenaline

c)

auditory

d)

emotional

e)

visual

29.

Newborns are near-sighted, but can ____ ____.

a)

track objects

b)

see colour (full range)

30.

By ____ months, a child can see the full range of colours.

a)

two

b)

six

c)

eight

d)

three

e)

seven

31.

What is the preferential looking procedure used for?

a)

determining preference for visual stimuli

b)

determining preference for auditory stimuli

c)

determining preference for tactile stimuli

32.

Infants prefer visually __1__ stimuli over __2__ stimuli and solid colours.

a)

1: complex, 2: simple

b)

1: simple, 2: complex

33.

Newborns readily orient ____ ____ sources of sounds, tactile stimuli, and odours.

a)

toward the

b)

away from

34.

The ability to localise sounds exists from birth until 2 months of age, then disappears. It reappears at __ to __ months.

a)

3 to 6

b)

4 to 5

c)

8 to 10

d)

4 to 6

35.

What is phoneme discrimination in newborns, and when does it disappear?

a)

the ability to detect changes in speech sounds, even better than adults; disappears at 12 months of age

b)

the ability to detect changes in visual stimuli, even better than adults; disappears at 12 months of age

c)

the ability to detect changes in speech sounds, even better than adults; disappears at 6 months of age

d)

the ability to detect changes in visual stimuli, even better than adults; disappears at 6 months of age

36.

Music perception is the ability to:

a)

process and remember voices (rhythm, pitch, and melody)

b)

process and remember music (rhythm, pitch, and melody)

37.

What is meant by the definition "genetically programmed biological process that governs the growth of bodies and motor skills during infancy and childhood"?

(a)  

38.

The ____ Principle is the principle that development proceeds from innermost parts to outermost parts of the body (arms before fingers).

a)

Premack

b)

Proximodistal

c)

Ainsworth

d)

Maturation

39.

Why is the head of a fetus disproportionately large?

a)

FASD

b)

the Proximodistal Principle

c)

the Cephalocaudal Principle

40.

Which develops first?

a)

brainstem

b)

cortex

41.

A newborn's brain weighs __% of adult brain weight at birth.

a)

10

b)

35

c)

50

d)

45

e)

25

42.

By six months of age, the brain weighs __% of its adult weight.

a)

40

b)

50

c)

60

d)

30

43.

When a child reaches age five, their brain is __% of its adult weight.

a)

60

b)

75

c)

70

d)

90

e)

85

44.

Some motor skills have a __-shaped development.

a)

U

b)

Y

c)

N

d)

C

45.

In the stages of motor development, __1__ may vary, but __2__ does not.

a)

1: age, 2: sequence

b)

1: sequence, 2: age

c)

1: time, 2: age

d)

1: height, 2: age

46.

At five to eight months, a child can:

a)

use their arms for support

b)

stand alone easily

c)

sit without support

47.

Can visual deprivation permanently damage visual abilities?

a)

YES

b)

NO

48.

In Piaget’s Stage Model, the brain builds (a)   to achieve understanding.

49.

Which term is defined by "internal framework that guides interaction with the world"?

a)

schema

b)

scheme

c)

equilibrium

d)

cognition

50.

Assimilation is when new experiences fit into existing schemas. (a)   is when new experiences change existing schemas or create new schemas.

51.

Which is the correct order of Piaget's Stage Theory, from youngest to oldest?

a)

Preoperational, Sensorimotor, Concrete Operational, Formal Operational

b)

Sensorimotor, Preoperational, Concrete Operational, Formal Operational

c)

Preoperational, Concrete Operational, Formal Operational, Sensorimotor

d)

Sensorimotor, Preoperational, Formal Operational, Concrete Operational

52.

Piaget's concrete operational stage is from ages __ to __.

a)

7 to 12

b)

8 to 10

c)

4 to 6

d)

12 to 14

53.

During Piaget's ____ stage, a child can understand the world through sensory experiences and physical interactions with objects.

a)

sensorimotor

b)

concrete operational

c)

formal operational

d)

preoperational

54.

The term "object permanence" refers to which of the following?

a)

understanding that objects continue to exist even when they can no longer be seen

b)

internal framework that guides interaction with the world

c)

genetically programmed biological process that governs growth of bodies and motor skills during infancy and childhood

d)

brain builds schemas to achieve understanding

55.

During the preoperational stage of Piaget's Stage Theory, a child's thinking reflects ____.

a)

collectivism

b)

egocentrism

c)

individualism

d)

narcissism

56.

A child does not understand (a)   during Piaget's preoperational stage.

57.

A child is able to perform basic mental operations involving tangible problems and situations during Piaget's (a)   operational stage.

58.

Piaget's formal operation stage involves the ability to form and test (a)   .

59.

What did Vygotsky say about social interaction?

a)

social interaction can influence cognitive development within the limits of biological maturation

b)

social interaction can influence sexual development within the limits of biological maturation

c)

social interaction can influence physical development within the limits of biological maturation

60.

The "zone of proximal development", or ZPD, refers to which of the following?

a)

what a child can do with assistance

b)

what a child can do independently

61.

Processing speed, (a)   , and response inhibition show improvements with age.

62.

True or false: Older children can retain more information, and also engage in strategies such as rehearsal.

a)

true

b)

false

63.

"Understanding other people’s mental states" is known as Theory of (a)   .

64.

"Biologically based style of behavioural and emotional reaction" refers to:

(a)  

65.

Erikson’s Psychosocial Theory includes a ' (a)   ' to be resolved at each stage.

66.

The term "imprinting" refers to:

a)

biologically primed form of attachment; involves a critical period

b)

strong emotional bond between human children and primary care givers; involves a sensitive period

67.

The phrase "strong emotional bond between human children and primary care givers; involves a sensitive period" refers to which of the following?

a)

attachment

b)

priming

c)

imprinting

68.

John Bolby's Attachment Process is composed of three parts, one of which being discriminate attachment. Which of the following is discriminate attachment?

a)

newborns – cry and vocalise towards everyone

b)

3 months of age – direct attachment behaviours towards familiar caregivers than toward strangers

c)

7-8 months of age – form meaningful attachments with primary caregivers

69.

What does SST stand for?

a)

Soft Situation Test

b)

Strange Situation Test

c)

Strange Situation Type

70.

Parenting can vary along two dimensions: warmth vs. (a)   , and restrictiveness vs. permissiveness.

71.

Treating others differently based on whether they are male or female is known as:

(a)  

72.

True or false: Kohlberg’s Stage Theory analysed responses to moral dilemmas.

a)

true

b)

false

73.

Maximum muscle strength in the legs, arms, and other parts of the body is reached at age __ to __.

a)

15 to 25

b)

25 to 30

c)

30 to 35

d)

20 to 25

74.

____ ____ includes overestimation of uniqueness of feelings and experiences (personal fable), and oversensitivity to social evaluation (imaginary audience).

a)

adolescent egocentrism

b)

adult egocentrism

c)

childhood centrism

75.

During ____-formal operational thinking, one becomes accepting of contradictions and irreconcilable differences.

a)

post

b)

pre

c)

anti

d)

pro

76.

What is meant by "the distinctive and relatively enduring ways of thinking, feeling, and acting, that characterize a person’s responses to life situations"?

(a)  

77.

Which is a key element of psychodynamic theory?

a)

interplay of inner forces that often conflict with one another

b)

perceived internal cause

c)

components of identity

78.

Freud's (a)   is defined as: "a form of psychological therapy that treats mental disorders by examining the interaction of conscious and unconscious forces".

79.

Conversion hysteria is when physical symptoms appear without a (a)   cause.

80.

Psychic energy is generated by ____ drives.

a)

biological

b)

instinctual

c)

spiritual

d)

psychological

81.

True or false: As part of the psychodynamic perspective, we are unaware of our preconscious mental events and we can recall them.

a)

true

b)

false

82.

The ____ is the source of all psychic energy.

a)

id

b)

ego

c)

superego

d)

hippocampus

83.

The id functions according to the pleasure principle. Which of the following describes the pleasure principle?

a)

seeks immediate gratification or release, regardless of rational considerations and environmental realities

b)

testing reality to define when impulses can be safely discharged

84.

The ego imparts self-control and ____ gratification.

a)

delays

b)

prioritizes

c)

removes

85.

The ____ is the last personality structure to develop.

a)

id

b)

ego

c)

superego

86.

The (a)   is the repository for the values and ideals of society.

87.

____ ____ are 'weapons of the ego'. Commonly referred to as coping mechanisms, they are distortions of reality that operate unconsciously and cause maladaptive behaviour.

(a)  

88.

____ ____ is a series of stages that focus on specific pleasure-sensitive areas of the body, known as erogenous zones.

(a)  

89.

The definition "arrested development (plateau) where instincts focus on a particular area" refers to:

(a)  

90.

A fixation at the oral stage of psychosexual development would result in an individual seeking (a)   stimulation, such as eating, smoking, or drinking.

91.

A fixation at the (a)   stage of psychosexual development would result in an individual developing either an anal-retentive or an anal-expulsive personality.

92.

A fixation at the (a)   stage of psychosexual development would result in an individual being stuck in an Oedipus/Electra complex.

93.

A key task at the (a)   stage of psychosexual development is developing social relationships.

94.

The Oedipus/Electra complex involves a desire for sexual involvement with the parent of the (1) sex and a concomitant sense of rivalry with the parent of the (2) sex.

a)

1: opposite, 2: same

b)

1: same, 2: opposite

95.

Alfred Adler placed ____ ____ above personal interests.

(a)  

96.

At the top of Maslow's hierarchy of needs, ____ is the total realization of one’s human potential.

a)

esteem

b)

self-actualization

c)

safety

d)

love/belonging

97.

In George Kelly's Personal Construct Theory, a personal construct is a(n):

a)

cognitive category which sorts the people and events in an individual's life

b)

unconscious fear

c)

manifestation of the reality principle

98.

To George Kelly, ____ ____ are the primary basis for individual differences in personality.

(a)  

99.

George Kelly developed (a)   -role therapy, which encourages the client to enact a new role in order to try out alternative views of the self and the world.

100.

Complete the following statement: "Sigmund Freud is to Carl Rogers as..."

a)

...psychodynamic is to humanistic."

b)

...humanistic is to psychodynamic."

101.

Carl Rogers’ (a)   Theory involves responses to our immediate conscious experience of self and environment from within.

102.

In Self Theory, congruence is defined as which of the following?

a)

consistent set of perceptions & beliefs about oneself

b)

consistency between self-perceptions & experience

c)

consistency among ‘self-perceptions’

103.

In Self Theory, (a)   arises when an experience is inconsistent with self-concept.

104.

According to Carl Rogers, an anxious but healthy individual will _________ to alleviate the anxiety.

a)

modify their self-concept

b)

distort reality

105.

____ is when an individual will deny or distort reality to be consistent with their self-concept.

a)

maladjustment

b)

healthy adjustment

c)

short adjustment

106.

Self- (a)   is how positively or negatively we feel about ourselves.

107.

Clear guidelines for behavior ____ self-esteem.

a)

foster

b)

lower

108.

Conditions of (a)   are the conditions we think we must meet in order for other people to accept us as worthy of their love or positive regard.

109.

Those who practice ____-____ have a strong tendency to gain & preserve positive self-image.

a)

self-verification

b)

self-enhancement

c)

mah-jongg

110.

Gender (a)   are organized mental structures that contain our understanding of the attributes and behaviors that are 'typically' appropriate for males & females.

111.

(a)   analysis involves finding correlations among behaviours.

112.

Cattell's Sixteen Personality Factors involves the use of which of the following?

a)

factor analysis

b)

psychoanalysis

c)

self-verification

113.

True or false: Eysenck's Extraversion-Stability Model requires four dimensions.

a)

true

b)

false

114.

The Five Factor Model has an associated mnemonic. What is it?

a)

SOAPY

b)

FROGS

c)

OCEAN

d)

BREAD

115.

What does the mnemonic "OCEAN" stand for?

a)

openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, neuroticism

b)

only Carl eats apple nougat

c)

onii-chan envelopes all nicety

d)

openness,

conscientiousness,

extravagance,

agreeableness,

naughtiness

116.

Traits tend to be stable across situations, while (a)   tends to show little stability.

117.

In _________ theories, behaviour is not explained by external or internal factors alone.

a)

social cognitive

b)

psychoanalytic

c)

humanistic

118.

Which of the following refers to reciprocal determinism?

a)

individual, behavior, and environment are linked

b)

focused attention on value of identifying & measuring personality dispositions

c)

description vs. explanation

119.

____ ____ theorized that behaviour is governed by two factors: expectancy and reinforcement.

a)

Alfred Adler

b)

Sigmund Freud

c)

Julian Rotter

d)

Hans Eysenck

e)

Alan Watts

120.

Julian Rotter coined the (a)   of control.

121.

____ ____ is known for human agency/active agents and Canadian sausage.

a)

Albert Bandura

b)

Sigmund Freud

c)

Alfred Adler

d)

The A&W Guy

122.

Self- (a)   is defined as a person's beliefs concerning their ability to perform the behaviors needed to achieve desired outcomes.

123.

Who is known for the "Consistency Paradox"?

a)

Walter Mischel

b)

Albert Bandura

c)

Alfred Adler

d)

Isaac Newton

124.

What does CAPS stand for?

a)

Cats Are Pretty Swanky

b)

Cognitive Affective Personality System

c)

Cognitive Affective Personality Spectrum

d)

Cognitive Assessment of Personality and Stability

125.

If... then... behaviour consistencies are which mnemonic?

a)

CAPS

b)

OCEAN

c)

CATS

d)

BEDMAS

126.

Which inventory measures attitudes, emotions, behaviour, symptoms and life history?

a)

NEO-PI

b)

MMPI-2

c)

MNPI-2

127.

Who famously shows an extreme psychopathic deviation on their MMPI profile?

a)

Alfred Adler

b)

Jeffrey Dahmer

c)

Oliver Sacks

d)

Joe Goldberg

128.

What kind of test is the Rorschach?

(a)  

129.

Fundamental ____ error involves underestimating the impact of situational factors and overestimating the role of personal factors.

a)

personality

b)

attribution

c)

scale

d)

analysis

130.

Which term refers to individuals giving more personal attributions for their successes and more situational attributions for their failures?

a)

self-efficacy

b)

self-serving bias

c)

self-infringement

d)

self esteem

131.

The (a)   effect involves attaching more importance to initial information.

132.

The (a)   effect is the opposite of the primary effect.

133.

Which of the following definitions refers to self-fulfilling prophecies?

a)

judgments about causes of our own and other people’s behaviour and outcomes

b)

generalized beliefs about group or category

c)

expectations affect behaviour toward others, causing expected behaviors that confirm expectations

d)

mental frameworks that organize and interpret information

134.

Social facilitation is the increased tendency to perform one's dominant response in the presence of others. When a given task is difficult, the response is typically:

a)

correct

b)

incorrect

135.

____ ____ are sets of norms that characterize how people in a social position should behave.

(a)  

136.

____ is the adjustment of individual behaviours, attitudes, and beliefs to a group standard.

a)

regulation

b)

conformity

c)

obedience

137.

What is the loss of individuality that leads to disinhibited behaviour?

a)

deindividuation

b)

social loafing

c)

dissenting

138.

What is the tendency of group members to suspend critical thinking because they are striving to seek agreement?

(a)  

139.

According to the mere exposure effect, repeated exposure to a stimulus ____ our liking for it.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

140.

The ____ effect is when individuals have a partner whose physical attractiveness is similar to their own.

a)

matching

b)

discrepancy

c)

attraction

d)

nicety

141.

Being rewarded with companionship at the cost of arguments is an example of which theory?

a)

social exchange

b)

social deviation

c)

similarity-attraction

142.

Companionate love is characterized by affection and a deep caring for others’ well-being, while (a)   love is associated with intense emotion, arousal, and yearning.

143.

The (a)   theory of love involves three factors: intimacy, passion, and commitment.

144.

(a)   is a negative attitude toward people based on their membership in a group.

145.

Treating people unfairly based on the group to which they belong is called (a)   .

146.

In-group favoritism & out-group derogation (us-them thinking) is referred to as (a)   .

147.

In Realistic Conflict Theory, (a)   fosters prejudice.

148.

True or false: In Social Identity Theory, prejudice stems from a need to enhance self-esteem.

(a)  

149.

In (a)   selection, individuals are more likely to help others with which they share the most genes.

150.

The Empathy-Altruism Hypothesis states that empathy ____ altruism.

a)

mitigates

b)

produces

151.

True or false: the Negative State Relief Model dictates that high levels of empathy induce relaxation in an individual when others suffer.

a)

true

b)

false

152.

The perception that some people get what they deserve is an example of which hypothesis?

a)

just-world

b)

empathy-altruism

c)

negative state relief

153.

Deficient frontal lobe activity is associated with increased ____.

a)

aggression

b)

yearning

c)

empathy

154.

Aggressive behaviour discharging aggressive energy is an example of the Principle of (a)   .

155.

Over-controlled (a)   causes little immediate reactions to provocation, but eventually leads to an eruption of violence.

156.

What are the three D's of social construct used to determine whether or not a behaviour is abnormal?

a)

distress, dysfunction, and deviance

b)

distress, dysfunction, and dalliance

c)

dance, dive, and decapitate

157.

True or false: Under the Diathesis-Stress Model, each of us has some degree (range) of vulnerability for developing a psychological disorder, given sufficient stress.

a)

true

b)

false

158.

In (a)   disorders, the frequency & intensity of responses are out of proportion to given situations.

159.

GAD is a state of diffuse, 'free-floating' anxiety. What does GAD stand for?

a)

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

b)

General Anesthesia Dysfunction

c)

Grandiose Anxiety Delusions

160.

(a)   Disorder is characterized by sudden, unpredictable, and intense panic attacks.

161.

Hoarding can result from which of the following disorders?

a)

OCD

b)

GAD

c)

Panic Disorder

d)

APD

162.

A psychodynamic explanation for the ____ associated with OCD is the undoing of unacceptable urges.

a)

compulsions

b)

panic

c)

obsessions

163.

True or false: Anxiety can be a learned response.

a)

true

b)

false

164.

(a)   disorder has a stronger genetic component than depression.

165.

____ disorders disrupt behavioural consistency.

a)

dissociative

b)

associative

166.

Dissociative fugue can be described as a '____ ____'.

(a)  

167.

Schizophrenia is associated with delusions and hallucinations. Delusions are false __1__ and hallucinations are false __2__.

a)

1: beliefs, 2: perceptions

b)

1: perceptions, 2: beliefs

c)

1: diagnoses, 2: disorders

d)

1: emotions, 2: behaviours

168.

(a)   schizophrenia is characterized by confusion and incoherence.

169.

(a)   schizophrenia is characterized by delusions of persecution.

170.

Catatonic schizophrenia is characterized by which of the following?

a)

delusions of persecution

b)

confusion, incoherence

c)

severe motor disturbances

171.

Undifferentiated schizophrenia is characterized by which of the following?

a)

delusions of persecution

b)

confusion, incoherence

c)

severe motor disturbances

d)

undifferentiated schizophrenia is not easily classified

172.

Schizophrenia Type I is characterized by positive symptoms. What do these symptoms include?

a)

changes in behaviour

b)

delusions, hallucinations, disordered speech and thought

c)

lack of emotion

d)

lack of motivation

173.

Schizophrenia Type II is characterized by negative symptoms. What do these symptoms include?

a)

added pathological extremes

b)

lack of motivation

c)

absence of normal reactions

d)

reduced expression

174.

Antipsychotic drugs used for schizophrenia ____ dopamine activity.

a)

increase

b)

decrease

175.

In the Social ____ Hypothesis, deteriorating functions causes movement down the socioeconomic ladder.

a)

Drift

b)

Droop

c)

Dive

d)

Lowering

176.

How many personality disorders are in the DSM-5?

a)

seven

b)

two

c)

six

d)

five

177.

Freud would suggest that an individual with Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD) lacks a(n):

a)

id

b)

superego

c)

ego

d)

conscience

178.

(a)   Personality Disorder is often characterized by alternating between extreme love and extreme hate.

179.

Up to ____ percent of North American children have been diagnosed with ADHD.

a)

ten

b)

thirty

c)

twenty

d)

five

180.

Approximately ____ percent of children diagnosed with Autistic Spectrum Disorder are boys.

a)

ten

b)

eighty

c)

ninety

d)

fifty

181.

(a)   dementia is dementia that presents after age 65.

182.

(a)   transference is characterized by feelings of affection, dependency, and love.

183.

(a)   therapy aims to make a client "whole" again.

184.

Identifying beliefs, ideas, and self-statements that trigger maladaptive behaviors and emotions is part of which kind of therapy?

a)

Gestalt

b)

Cognitive

c)

Psychodynamic

d)

Psychoanalytic

185.

Ellis and Beck are both associated with which type of therapy?

a)

Gestalt

b)

Psychodynamic

c)

Cognitive