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BioChem 1360: Unit 3

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The ___ ____ allows multicellular organisms to grow and divide; single-celled organisms to reproduce

(a)  

2.

TRUE or FALSE: All multicellular organisms use cell division for growth and the maintenance and repair of cells and tissues

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

3.

Somatic (Body) Cells...

a)

are any normal body cells of an organism that is not involved in reproduction

b)

divides from chromatin

c)

divides regularly

d)

contains 2 copies of each of their chromosomes (1 from each parent)

4.

TRUE or FALSE: The cell cycle is an ordered series of events that involve cell growth and cell division that produces 2 new daughter cells

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

5.

What is the correct order to the Cell Cycle?

1. Cell Division

2. Cell Growth

3. DNA Replication

a)

3, 2, 1

b)

1, 3, 2

c)

2, 3, 1

d)

1, 2, 3

6.

Which stage of the cell cycle produces 2 identical cells?

a)

Cell Growth

b)

DNA Replication

c)

Cell Division

7.

What are the 2 major phases of the cell cycle?

a)

Mitotic Phase

b)

G Phase

c)

S phase

d)

Interphase

8.

(a)   is the phase that cells can grow and DNA is replicated

9.

(a)   is the phase that replicated DNA and cytoplasmic contents are separated and the cell divides

10.

Genomes...

a)

consists of its entire complement of DNA

b)

the cells complete genetic information

c)

encodes the genes that control the organisms charateristics

d)

packaged as double-stranded DNA

11.

How many chromosomes does the human body have?

a)

32

b)

23

c)

12

d)

46

12.

(a)   is a structure in the nucleus that contains DNA and proteins

13.

(a)   (sperm/eggs) are sex cells and only have 23 chromosomes each

14.

TRUE or FALSE: A somatic cell has 2 matched sets of chromosomes (diploids)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

15.

What is n used to represent?

2n = diploid

1n = haploid

a)

the number of genes

b)

the number of chromosomes

c)

the number of daughter cells

d)

the number of cells

16.

TRUE or FALSE: Matched pairs of chromosomes in a diploid organism is called heterozygous chromosomes

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

17.

Homologous chromosomes...

a)

have the same length

b)

have specific nucleotide segments

c)

not identical

d)

X and Y chromosomes have different genes associated with them

18.

TRUE or FALSE: DNA replication is semi-conservative

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

19.

___ ____ is a biological process occurring in all living organisms that is the basis for biological inheritance

(a)  

20.

____ is an enzyme that unwinds DNA helix ahead of the replication machinery

a)

Topoisomerase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

Helicase

d)

Ligase

21.

The _____ is a particular sequence in a genome at which replication is initiated

a)

Origin of Replication

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

RNA Polymerase

22.

____ releases the strain caused by helicase and allows DNA to maintain its standard double helix form

a)

Helicase

b)

Primase

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

Topoisomerase

23.

Single-Stranded DNA-binding Proteins (SSB) binds to a ___ stranded region of DNA to prevent premature binding

a)

proteins

b)

double

c)

single

d)

DNA

24.

What occurs during initiation?

a)

helicase unwinds DNA

b)

a primer sequence is added

c)

the replication fork opens

d)

SSB attaches to single strands

25.

What occurs during elongation?

a)

a primer sequence is added

b)

new strands are initiated by RNA polymerase called primase

c)

DNA polymerase adds DNA nucleotides to the 3' end of the new strand

d)

the primer is added

26.

The ____ strand is made continuously while the ____ strand is made in pieces called Ozaki fragments

4 lines
27.

The (a)   strand is synthesized toward the replication fork (5' to 3')

28.

The (a)   strand is synthesized in the direction away from the replication fork and in made in pieces that is started with its own RNA primer

29.

During (a)   , primers are removed and replaced with new DNA nucleotides and the backbone is sealed by DNA ligase

30.

The unattached sections in a fully replicated DNA strand are called (a)  

31.

RNase H...

a)

adds nucleotides

b)

joins nicks

c)

removes RNA primers

d)

removes nucleotides

32.

What enzyme joins together the new nicks and completes the DNA strand

a)

helicase

b)

ligase

c)

topisomerase

d)

lipase

33.

____ helps to hold the DNA polymerase in place when nucleotides are being added

a)

DNA primer

b)

helicase

c)

sliding clamp

d)

RNA polymerase

34.

____ is the repetitive nucleotide sequences at each end of a eukaryotic chromosome that protects genes from getting deleted as cells continue to divide

a)

telomere

b)

telomerase

35.

____ is an enzyme in eukaryotic cells that add a specific sequence of DNA to the telomeres of chromosomes after they divide, giving the chromosomes stability over time

a)

telomeres

b)

telomerase

36.

TRUE or FALSE: most mistakes during replication are corrected by DNA polymerase during replication or by post-replication repair mechanisms

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

37.

TRUE or FALSE: DNA polymerase has the ability to proofread sequences

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

38.

What enzyme cuts off the wrong base?

a)

exonuclease

b)

endonuclease

c)

lesions

d)

mutations

39.

Mismatch repair is a system for recognizing and repairing some forms of DNA damage... what is NOT a type of damages?

a)

wrong insertion

b)

deletion

c)

misincorporation

d)

recombination

40.

(a)   excision repair removes incorrect bases with surrounding bases which are replaced with the correct bases with the help of DNA polymerase and the template DNA

41.

(a)   are unrepaired mutations that come from copying errors, chemical or environmental factors

42.

(a)   is an alteration that can be induced or spontaneous.

43.

TRUE or FALSE: Prometaphase is the missing stage of mitosis in which chromosomes continue to condense, kinetochores appear at centromeres, and spindle fibers move toward opposite poles

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

44.

Sister chromatids are either of the 2 identical strands of a chromosome that ____ during mitosis

a)

increase

b)

separate

c)

combine

d)

remove

45.

During this phase of mitosis, the nucleus disappears, spindle fibers form, and DNA condenses into chromosomes

a)

Telophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Prometaphase

46.

During this phase of mitosis, the spindle fibers are fully developed and centromeres are at opposite poles of the cell, chromosomes are lined up in the middle, and each sister chromatid is attached to a spindle fiber

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

47.

During this phase of mitosis, chromosomes get to the opposite poles and begin to decondense, the nuclear membrane surrounds each set of chromosomes, and spindle fibers breakdown

a)

Anaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Prometaphase

d)

Metaphase

48.

What happens to sister chromatids in mitosis?

a)

separate into the daughter cells and become chromosomes

b)

stay joined at the centromere

c)

forms 4 new haploid gametes

49.

What happens to sister chromatids during meiosis?

a)

stay joined at the centromere

b)

separate into daughter cells

c)

separate and form 4 new haploid gametes

50.

What happens to homologous pairs in mitosis?

a)

undergoes cellular division

b)

becomes associated with each other and are bonded together (cross over)

c)

lines up in the middle

51.

What happens to homologous pairs in meiosis?

a)

becomes associated with each other and are bonded together (cross over)

b)

undergoes cellular division

c)

lines up in the middle

52.

What is NOT one of the main differences between Mitosis and Meiosis?

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis forms 2 diploid cells

c)

Meiosis forms 4 haploid cells

d)

Meiosis undergoes division twice

53.

TRUE or FALSE: in Anaphase II the sister chromatids are pulled apart

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

54.

TRUE or FALSE: In Prophase II, the sister chromatids condense and new spindle fibers begin to form

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

55.

TRUE or FALSE: In Telophase I and Cytokinesis, results in each cell having one duplicated copy of each homologous chromosome pair

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

56.

TRUE or FALSE: Meiosis and sexual reproduction increase population diversity which is necessary for natural selection

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

57.

(a)   is the study of heredity

58.

A good model organism...

a)

matures quickly

b)

easily manipulated

c)

short life span

d)

produces a large number of offspring

59.

(a)   is an organisms underlying genetic makeup, consisting of both physically visible and non-expressed alleles

60.

(a)   is an organisms observable traits or functions as determined by genes

61.

(a)   traits are those that are inherited unchanged in a hybridization

62.

(a)   traits are those that are latent in offspring of hybridization but is able to reappear in later offspring

63.

(a)   are organisms with identical alleles

(RR/rr)

64.

(a)   are organisms with different alleles

(Rr)

65.

____ consistently produces identical offspring

a)

True-Breeding

b)

Cross

c)

Hybridization

d)

2 Ply Wood

66.

____ is controlled mating

a)

Cross

b)

True-Breeding

c)

Particles

d)

Hybridization

67.

_____ is crossing 2 true-breeding individuals with different traits

a)

Hybridization

b)

Cross

c)

True-Breeding

68.

A monohybrid cross is an example of which generation?

a)

Parent

b)

F1

c)

F2

69.

A Hybrid Cross is an example of which generation?

a)

F2

b)

Parent

c)

F1

70.

A Test Cross uses ____ to uncover the genotype of other parent

a)

dominant allele

b)

dominant parent

c)

recessive parent

d)

recessive allele

71.

Two Trait Inheritance is a ____

a)

recessive

b)

dihybrid cross

c)

monohybrid cross

d)

cross over

72.

Which type of Punnett Square produces a 9:3:3:1 ratio?

a)

Test Cross

b)

Hybrid Cross

c)

Monohybrid Cross

d)

Dihybrid Cross

73.

Which type of Punnet Square produces a 3:1 ratio?

a)

Hybridization

b)

Test Cross

c)

Monohybrid

d)

Dihybrid

74.

(a)   is any chromosome that is not a sex chromosome

75.

TRUE or FALSE: Defects will only be heritable if it occurs in the germline

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

76.

(a)   are family trees

77.

What type of pedigree is this>

a)

Autosomal Recessive

b)

Autosomal Dominant

c)

X-Linked

d)

Sex-Linked

78.

Autosomal Recessive...

a)

both sexes involved

b)

skips generations

c)

mother is a carrier if passed down to her son

d)

father will most likely pass it down

79.

X-Linked...

a)

Mother is a carrier

b)

Males are more likely to have it

c)

Y chromosome cannot protect it

80.

Incomplete Dominance...

a)

when the heterozygote has an intermediate appearance

b)

F1 gen. is able to reproduce offspring with all alleles

c)

1 Dominant, 1 Recessive, 2 Blended

d)

1:2:1

81.

Codominance...

a)

alleles are equally dominant

b)

both traits are showed

c)

phenotype reveals genotype

d)

genotype reveals phenotype

82.

Epistasis...

a)

a gene with 2 or more alleles

b)

one genes can control the expression of others

c)

occurs when combinatorial interactions among genes are antigonistic

d)

a group of non-allelic genes

83.

The genetic code...

a)

have base pairs

b)

consists of codons

c)

is universal

d)

used by ALL living organisms

84.

(a)   are groups of 3 bases and each stand for 1 amino acid

85.

What is the reading frame?

4 lines
86.

What are the components of the central dogma?

a)

Transcription

b)

RNA Replication

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Translation

87.

(a)   are specific DNA sequences that identify the beginning of genes

88.

The Coding Strand...

a)

is the nontemplate strand

b)

has the same sequence as the RNA transcript

c)

U replaces T

d)

requires primers

89.

RNA Polymerase...

a)

does not require primers

b)

uses DNA template to form mRNA

c)

used in DNA transcription

d)

copies DNA sequences to RNA sequence

90.

The Template Strand...

a)

the non-coding strand

b)

complementary to both the coding strand and RNA transcript

c)

adds bases from 3' to 5'

d)

is fully replicated before transcription

91.

DNA polymerase...

a)

requires primers

b)

uses DNA to make 2 identical DNA molecules

c)

used in replication

d)

DNA repair and proofreading

92.

What does the 5' cap and Poly(A) tail do for mRNA processing?

4 lines
93.

Introns are

a)

removed

b)

kept

94.

Exons are...

a)

kept

b)

removed

95.

Why is splicing necessary?

4 lines
96.

Why is the 3rd codon position less important than the first 2?

4 lines
97.

(a)   is the small molecule that participates in Protein Synthesis... it brings amino acids

98.

How does ribosome know where to start and stop translation?

4 lines
99.

TRUE or FALSE: All mutations are harmful

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

100.

(a)   helps translate the mRNA to protein

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