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REVISION UPS 2

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Where the better adapted organisms survive to pass traits along to offspring.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artifical Selection
2.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
3.

The primary difference natural and artificial selection is

a)

In nature selection the “pressure” comes from the environment; In artificial selection the “pressure” comes from humans (or another species).

b)

In artificial selection the “pressure” comes from the environment; In natural selection the “pressure” comes from humans (or another species).

c)

Natural selections is when humans breed the animal; Artificial selection is when humans direct genes directly.

d)

They are different terms for the same concept.

4.
The trees these moths used to live on were white, but have been covered in soot from coal factories. Which moth will be more successful in this environment?
a)
Dark moth
b)
Light moth
c)
Both will be equally successful
d)
Neither will be successful
5.

Only a few types of a particular bird species diverge after a small number colonises a new island. This mechanism is called

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

the founder effect

d)

disruptive selection

6.
A flash flood carried a raft of Amazon ants away from their original population. There is enough distance between the two groups, that they will never meet in nature again. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
temporal isolation 
c)
gametic isolation
d)
geographic isolation 
7.
The flowers of pink tulips open in the morning, while the flowers of lavender tulips open in the early afternoon. The bees that pollinate these tulips cannot carry pollen back & forth between the two types of tulips because of their flowers being closed at different times of day. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
8.
Scientist have created larger and sweeter strawberries for humans to consume (eat). What process was used?
a)
Natural Selection 
b)
Artificial Selection 
c)
Cellular Respiration 
d)
Environmental Natural Selection 
9.

Over the years, white mice became extinct and darker mice survived. This is

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

due to exercise

10.

What type of natural selection is this?

a)

Disruptive Selection

b)

Directional Selection

c)

Stabilizing Selection

d)

Natural Selection

11.
Some female peacocks prefer males with large, colorful tales while other female peacocks prefer males with no tail at all. Females are beginning to only mate with the type of males with the tail they prefer. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
12.
Where do substrates bind on an enzyme?
a)
voltage-gated channels
b)
surface receptor
c)
calcium channels
d)
active site
13.

What are the enzymes called when they are at high temperature or extreme pH?

a)

denatured

b)

Killed

c)

inactive

d)

normal

14.
Which factors can change the shape of an enzyme and thus denatures a enzyme?
a)
Excessive heat and changes in pH
b)
Nothing can
c)
Exposure to light and sound
d)
Exposure to bacteria and Amoebas
15.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
16.

Enzymes function as catalysts because they

a)

Increase the free energy of a chemical reaction

b)

Lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction

c)

Decrease the enthalpy of a chemical reaction

d)

Supply the energy to start a chemical reaction

17.

In the lock and key hypothesis, the lock is

a)

The enzyme

b)

The substrate

c)

The enzyme-substrate complex

d)

The enzyme-product complex

18.

Cofactors for enzyme are

a)

The protein substance

b)

The inorganic substance

c)

The protein and non-protein substances

d)

The non-protein substance

19.

How does an enzyme increase the rate of reaction?

a)

By shifting the equilibrium point of reaction

b)

By supplying the energy required to start the reaction

c)

By increasing the rate of random collision of molecules

d)

By bringing the reactant molecules to the correct orientation

20.

Which class of enzyme catalyses the formation of bonds between two molecules using energy derived from the hydrolysis of ATP?

a)

Oxidoreductases

b)

Hydrolases

c)

Ligases

d)

Transferases

21.

Transferases are enzymes that

a)

Split chemical bonds by hydrolysis

b)

Catalyse the transfer of an atom or group of atoms from one substrate to another

c)

Rearrange atoms in a substrate

d)

Form bonds with cleavage of ATP

22.

Increasing the substrate concentration in an enzymatic reaction could overcome which of the following?

a)

Allosteric inhibition

b)

Insufficient cofactors

c)

Competitive inhibition

d)

Denaturation of the enzyme

23.

Malonic acid could inhibit the action of succinic dehydrogenase on succinic acid because

a)

Malonic acid could react with succinic acid

b)

Malonic acid could bind at the active site of succinic dehydrogenase

c)

Succinic acid could bind at the active site of succinic dehydrogenase

d)

Succinic acid could not bind at the active site of succinic dehydrogenase

24.

Which of the following is the subtrate?

a)

A, only

b)

E, only

c)

A and E

d)

B,C,D

25.

Which of the following descriptions best describes an induced fit?

a)

the active site alters shape such that it is ready to accept a substrate.

b)

a substrate binds to an active site and alters the shape of the active site.

c)

an active site alters the shape of the substrate such that it can adopt the necessary active conformation for binding.

26.

Watch the animation and identify the hypothesis involved

a)

Lock and Key hypothesis

b)

Induced Fit hypothesis

c)

Enzyme-Substrate hypothesis

27.

NAD+ is the example of

a)

metal ions

b)

coenzyme

c)

prosthetic group

28.

Some people cannot digest milk products because they lack a specific enzyme. Which enzyme would be used to break down the lactose in milk?

a)

catalase

b)

maltase

c)

lactase

d)

amylase

29.

The line on the graph labeled A represents the:

a)

activation energy with an enzyme

b)

activation energy without an enzyme

c)

free energy of the reactants

d)

change in entropy and enthalpy

30.

Only a small amount of enzyme is needed for a large amount of substrate because _______

a)

Enzymes do not change at the end of a reaction and as such can be reused

b)

A small amount of enzyme can provide enough energy to continue the reaction

c)

More enzymes are formed while reaction takes place

d)

Enzymes act till completion of a reaction or not at all

31.

State the function of X

a)

Binding site of substrate

b)

Binding site of cofactor

c)

Binding site of reactant

d)

Binding site of inhibitor

32.

What happens during aerobic respiration?

a)

Oxygen is produced.

b)

Glucose is produced.

c)

Lactic acid and oxygen are produced.

d)

ATP, water and carbon dioxide are produced.

33.

What product of fermentation causes muscle cramps?

a)

C02

b)

glucose

c)

yeast

d)

lactic acid

34.

The process of fermentation happens ...

a)

whenever a plant receives direct sunlight.

b)

when there is too much glucose for aerobic respiration.

c)

whenever the muscles need more acid.

d)

when there isn’t enough oxygen for aerobic respiration.

35.
Where does glycolysis take place in cells?
a)

Cytosol

b)
Mitochondrion
c)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
d)
Ribosomes
36.
The first step of glycolysis results in the formation of:
a)
Glucose-6-Phosphate
b)
Fructose-6-Phosphate
c)
ATP
d)
1,6 Bis-PhosphoGlycerate
37.
Glycolysis results in the net gain of:
a)
2 ATP
b)
4 ATP
c)
4 NADH
d)
2 Acetyl CoA
38.
Which is not part of the net products of Glycolysis?
a)
2 ATP
b)
2 NADH
c)
2 Pyruvate
d)
2 CO2
39.
In the final step of glycolysis ATP is made through the process of:
a)
Substrate Level Phosphorylation
b)
Oxidative Phosphorylation
c)
Photo-Phosphorylation
d)
RedOx Reactions
40.
NADH is produced by the oxidation of:
a)

glyceraldehyde3-phosphate (3G3P)

b)

dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)

c)

phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)

d)

1,3-bisphosphoglycerate (1,3 BPG)

41.

Which enzyme adds a phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate?

a)

PhosphofructoKinase

b)
Hexokinase
c)
Aldolase
d)
Pyruvate Kinase
42.
Which molecule is an isomer of Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate (G3P)?
a)

dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)

b)

phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)

c)

Pyruvic Acid (pyruvate)

d)

1,3-bisphosphoglycerate (1,3 BPG)

43.
What is the function of NAD+?
a)
It absorbs light
b)
It is an electron carrier
c)
It is a light-reflecting pigment
d)
It acts as long-term energy storage
44.

In which step, FADH2 produced?

a)

Step 1: Condensation

b)

Step 6: Oxidation

c)

Step 2: Isomerization

d)

Step 8: Oxidation

45.

What is decarboxylation?

a)

Removal of water

b)

Removal of CO2

c)

Addition of CO2

d)

Addition of water

46.

How many C atoms does acetyl CoA contain?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

47.

The products of the link reaction are

a)

pyruvate and carbon dioxide

b)

carbon dioxide and co-enzyme A

c)

carbon dioxide, acetyl coA and NADH

d)

NADH and carbon dioxide

48.

Krebs Cycle takes place in the:

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Mitochondrial Matrix

c)

Ribsome

d)

InterMembrane Space

49.

The number of ATP molecules produced out of Krebs Cycle for 1 molecule of glucose is:

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

0

50.

How many NADH molecules are produced by a molecule of glucose through the Krebs' Cycle for 1 molecule of glucose?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

51.
How many CO2 molecules are produced by the Krebs Cycle for a molecule of glucose?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
6
d)
3
52.
After the Krebs Cycle only a small portion of the energy of glucose has been converted to ATP. At this point the majority of usable energy is contained in
a)
NADH and FADH2
b)
Carbon Dioxide 
c)
Acetyl-CoA
d)
Citrate
53.

Hydrogen ions are pumped from the __________ to the ___________.

a)

matrix; intermembrane space

b)

intermembrane space; matrix

c)

matrix; cytoplasm

d)

intermembrane; cytoplasm

54.

The final electron acceptor in electron transport chain is

a)

NAD+

b)

FAD

c)

Oxygen

d)

Water

55.

How many ATP produced for each NADH that enter the electron transport chain from Kreb's cycle?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

56.

How many ATP produced for each FADH2 that enter the electron transport chain from Kreb's cycle?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

57.

Which of the following is an electron donor for Complex II in electron transport chain?

a)

NAD+

b)

FADH2

c)

NADH

d)

FAD

58.

This process uses NADH and FADH2 to produce ATP

a)

fermentation

b)

glycolysis

c)

krebs cycle

d)

oxidative phosphorylation

59.

How many ATP molecules are produced during complete breakdown of glucose in a liver cell?

a)

34

b)

36

c)

38

d)

39

60.

6CO2 + 6H2O ® C6H12O6 + 6O2

This chemical equation describes:

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Glycolysis

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Photolysis

e)

Electron Transport Chain

61.

Where does dark reaction or light independent specifically occur?

a)

thylakoid membrane

b)

Stroma of the chloroplast

c)

Grana

d)

nuclear membrane

62.

Where does light dependent specifically occur?

a)

thylakoid membrane of the grana

b)

Stroma of the chloroplast

c)

mitochondria

d)

nuclear membrane

63.

What is NOT the product of light dependent reaction?

a)

ATP

b)

NADPH

c)

H2O

d)

O2

64.

Which of the following statements does not describe Light independent reaction?

a)

aka Calvin cycle

b)

Produce ATP and NADPH

c)

Produce glucose

d)

Occur in the stroma of the chloroplast

e)

Use ATP and NADPH for the reaction

65.
What is the main purpose of the light dependent reactions?
a)
To provide the energy for the calvin cycle
b)
To capture energy and make sugar
c)
To reflect green light
d)
To make sugars
66.
What are the two products of the light reactions that are needed for the calvin cycle?
a)
NAD and NADPH
b)
NADP + and Glucose
c)
NADPH and ATP
d)
Oxygen and NADPH
67.

Match the reaction center in PSI & PSII with its name (More Than ONE answer)

a)

PSI is named P700

b)

PSI is named P680

c)

PSII is named P700

d)

PSII is named P680

68.
What supplies the electrons that are lost in photosystem I (PSI)?
a)
the electrons from PS II
b)
water
c)
glucose
d)
oxygen
69.
What is the purpose of splitting water in PS2 of the light dependent reaction?
a)
Provides e- for PS2 and H+ for the thylakoid space
b)
To produce Oxygen for animals
c)
There is no purpose
70.

Cyclic photophosphorylation differs from non-cyclic photophosphorylation in that _____________ is not made from the process.

a)

ATP

b)

G3P

c)

NADH

d)

NADPH

71.

5 carbon sugar that combines with CO2 in the Calvin Cycle

a)

3-PGA

b)

G3P

c)

RuBP

d)

Glucose

72.
In the Calvin Cycle, ________ and ________ from the light dependent reactions convert PGA into G3P
a)
O2, ATP
b)
CO2, H2
c)
ADP, NADPH
d)
NADPH, ATP
73.
The enzyme responsible for Carbon Fixation in C3 Photosynthesis is
a)
RuBisCo
b)
PEP Carboxylase
c)
Hexokinase
d)
Pyruvate DeHydrogenase
74.
The molecule that comes out of the Calvin Cycle to produce glucose, and polymers like cellulose is:
a)
RuBP
b)
GP3
c)
3-PG
d)
G3P

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