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Unit 2 Test Endocrine and Cardiovascular

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes the regulation of blood calcium levels?

a)

Calcitonin, from the thyroid, decreases blood calcium by stimulating bone building osteoblasts and PTH, from the parathyroid gland which increases blood calcium by causing the break down of bone tissue

b)

PTH, from the thyroid, decreases blood calcium by stimulating bone building osteoblasts and calcitonin, from the parathyroid gland which increases blood calcium by causing the break down of bone tissue

c)

Calcitonin, from the parathryoid, decreases blood calcium by stimulating bone building osteoblasts and PTH, from the thyroid gland which increases blood calcium by causing the break down of bone tissue

d)

Calcitonin, from the thyroid, increases blood calcium by stimulating bone building osteoblasts and PTH, from the parathyroid gland which decreases blood calcium by causing the break down of bone tissue

2.

Which explanation best describes the photo?

a)

the man on the left is an adult and the man on the right is a child

b)

the man on the right has ateliastism or pituitary dwarfism

c)

the man on the left has hypersecretion of growth hormone or acromegally

d)

the man on the left has hypersecretion of growth hormone or gigantism

3.

The hormone produced by the cells around the periphery of the follicles, and requiring dietary iodine to be active, is

a)

thryoid hormone

b)

parathyroid hormone

c)

calcitonin

d)

glucocorticoid

4.

Which of the following does not show a symptom of Cushings disease, or hypersecretion of ACTH from the pituitary or hypersecretion of adrenalcortico hormones?

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.

Cells with specific receptors on their surface capable of bonding to hormones and responding are

a)

Receiver cells

b)

Communicator cells

c)

Hormone chipped cells

d)

Target cells

6.

Which gland controls sleep/ wake cycles by releasing melationin and is thought to have been a “third eye” in our evolutionary past? 

a)
Hypothalamus
b)
Pituitary
c)
Pineal
d)
Lacrimal 
7.
Once you reach adulthood, this gland becomes mostly adipose tissue and still produces some immune cells:
a)
Thalamus
b)
Thymus
c)
Thyroid 
d)
Parathyroid 
8.
Which hormone does the pancreas secrete in response to a DROP in blood glucose levels? 
a)
Insulin 
b)
Trypsin
c)
Glucagon
d)
Adrenalin 
9.

The gland at the tip of the pointer is the

a)

Thyroid

b)

Pituitary

c)

Thymus

d)

Pancreas

10.

The hormone regulated by positive feedback that plays a role in "bonding" and is responsible for uterine contractions is

a)

ADH

b)

Oxytocin

c)

hGH

d)

Estrogen

11.

The hormone responsible for blood sodium concentration is

a)

ADH or antidiuretic hormone

b)

PTH or parathyroid hormone

c)

Aldosterone, a mineralcorticoid

d)

Thyroid hormone

12.

The condition when an individual experiences hyposecretion of growth hormone resulting in a small but normally proportioned body is

a)

Cretinism

b)

Addison's Syndrome

c)

Grave's disease

d)

Ateliastic or pituitary Dwarfism

13.

Which best indicates the location of the pineal gland?

a)
b)
c)
d)
14.

Which of the following hormones does not play a role in reproductive function?

a)

FSH or follicle stimulating hormone

b)

LH or lutenizing hormone

c)

gonadocorticoids

d)

ADH or antidiuretic hormone

15.

What is the best explanation for why long term stress causes an increase in colds, flu, and even cancer?

a)

Stress causes in increase in sympathetic nerve stimulation which leads to increases in glucocorticoids that suppress the immune system

b)

Stress causes an increase in mucus production leading to large colonies of bacteria and virus particles becoming trapped within the body.

c)

Sress causes a decrease in the hormones that stimulate the immune system.

d)

None of these are correct.

16.

A small amount of prolactin released just before menstruation causes

a)

a very heavy menstrual period to occur that month

b)

ovulation, the release of a mature egg cell

c)

a decrease in the amount of estrogen and progesterone present

d)

slight swelling and a few days of breast tenderness

17.

This part of the brain that links the nervous system and the endocrine system.

a)

Pancreas

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Pituitary gland

d)

Pineal gland

18.

In what scenario might your body release adrenaline?

a)

when you're waking up from a long night's sleep

b)

when there isn't enough calcium in your bloodstream

c)

when you're threatened by a schoolyard bully

d)

when you've had too much to eat

19.

Insulin causes

a)

a decrease in the concentration of blood glucose

b)

a decrease in the permeability of cell membranes to glucose

c)

an increase in the production of glucose from glycogen

d)

a release of adrenaline into the body

20.
Hormone that controls the metabolism
a)
Thyroid Hormone
b)
Parathyroid Hormone
c)
Insulin
d)
Glucagon
21.
Hormone that develops male sex characteristics
a)
Follicle Stimulating Hormone
b)
Testosterone
c)
Estrogen
d)
Glucagon
22.
The master gland of the body, secreting a large number of hormones that affect other glands, growth and development. Housed within a bony cradle deep within the skull. 
a)
Thymus
b)
Pineal
c)
Thyroid
d)
Pituitary
23.

The pituitary gland releases a hormone that stimulates the thyroid gland. This is an example of:

a)

Hormonal Stimulation

b)

Humoral Stimulation

c)

Neural Stimulation

24.

Which disorder is caused by low secretions of the adrenal gland?

a)

Cushing's

b)

Grave's

c)

Addison's

d)

Gigantism

25.

What is the condition caused by lack of insulin to break down blood sugar after a meal?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Diabetes

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Cushing's

26.

Which is the best explanation for the connection between chronic stress and illnesses including colds, flu and cancer?

a)

the lack of melatonin reduces sleep time and leads to increased illnesses

b)

chronic stress causes hypersecretion of GH which leads to acromegally which causes many different illnesses

c)

hypersecretion of glucocorticoids from the adrenal glands due to stress, suppress the immune system

d)

an increase in blood sugar due to hyposecretion of insulin from the pancreas causes the body to be more attractive to disease causing organisms

27.

This individual is most likely experiencing

a)

both hypersecretion of the thyroid gland and thyroid stimulating hormone from the pituitary

b)

hypersecretion of the thyroid gland only

c)

hypersecretion of thyroid stimulating hormone from the pituitary only

d)

either hypersecretion of thyroid stimulating hormone or thyroid hormone

28.

This gland, which is stimulated by the follicle stimulating hormone from the pituitary, is the

a)

ovary

b)

pancreas

c)

adrenal gland

d)

thymus

29.

The pituitary, also known as the master gland is comprised of 2 kinds of tissues. Which statement is correct?

a)

None of these are correct.

b)

The left is cuboidal epithelium and the right side is connective tissue.

c)

The connective tissue is on the right, pancreatic tissue is on the left.

d)

The neuronal tissue is on the right, the epithelial tissue is on the left.

30.

What is this gland?

a)

Thyroid

b)

pituitary

c)

Adrenal

d)

Cortex

31.

This component of blood, known as plasma, is 90% water and contains the plasma proteins. What percentage is it by volume?

a)

20

b)

30

c)

55

d)

60

32.
An EKG is actually
a)
A ratio
b)
An equation
c)
A time frame
d)
A graph 
33.

Which of the following is not a function of the plasma proteins?

a)

antibodies to fight diseases

b)

carriers for non-polar substances

c)

maintains osmotic balance

d)

buffers for maintaining homeostatic pH

34.

Which of the following statements are not true about erythrocytes or red blood cells (RBCs)?

a)

they are shaped like biconcave discs

b)

the diameter of a blood cell is almost equal to the diameter of the capillaries, or smallest blood vessels

c)

they can carry oxygen because they contain hemoglobin which consists of heme plus copper

d)

they have no nucleus and so they can not grow, divide, or carry out any protein synthesis

e)

they are made in the bone marrow

35.

Put the steps in order:

1. erythropoietin attaches to target cells

2. blood low in oxygen passes through the kidney

3. erythropoiesis occurs in the bone marrow

4. a hormone is released

a)

2,4,1,3

b)

3,4,2,1

c)

1,2,3,4

d)

4,2,3,1

36.

Which of the following statements are not true this blood?

a)

the elongated sickle shaped cells do not fit through the capillaries

b)

it confers immunity to the transmission of malaria

c)

it causes an early death if inherited in the homozygous form

d)

symptoms include anemia or insufficient delivery of oxygen to the tissues of the body

e)

all of the other answers are true

37.

Which of these is responsible for the lack of clotting seen in the disorder thrombocytopenia?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

38.

What is the normal proportion of these virus destroying WBCs?

a)

40-70%

b)

8-10%

c)

.05%

d)

1-4%

e)

20-30%

39.

Put the steps of hemostasis in order:

a. fibrinolysis b. clot retraction and repair

c. vascular spasms d. coagulation e. plug formation

a)

d,a,c,e,b

b)

b,e,c,d,a

c)

c, e, d, b, a

d)

e,b,c,a,d

40.

The first column is anti-serum A, the second is anti-serum B and the third is anti-serum Rh. Which would be the results for someone with O- blood?

a)
b)
c)
d)
41.

Which blood type can not be used for a transfusion into someone with B+ blood?

a)

O-

b)

AB-

c)

O+

d)

B-

42.

This WBC, which normally are the most numerous leukocytes, is a

a)

basophil

b)

eosinophil

c)

neurtophil

d)

lymphocyte

e)

monocyte

43.

Which cell type is pictured?

a)

Basophil

b)

Thrombocyte

c)

Lymphocyte

d)

Monocyte

e)

Neutrophil

44.

Which cell type is pictured?

a)

Eosinophil

b)

Thrombocyte

c)

Lymphocyte

d)

Monocyte

e)

Basophil

45.

What is the function of a thrombocyte?

a)

Functions in transport and gas exchange

b)

As a first responder, it works by phagocytosis but can also release toxic substances from its granules in order to lyse pathogenic cells

c)

Plays a major role in allergic response by producing histamine; also produces heparin to control blood clotting

d)

Helps the blood clotting process by gathering at the site of an injury, sticking to the lining of the injured blood vessel, and forming a platform on which blood coagulation can occur

e)

Produces antibodies, which target specific pathogens by binding to the antigens presented on their surfaces

46.

This cell type functions specifically to combat parasitic infections but also helps to promote inflammation and plays a role in allergic reactions

a)

Basophil

b)

T lymphocyte

c)

Eosinophil

d)

Thrombocyte

e)

Neutrophil

47.
What is NOT a possible genotype for someone with type B blood?
a)
IBIB
b)
IAIB
c)
IB i
48.

If your blood type is Rh + (such as A+) then you have _____ on your red blood cells.

a)

antibodies

b)

Rh antigens

c)

no Rh antigens

d)

multiple alleles

49.
What are the blood types of the possible children that a woman (type O) and man (type AB) can have?
a)
O and AB
b)
O and A
c)
O and B
d)
A and B
50.

What are leukocytes?

a)

red blood vessels

b)

plasma

c)

white blood cells

d)

platelest

51.

What is this leukocyte?

a)

Monocyte

b)

Basophil

c)

Band cell

d)

Lymphocyte

52.

Which is the best explanation for why feces are brown?

a)

most food in the diet is brown

b)

undigestible fiber is brown

c)

brown is a mixture of all the colors in the food that was eaten

d)

feces contain bilirubin from RBC breakdown that has been collected by the liver and secreted into the small intestine

53.

What is the cause of pernicious anemia?

a)

hemorrage

b)

incorrectly matched blood transfusion

c)

toxins, poisons, irradiation

d)

a diet low in B vitamins

54.

The smooth innner surface of the heart, the endocardium, is ______________.

a)

cardiac muscle

b)

squamous epithelial cells

c)

myocardium

d)

pericardium

55.

These structures, referred to as the "heart strings" are actually connective strands that anchor the valves called

a)

mitrals

b)

tricuspids

c)

chordae tendinae

d)

trabeculae carnae

56.

The "hole in the heart" or foramen ovale is actually

a)

a birth defect

b)

a genetic mutation

c)

a short cut for oxygenated fetal blood to move from the right side to the left side of the heart

d)

a short cut for oxygenated fetal blood to move from the left side to the right side of the heart

57.

Which of the following would not be a difference between the right side and the left side of the heart?

a)

the left side circulates blood systemically and the right side is the pulmonary circulation

b)

the left ventricle is cone shaped with thick muscular walls, the right side walls are thin and the chamber is smaller

c)

the right side has deoxygenated blood and the left has oxygenated blood

d)

all are differences

58.

Which of the following is the reason why the heart can't get "sore" from over exertion?

a)

they have a long refractory (mandatory resting) period between contractions

b)

the cardiac cells have a leaky cell membrane

c)

cardiac muscle cells can only make ATP from aerobic respiration so they can not produce lactic acid

d)

the cardiac muscle cells are involuntary

59.

Which part of the EKG reflects the electrical activity when the ventricles are depolarizing (contracting) and the atria repolarizing (relaxing)?

a)

P

b)

QRS

c)

RST

d)

T

60.

What is the most likely diagnosis of this EKG?

a)

bradycardia

b)

death

c)

ventricular fibrillation

d)

atrial fibrillation

61.

Identify the left atrium.

a)
b)
c)
d)
62.

What is a myocardial infarct?

a)

a rapid heart rate well above 75BPM

b)

a heart attack or blockage of blood flow to heart muscle tissue

c)

pain in the heart muscle

d)

blood leakage into the space between the heart and the pericardium stopping the heart from beating

63.

What does a blood pressure of 180/80 mean?

a)

180 is the pressure when the heart is resting and 80 is the pressure when the heart is beating

b)

the diastolic pressure, or pressure when the heart is resting is low

c)

both the systolic and diastolic pressures are normal

d)

the systolic pressure, or pressure when the heart is beating is high

64.

What is a heart murmer?

a)

a whispering sound blood makes as it squeezes into the aorta

b)

the sound of blood flowing through the forament ovale

c)

a whispering sound the heart makes during a heart attack

d)

the sound of block leaking backwards through a defective heart valve

65.

The blood flowing into the left atrium comes from which of the following?

a)

the head through the superior vena cava

b)

the lungs through the pulmonary veins

c)

the lungs through the pulmonary arteries

d)

the body through the inferior vena cava

66.

Where does blood go when it leaves the left ventricle?

a)

into the aorta then through systemic circulation

b)

into the aorta then through the pulmonary circulation

c)

into the pulmonary arteries to the lungs

d)

into the pulmonary veins to the lungs

67.
Capillaries are best known for ... 
a)
Connecting cells together 
b)
Connecting veins and arteries together 
c)
Moving blood away from the heart 
d)
Moving blood towards the heart 
68.

On the right side of the heart, blood flows from the right ventricle to the?

a)

Tricuspid valve to the pulmonary vein

b)

Pulmonic valve to the pulmonary artery

c)

Tricuspid valve to pulmonary artery

d)

Inferior vena cava to the aorta

69.

Which blood vessel has valves to prevent the back-flow of blood?

a)

Veins

b)

Arteries

c)

Capillaries

70.

Normal blood pressure is...

a)

120/80 mmHg and below

b)

80/120 mmHg and below

c)

140/90 mmHg and below

d)

80/140 mmHg and below

71.
1?
a)
Septum
b)
Right Pulmonary Vein
c)
Superior Vena Cava
d)
Inferior Vena Cava
72.
9?
a)
Left Ventricle
b)
Left Atrium
c)
Left Pulmonary Vein
d)
Left Pulmonary Artery
73.
7?
a)
Left Atrium
b)
Left Ventricle
c)
Aortic Valve
74.
The p-wave correlates with which event?
a)
atrium contraction /signals moving from SA node to AV node
b)
ventricle contraction
c)
ventricle repolarization
d)
both atrial and ventricle contraction
75.
The place where the electrical current starts and is considered the heart's pacemaker:
a)
Sino-atrial node 
b)
right atrium
c)
atria-ventricular node 
d)
left ventricle
76.
The t-wave correlates with which event?
a)
atrium contraction /signals moving from SA node to AV node
b)
ventricle contraction
c)
ventricle repolarization
d)
both atrial and ventricle contraction
77.
The AV node is located at...
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
78.
The Purkinje fibers are located at...
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
I
79.
The QRS-wave correlates with which event?
a)
atrium contraction /signals moving from SA node to AV node
b)
ventricle contraction
c)
ventricle repolarization
d)
both atrial and ventricle contraction
80.

If you are type A+, you can donate blood to someone who is

a)

AB +

b)

A -

c)

AB -

d)

O +

81.

Vein that empties blood from the lower body into the upper right heart chamber

a)

Inferior Vena Cava

b)

Superior Vena Cava

c)

Pulmonary Veins

d)

Aortic veins

82.

Largest artery in the body taking oxygenated blood to the body from the lower left chamber

a)

Pulmonary

b)

Radial

c)

Aorta

d)

Femoral

83.

The blood enters on the left side of the heart (from the lungs) through the ______________ and enters the left atrium. It then passes through the _____________to enter the left ventricle.

a)

pulmonary artery, mitral valve

b)

pulmonary vein, tricuspid valve

c)

pulmonary artery, aortic valve

d)

pulmonary vein, bicuspid valve

84.

Which chamber receives blood from the upper right chamber and sends blood to the lungs?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Right ventricle

c)

Left atrium

d)

Left ventricle

85.

On the right side of the heart, blood flows from the right ventricle to the?

a)

Tricuspid valve to the pulmonary vein

b)

Pulmonic valve to the pulmonary artery

c)

Tricuspid valve to pulmonary artery

d)

Inferior vena cava to the aorta

86.

What part of the heart delivers richly oxygenated blood to the body?

a)

Tricuspid Valve

b)

Superior Vena Cava

c)

Aorta

d)

Pulmonary artery

87.

What is the significance of the intercalated discs found between cardiac muscle cells but not found in skeletal muscle?

a)

The discs act as cushions between different parts of the heart.

b)

The discs pass the electrical stimulation to the cells of the heart.

c)

They are tight connections to hold cardiac cells together during contractions.

d)

The discs are the location of the mitochondria.

88.

Which of the following prevents tetanus (cramps) in cardiac muscle?

a)

The cardiac muscle cell membrane is "leaky" and allows ions to leak out preventing tetanus.

b)

A long, mandatory recovery time called the refractory period, between contractions of the cells.

c)

The lack of production of lactic acid by cardiac muscle cells.

d)

Tetanus in skeletal muscle cells is due to multiple nu

89.

Unlike skeletal muscle, "ALL or NONE" applies to the entire heart and not just the individual cardiac muscles cells because

a)

cardiac muscle cells are leaky and can initiate their own contraction

b)

skeletal muscle cells are leaky and can initiate their own contraction

c)

every single cardiac muscle cell must contract at exactly the same time

d)

in order to push blood forward, the heart must contract in a particular sequence

90.

Which statement is not true of heart sounds?

a)

A "murmur" or swishing sound happens when the valve blocks blood from passing through.

b)

Lub, the first sound, happens when the AV valves slam shut.

c)

There are two sounds for every heart contraction.

d)

Dub, the second sound, happens when the semilunar valves slam shut.

91.

Where is the best place to auscultate the mitral or bicuspid valve?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

92.

Which of the following is pain resulting from decreased oxygen flow to the heart muscle, usually caused by arteriosclerosis?

a)

tamponade

b)

angina

c)

infarction

d)

pericarditis

93.

Which of the following is not true of systole?

a)

it is the pressure in the circulatory system when the heart is contracting

b)

it is the top number of the blood pressure

c)

it fluctuates easily due to environmental effects like standing, talking or being nervous

d)

it is, on the average, 80

94.

What causes the first sound that you hear when taking blood pressure?

a)

the artery being completely closed

b)

the pressure in the artery forcing blood through a partially constricted artery

c)

the artery being completely open

d)

it is the sound of blood in the veins, not the arteries

95.

Why are widespread bacterial infections dangerous?

a)

they can clog the heart and cause a stroke

b)

they can damage a valve and cause a heart murmur

c)

they can block the ICS and stop the heart from beating

d)

bacterial infections are not dangerous

96.

Which of the following are not true of 4.?

a)

It is the contraction or depolarization of the ventricles.

b)

it is the relaxation or repolarization of the atria.

c)

it is called the P wave.

d)

it is triggered by action potentials in the purkinje fibers.

97.

When someone exercises and loses weight, how does the EKG change?

a)

1. gets flatter

b)

3. gets sharper

c)

the horizontal lines get longer

d)

two 4. peaks occur

98.

What is a dangerous and potentially fatal effect on the cardiovascular system of having a head injury?

a)

tachycardia or rapid heart rate

b)

Both tachycardia and bradycardia

c)

bradycardia or slow heart rate

d)

neither tachycardia or bradycardia

99.

What is this graph showing?

a)

"A fib"

b)

"V fib"

c)

bradycardia

d)

tamponade

100.

Fill in the blank:

It just don't get any _________ than this.

a)

louder

b)

gooder

c)

better

d)

funner