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Biol 232 Ch. 6 & Ch. 8

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

True or False: Cartilage contains blood and vessels

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Is a dense irregular connective tissue that contains blood vessels

a)

Epithelial tissue

b)

Fibrous

c)

Perichondrium

d)

Chondrocytes

3.

Appositional Growth is when cells in the perichondrium secretes matrix against _________ face of existing cartilage.

a)

Internal

b)

Superior

c)

External

d)

Bone

4.

Interstitial Growth is...?

a)

cells in perichondrium-secretes matrix against external face of existing cartilage.

b)

Chondrocytes inside cartilage divide and secrete new matrix, expanding cartilage within

c)

The growth of nails

d)

A function in which our bodies undergo to achieve maximum strength

5.

Which of the following is NOT a function of bone?

a)

Support

b)

Blood Cell Formation

c)

Strength

d)

Hormone Production

6.

Forms the framework that supports and cradles soft organs

a)

Blueprint of bones

b)

The skeleton

c)

Protection

d)

Support

7.

Provide protective case for brain, spinal cord, and vital organs.

a)

Support

b)

Bone

c)

Protection

d)

Skull, Vertebra, and Ribs

8.

What is mineral and growth factor storage?

a)

Where gold and iron is stored

b)

A storage unit to store osteons and red blood cells

c)

Mineral reservoirs like calcium and phosphorus. Growth factors are stored in bone matrix

d)

Fat or yellow bone marrow stored in shafts of long bones

9.

Hematopoiesis (blood formation) occurs in red marrow cavities of spongy bone

a)

Blood cell formation

b)

Trabeculae

c)

Dipole

d)

Vascularized

10.

Fat or yellow bone marrow stored in shafts of long bones

a)

Mineral and growth factor storage

b)

Triglyceride storage

c)

Diaphysis

d)

Fibrocartilage

11.

Bone provides osteocalcin; helps regulate insulin secretion and glucose homeostasis

a)

Hormone production

b)

Calcitonin

c)

Osteoblasts

d)

Osteoid

12.

What is compact bone?

a)

Honeycomb of trabeculae filled with red bone marrow

b)

Dense outer layer of bone, shafts of long bones. Composed of regular arrangement of lamella

c)

Double layered protective membrane of bone surface

d)

small bone

13.

What is spongy bone?

a)

Dense outer layer of bone, shafts of long bones. Composed of regular arrangement of lamella

b)

Soft bone found in the skull

c)

Honeycomb of trabeculae filled with red bone marrow

d)

Bone that is made from sponge

14.

Double layered protective membrane outer bone surface. Enriched with nerve fibers, blood, lymphatic vessels

a)

Endosteum

b)

Periosteum

c)

Perichondrium

d)

Osteogenic Layer

15.

The Fibrous layer

a)

Soft regular connective tissue (perichondrium)

b)

Dense irregular connective tissue (perichondrium)

c)

Tissue that connects fibers together

d)

A layer of fibers

16.

Composed of osteogenic cells give rise to other loose bone cells

a)

Osteoblasts

b)

Endosteum

c)

Osteogenic Layer

d)

Osteon Layer

17.

Delicate membrane covering internal surface of bone. Also has osteogenic cells

a)

Periosteum

b)

Endochondrium

c)

Endosteum

d)

Osteon

18.

Mature bone cells in bone tissue

a)

Osteon

b)

Osteoblasts

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Osteoclasts

19.

Bone forming cells. Deposits bone matrix on outer surface

a)

Osteoblasts

b)

Osteoclasts

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Osteoid

20.

Large cells resorb or break down matrix. Remove bone from inner surfaces to widen shaft

a)

Appositional Growth

b)

Osteoclasts

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Osteoid

21.

Unmineralized bone matrix composed of proteoglycans, glycoproteins, and collagen

a)

Osteocytes

b)

Osteoblasts

c)

Osteoid

d)

Mineral and growth factor storage

22.

What are the 4 organic components of bone?

a)

Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, Osteoid

b)

Osteoblasts, Osteon, Ossification, Oxygen

c)

Osteoclasts, Osteoblasts, Oreos, Hydrochloric Acid

d)

Osteon, Occipital, Osteoid, Osteocyte

23.

Hydroxyapatites...

a)

INORGANIC mineral salts. 65% of bone mass. Responsible for hardness and resistance to compression

b)

organic mineral salts. 45% of bone mass. Responsible for regulating calcium hormone

c)

Hydrogen and calcium found in the bone

d)

are not a mineral reservoir

24.

Osteogenesis/Ossification

a)

Bone tissue formation

b)

Red marrow formation

c)

Compact bone formation

d)

Epiphyseal plate formation

25.

Intramembranous Ossification develops from where?

a)

Connective tissue

b)

Compact bone

c)

Fibrous Membrane formed by mesenchymal cells

d)

Inside the mesenchymal cell membrane

26.

What is the third stage of intramembranous ossification?

a)

Woven bone (spongy bone) and periosteum form

b)

An ossification center appears in the fibrous connective tissue membrane

c)

Bone matrix is secreted within the fibrous membrane

d)

Bone collar of compact bone forms and red marrow appears

27.

Endochondral Ossification...

a)

Forms cranial bones of skull and clavicle

b)

Bone forms by replacing hyaline cartilage. Forms long bones and other skeleton bones

c)

begins at week 8 of embryo development

d)

Develops from fibrous membrane

28.

What is NOT a phase of endochondral ossification?

a)

Cavitation of hyaline cartilage

b)

Bone matrix is secreted within the fibrous membrane

c)

Formation of the medullary cavity; appearance of secondary ossification centers in the epiphyses

d)

Invasion of internal cavities by the periosteal bud, and spongy bone formation

29.

True or false: The 4 zones of the epiphyseal plates are proliferation, hypertrophic, calcification, and ossification

a)

True

b)

False

30.

During postnatal bone growth, how does new bone grow?

a)

In width

b)

In length

c)

Around the circumference

d)

In between

31.

Cartilage cells divide, pushing epiphysis away from diaphysis

a)

Proliferation

b)

Hypertrophic Zone

c)

Appositional Growth

d)

Calcification Zone

32.

Older cartilage cells enlarge

a)

Proliferation

b)

Hypertrophic Zone

c)

Osteogenic Zone

d)

Calcification Zone

33.

Matrix becomes calcified; cartilage cells die; matrix begins deteriorating

a)

Osteoclasts

b)

Calcification Zone

c)

Calcitonin

d)

Hormone Production

34.

New bone formation occurs as osteoblasts secrete bone matrix into calcified cartilage spicules

a)

Calcification Zone

b)

Osteogenic Zone

c)

Mineral and growth factor storage

d)

Trabeculae

35.

When cartilage continues to grow, it is replaced by bone

a)

True

b)

False

36.

During infancy and childhood, the epiphyseal plate is stimulated by what?

a)

Testosterone and Estrogen

b)

Growth Hormones

c)

Osteoblasts

d)

Spongy bone

37.

Bone remodeling is...

a)

Collections of osteoblasts and osteoclasts that deposit and resorb bone

b)

Bone is both resorbed and deposited at the endosteum and periosteum

c)

remodeling the shape of bone

d)

giving the bone a new shape

38.

Bone remodeling units are collections of osteoblasts and osteocytes

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Osteoblasts are responsible for?

a)

Bone deposition

b)

Bone resorption

c)

Blasting osteocytes

d)

Dissolving bone matrix

40.

Bone resorption is accomplished by?

a)

Osteoblasts

b)

Osteoclasts

c)

Osteoid

d)

Alkaline Phosphate

41.

Which of the following is an importance of calcium?

a)

Transmission of nerve impulses

b)

Muscle contraction

c)

Blood coagulation

d)

Secretion by glands and nerve cells

e)

Cell division

42.

The hormonal mechanism...?

a)

Maintains phosphate homeostasis in the blood

b)

Maintains calcium homeostasis in the blood

c)

Maintains calcium and phosphate homeostasis in the blood

d)

None of these

43.

Acting on the skeleton affect bone structure

a)

Mechanical Forces

b)

Gravitational Forces

c)

Mechanical and Gravitational Forces

44.

What is Wolff's Law?

a)

For every action has its equal and opposite reaction

b)

E=mc^2

c)

States that a bone grows or remodels in response to the forces or demands placed upon it

45.

Bone ends retain their normal position

a)

Complete Bone Fracture

b)

Nondisplaced Bone Fracture

c)

Displaced Bone Fracture

d)

Incomplete Bone Fracture

46.

Bone ends are out of normal alignment

a)

Nondisplaced Bone Fracture

b)

Displaced Bone Fracture

c)

Greenstick Bone Fracture

d)

Linear Bone Fracture

47.

Bone is broken all the way through

a)

Incomplete Bone Fracture

b)

Transverse Bone Fracture

c)

Complete Bone Fracture

d)

Displaced Bone Fracture

48.

Bone is not broken all the way through

a)

Incomplete Bone Fracture

b)

Complete Bone Fracture

c)

Linear Bone Fracture

d)

Greenstick Bone Fracture

49.

The fracture is parallel to the long axis of the bone

a)

Perpendicular Bone Fracture

b)

Linear Bone Fracture

c)

Parallel Bone Fracture

d)

Intermediate Bone Fracture

50.

The fracture is perpendicular to the long axis of the bone

a)

Perpendicular Bone Fracture

b)

Linear Bone Fracture

c)

Open Bone Fracture

d)

Transverse Bone Fracture

51.

Bone ends penetrate the skin

a)

Pointy Bone Fracture

b)

Open/Compound Bone Fracture

c)

Closed/Simple Bone Fracture

d)

Comminuted Bone Fracture

52.

Bone ends do not penetrate the skin

a)

Open/Compound Bone Fracture

b)

Closed/Simple Bone Fracture

c)

Compression Bone Fracture

d)

Comminuted Bone Fracture

53.

Bone Fragments into three or more pieces; Common in the elderly

a)

Compression Bone Fracture

b)

Comminuted Bone Fracture

c)

Depressed Bone Fracture

d)

Greenstick Fracture

54.

Bone is crushed; Common in porous bones

a)

Comminuted Bone Fracture

b)

Compression Bone Fracture

c)

Greenstick Bone Fracture

d)

Depressed Bone Fracture

55.

Broken bone portion is pressed inward; Typical skull fracture

a)

Compression Bone Fracture

b)

Depressed Bone Fracture

c)

Spiral Bone Fracture

d)

Greenstick Bone Fracture

56.

Incomplete fracture where one side of the bone breaks and the other side bends; Common in children

a)

Depressed Bone Fracture

b)

Spiral Bone Fracture

c)

Greenstick Bone Fracture

d)

Compression Bone Fracture

57.

Ragged break when bone is excessively twisted; Common sports injury

a)

Epiphyseal Bone Fracture

b)

Spiral Bone Fracture

c)

Depressed Bone Fracture

d)

Comminuted Bone Fracture

58.

Epiphysis separates from the diaphysis along the epiphyseal line

a)

Spiral Bone Fracture

b)

Compression Bone Fracture

c)

Epiphyseal Bone Fracture

d)

Greenstick Bone Fracture

59.

1. Hematoma Forms

2. Firbrocartilaginous callus forms

3. Bony callus formation

4. Bone remodeling

a)

Blood formation

b)

Stages of bone development

c)

Stages of healing of a bone fracture

d)

Stages of skin formation

e)

S

60.

Granulation tissue forms a few days after a fracture

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Fibrocartilagenous callus is formed to temporarily splint the bone

a)

False

b)

True

62.

Osteomalacia is...

a)

A disease marked by softening of the bone caused by calcium and vitamin D deficiency

b)

A bone deformity; common in children

c)

A disease of unknown origin that is characterized by extensive breakdown of bone tissue followed by abnormal bone formation

d)

Group of diseases in which bone resorption outpaces bone deposit. Occurs mostly in menopausal women. Bones become extremely fragile with loss of bone mass.

63.

Rickets is...

a)

Osteomalacia in children

b)

Group of diseases in which bone resorption outpaces bone deposit. Occurs mostly in menopausal women. Bones become extremely fragile with loss of bone mass

c)

disease marked by softening of the bone caused by calcium and vitamin D deficiency

d)

A disease of unknown origin that is characterized by extensive breakdown of bone tissue followed by abnormal bone formation.

64.

Osteoporosis is...

a)

A disease of unknown origin that is characterized by extensive breakdown of bone tissue followed by abnormal bone formation.

b)

Group of diseases in which bone resorption outpaces bone deposit. Occurs mostly in menopausal women. Bones become extremely fragile with loss of bone mass.

c)

disease marked by softening of the bone caused by calcium and vitamin D deficiency

d)

A disease of unknown origin that is characterized by extensive breakdown of bone tissue followed by abnormal bone formation.

65.

Pagets disease is...

a)

A disease of unknown origin that is characterized by extensive breakdown of bone tissue followed by abnormal bone formation.

b)

Group of diseases in which bone resorption outpaces bone deposit. Occurs mostly in menopausal women. Bones become extremely fragile with loss of bone mass.

c)

disease marked by softening of the bone caused by calcium and vitamin D deficiency

d)

osteomalacia in children; causes bone deformity

66.

________ connective tissue joins bones?

a)

Cartilage

b)

Synovial

c)

Fibrous

d)

Sesamoid

67.

Cartilage directly unites bones

a)

Fibrous Joint

b)

Cartilaginous Joint

c)

Synovial Joint

d)

Ligament

68.

Synovial joints are separated by what?

a)

Fluid-filled joint cavity

b)

Cartilage

c)

Perichondrium

d)

Tendons

69.

Immovable joints

a)

Amphiarthroses/Cartilaginous Joints

b)

Synarthroses/Fibrous Joints

c)

Diarthroses/Synovial Joints

d)

Suture

70.

Freely moveable joints

a)

Synarthroses/Fibrous Joint

b)

Amphiarthroses/Cartilaginous Joint

c)

Diarthroses/Synovial Joint

d)

Suture

71.

Slightly moveable joints

a)

Synarthroses/Fibrous Joint

b)

Amphiarthroses/Cartilaginous Joint

c)

Diarthroses/Synovial Joint

d)

Suture

72.

The three types of Fibrous joint are?

a)

Synchondroses, Symphyses, Syndesomes

b)

Sutures, Syndesmoses, Gomphoses

c)

Hyaline Cartilage, Sutures, Gomphoses

73.

The two types of Cartilaginous Joints are?

a)

Syndesmoses and Gomphoses

b)

Synchondroses and Sutures

c)

Synchondroses and Symphyses

d)

Sutures and Symphyses

74.

Articular Cartilage provides a smooth slippery, cushioning surface on ends of bones

a)

True

b)

False

75.

A joint cavity is not filled with synovial fluid

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Inner membrane produces synovial fluid

a)

Synovial Fluid

b)

Synovial Membrane

c)

Endosteum

d)

Osteon Membrane

77.

Occupies the joint cavity. Lubricates and nourishes cartilages of the joint surface

a)

Synovial Fluid

b)

Synovial Membrane

c)

Periosteum

d)

Fibrous Capsule

78.

Outer dense irregular connective tissue supports the joint

a)

Perichondrium

b)

Periosteum

c)

Fibrous Capsule

d)

Tendon

79.

Are connective tissue that bands connecting bones. Unite bones and prevent excessive or undesirable motion

a)

Tendons

b)

Ligaments

c)

Epiphyseal Line

d)

Chondrocytes

80.

Fat or firbrocartilage (menisci) adds extra cushioning

a)

Adipose Tissue

b)

Fibrous Tissue

c)

Fatty pads and Articular discs

81.

Flattened fibrous sacs lined with synovial fluid

a)

Synovial Fluid

b)

Bursae

c)

Synovial Joint

d)

Fibrous fluid

82.

Elongated bursae wrapped completely around a tendon

a)

Bursae

b)

Tendon Sheaths

c)

Myelin Sheaths

d)

Ligament Sheaths

83.

Articular Surfaces...?

a)

Provides a smooth slippery, cushioning surface on ends of bones

b)

Shape determines what movements are possible

c)

Rough surface on Illium

84.

Muscle Tone...?

a)

The state of balanced muscle tension that makes normal posture, coordination, and movement possible

b)

Acting on the skeleton affects bone structure

c)

Determines the muscle size

85.

Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)

a)

Internal ligament that resists hyperextension of the knee

b)

Internal ligament that resists forward movement of the femur

c)

Pads of fibrocartilage on the tibial condyles that provide extra cushioning and help prevent side to side motion of the femur

86.

Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)

a)

Internal ligament that resists hyperextension of the knee

b)

Internal ligament that resists forward movement of the femur

c)

Pads of fibrocartilage on the tibial condyles that provide extra cushioning and help prevent side to side motion of the femur 

87.

The shoulder joint/glenohumeral is a what type of joint?

a)

Ball and socket joint

b)

Cartilaginous Joint

c)

Fibrous Joint

d)

Synovial joint

88.

There are four ligaments in the shoulder joint

a)

True

b)

False

89.

The ligaments reinforcing a joint are stretched or torn

a)

Sprain

b)

Cartilage Injuries

c)

Dislocation

90.

Overstressed cartilage tears, common in the knee menisci

a)

Sprain

b)

Cartilage injury

c)

Dislocation

91.

Occur when bones are forced out of alignment

a)

Displaced fracture

b)

Dislocation

c)

Cartilage

d)

Sprain

92.

Subluxation is...?

a)

a parietal dislocation of a joint

b)

Are usually accompanied by sprains, inflammation, and joint immobilization

93.

Bursitis is...?

a)

an inflammation of bursa, usually caused by a blow or friction

b)

Inflammation of tendon sheaths typically caused by overuse

94.

Tendonitis is...?

a)

Inflammation of tendon sheaths typically caused by overuse

b)

An inflammation of bursa, usually cause by a blow or friction

95.

A chronic form of Arthritis is?

a)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

b)

Tendonitis

c)

Osteoporosis

96.

Osteoarthritis is...?

a)

Chronic, inflammatory, autoimmune disease of unknown cause

b)

Most common chronic arthritis; often called "wear and tear" arthritis

c)

Is caused by deposition of uric crystals in joints

97.

Rheumatoid Arthritis is...?

a)

Chronic, inflammatory, autoimmune disease of unknown cause

b)

Most common chronic arthritis; often called "wear and tear" arthritis

c)

Is caused by deposition of uric acid crystals in joints and soft tissues, followed by an inflammatory response

98.

Gouty arthritis is...?

a)

Is caused by deposition or uric acid crystals in joints and soft tissues, followed by an inflammatory response

b)

Chronic, inflammatory, autoimmune disease of unknown cause

c)

Most common chronic arthritis; often called "wear and tear' arthritis

99.

What are Chondrocytes?

a)

cells surrounded by extracellular matrix. Found in pockets called Lacunae inside cartilage.

b)

a small bar, rod, bundle of fibers, or septal membrane in the framework of a body organ or part.

c)

A bone cell

d)

Epithelial cell

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