Free Printable biology

1.

The most appropriate measure of population density is?

a)

Number

b)

Biomass

c)

Percent cover area

d)

All of the above

2.

Above given diagram represents a relation with environment. This relation is known as

a)

Species ecology

b)

Autecology

c)

Synecology

d)

Population ecology

3.

Which one of the following is not a structural character of an ecosystem?

a)

Stratification

b)

Decomposition

c)

Dominance

d)

Species Diversity

4.

Select the statement which explains amensalism

a)

Both organisms are benefitted

b)

Both organisms are harmed

c)

One organism is benefitted and other is harmed

d)

One organism is Neutral and other is harmed

5.

Species diversity occurs in:-

a)

Individuals of same species in particular area

b)

Individual of same species in different area

c)

Population

d)

Community

6.

Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III regarding lake stratification:-

Column I Column II Column III

1 Littoral zone a Maximum phytoplankton i Maximum diversity

2 Limnetic zone b Aphotic zone ii P/R = 1

3 Profundal zone c Ecotone iii Euphotic zone

4 Compensation zone d Disphotic zone iv Maximum heterotrophs

a)

2-a-ii, 1-c-i, 3-b-iv, 4-d-iii

b)

2) 1-c-i, 2-a-iii, 3-b-iv, 4-d-ii

c)

1-d-iii, 2-b-iv, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii

d)

2-b-iii, 1-b-iv, 3-a-ii, 4-d-iv

7.

Which one is correct?

a) Inter specific competion – Maintain species diversity

b) Intra specific competion – Maintain equlibrium between species

c) Intra specific competition – Maintain equlibrium in population

d) Inter specific competition – Induced diversity loss

a)

a, b

b)

a, c

c)

c, d

d)

c, a

8.

Some of the stages in the hydrarch are labelled as:-

A. Marsh meadow stage

B. Reed swamp stage

C. Submerged plant stage

D. Phytoplanktom stage

E. Submerged free floating stage

Correct sequence of these stages are:-

a)

D, C, E, B and A

b)

C, E, A, B and D

c)

B, D, C, A and E

d)

D, E, C, B and A

9.

About succession which of the following statement is correct?

a)

In xerosere, xeric conditions progress to hydric conditions

b)

In hydrosere, mesic environment progress to hydric conditions

c)

In hydrosere, hydric environment progress to mesic conditions

d)

Abandoned farm lands show primary succession

10.

Match the following column – I with column –II:-

Column - I Column - II

a Proto-co-operation i Algae and Fungi (lichen)

b Commensalism ii Sea anemone and clawn fish

c Helotism iii Rhinoceros and ticks

d Parasitism iv Parasitism

a)

a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

b)

a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

c)

a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii

d)

a-ii, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

11.

Master and slave relation is known as

a)

Leadership

b)

Helotism

c)

Producer & consumer

d)

Predator & prey

12.

During interaction between sea anemone and clawn fish, which get benefitted?

a)

Sea-anemone only

b)

Clown fish only

c)

Both

d)

Neither 1 nor 2

13.

. United conference on climate change (1997) held at?

a)

Kyoto

b)

Montreal

c)

Bali

d)

India

14.

The given diagram is related to which stage of succession:-

a)

Forest stage

b)

Reed swamp stage

c)

Floating stage

d)

Pioneer stage

15.

Which of the following characters is not a special adaptation for parasites?

a)

Loss of unnecessary sense organ

b)

Presence of adhesive organs or suckers

c)

Loss of digestive system

d)

Low reproductive capacity

16.

Why does have so many thorns?

a)

Avoiding their predators

b)

Minimizing the Transpiration

c)

Minimizing the photosynthesis

d)

Both (1) and (2)

17.

Which one represents the range of conditions of organisms, the resource it utilises and its functional role in ecosystem?

a)

Habitat

b)

Micro Habitat

c)

Niche

d)

Home range

18.

The Abingdon tortoise in galapagos island became extinct with in a decade after goats were introduced in the island is the example of?

a)

Competitive release

b)

Resource partitioning

c)

Interference competition

d)

Competitive exclusion

19.

To avoid predation monarch butterfly has a distasteful chemical; which is

a)

It acquires from other butterflies

b)

It acquires during catter-pillar stage

c)

It produces

d)

It acquires during pupa stage

20.

The rate of biomass production is called productivity. It may be primary or secondary productivity Primary productivity does not depend on

a)

Plants species inhabitating a particular area

b)

Predation

c)

Environmental factors

d)

Photosynthetic capacity

21.

Select the correct one –

a)

DFC is the major conduit for energy flow in aquatic ecosystem

b)

GFC is the major conduit for energy flow in terrestrial ecosystem

c)

Trophic level represent species level of an organism

d)

Flow of energy in DFC is slow

22.

A food web:-

a)

Increases variety of food at each trophic level.

b)

Decreses variety of food, but increases quantity of food at each trophic level.

c)

Increases variety as well as quantity of food at each trophic level.

23.

. The productivity of ocean and whole biosphere respectively:

a)

170, 55

b)

115, 170

c)

55, 170

d)

55, 115

24.

In an eco system if the net primary productivity is 2000 Kcal/m². Year then what will be the amount of energy stored in biomass at third trophic level?

a)

200 Kcal/m².year

b)

20 Kcal/m².year

c)

2 Kcal/m².year

d)

0.2 Kcal/m².year

25.

Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers is known as:-

a)

Primary productivity

b)

Secondary productivity

c)

Net community productivity

d)

Gross primary productivity

26.

Correct sequence of respiratory loss in plants (P), Herbivores (H) and Carnivores (C) is:

a)

P < H > C

b)

P < H < C

c)

P > H > C

d)

P > H < C

27.

Which of the following trophic levels are occupied by sparrow?

a)

Primary consumer, primary producer

b)

Secondary consumer, Top carnivores

c)

Primary producer, secondary producer

d)

Primary consumer, secondary consumer

28.

Under unfavourable conditions many zooplankton species in lakes and ponds undergo ‘diapause’. This ‘diapause’ is way of:

a)

Conformation

b)

Regulation

c)

Migration

d)

Suspension

29.

Which of the following organisms does not show migration?

a)

Whale

b)

Siberian crane

c)

Caribou

d)

Polar bear

30.

Source of energy in deep sea water is?

a)

Sunlight

b)

hydro power

c)

Hydrothermal vents

d)

Fossils

31.

Given below a diagrammatic representation of organismic response, identify the correct statement of A, B and C:-

a)

A – can maintain a constant body temperature

B – 99% of Animals

b)

B – Osmotic concentration changes with external water osmotic concentration

C – Can move away temporarily from the stressfull area

c)

A – Body temperature changes with external temperature

B – Birds, Mammals and a ver few lower vertebrates and invertebrate species are capable of such regulation.

d)

A – Nearly all plants

C – Mammals and Birds

32.

In the diagramatic representation of response of organisms against temperature. Find out the correct match.

a)

1) A – Mammals, B – Birds

b)

B – Mammals, C – Plants

c)

A – Plants, B – Mammals

d)

A – Birds, B – Mammals

33.

How many examples given below are the example of eurythermal whale, Lizard, zooplankton, Diatoms, Mango, snow leopard, Siberian crane

a)

Three

b)

Five

c)

Seven

d)

One

34.

In the process of decomposition some nutrients get tied up with biomass of microbes and become temporarily unavailable to other organisms. Such incorporation of nutrient in living microbes is called:-

a)

Nutrient cycling

b)

Bio – geo – chemical cycle

c)

Nutrient immobilization

d)

Nutrient mobilization

35.

. Which of the following process help in nutrient conservation:-

a)

Mineralisation

b)

Immobilisation

c)

Leaching

d)

Nitrification

36.

Among the following biogeochemical cycles which one does not have losses due to respiration?

1) Carbon 2) Sulphur

3) Phosphorus 4) Both (2) and (3)

a)

Carbon

b)

Sulphur

c)

Phosphorus

d)

Both (2) and (3)

37.

. (a) Present in western ghats and in North Eastern Himalayas

(b) Eutrophic soil

(c) High albedo

(d) Highly stratified canopy

(e) Permafrost soil

(f) Oligotrophic soil

(g) Presence of pneumatophores

(h) Tallest canopy

(i) Rich in woody climbers and epiphytes

Most of the conditions given above are concerned with:-

a)

Desert

b)

Deciduous forest

c)

Tropical rain forest

d)

Coastal biome

38.

. In the given figure identify temperate and coniferous forest from markings A – F and select correct option:-

a)

A & B

b)

B & D

c)

D & E

d)

C & F

39.

Choose the correct option

1) Tundra Biome - Needle leaf biome

2) Taiga Biome - 100-250 cm annual Rain Fall

3) Savanna biome - Grassland with scattered trees

4) Cold desert - Thar

a)

Tundra Biome - Needle leaf biome

b)

Taiga Biome - 100-250 cm annual Rain Fall

c)

Savanna biome - Grassland with scattered trees

d)

Cold desert - Thar

40.

Which of the following option correctly represent pyramid of lake on the basis of biomass?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

41.

. Which one is incorrect for standing crop.

a)

Dry weight of living organic matter in a particular area

b)

Total amount of biomass at particular trophic level of food chain

c)

Dry weight of dead organic matter in particular area

d)

Amount of storage energy of particular trophic level of food chain

42.

Which of the following taxa is facing maximum threat of species extenction in near future?

a)

Gymnosperms

b)

Amphibians

c)

Mammals

d)

Reptiles

43.

. Which of the following is not an alien species in India?

a)

Parthenium

b)

Lantana Clarias gariepinus

c)

Lantana

d)

Tacumela undulata

44.

Which is a correct match?

a)

The national environmental 1968 protection act

b)

Insecticide act 1986

c)

Water act 1974

d)

Air act 1984

45.

Graph of species – Area relationship on logarithmic scale is given below:-Where S represents species richness and A represents Area. Which of the following area has least value of Regression cofficient (Z).

a)

Area 1

b)

Area 2

c)

Area 3

d)

All have same value of Z

46.

Arrange the following in ascending order based on their numbers in India:-

a) Biosphere reserves

b) Hot spots

c) National parks

d) Wild life sanctuaries

a)

b > a > c > d

b)

b > c > d > a

c)

a > b > c > d

d)

d > c > b > a

47.

Which of the following is not an example of hotspot in india?

a)

Western ghat & Srilanka

b)

Indo – Burma

c)

Himalaya

d)

Eastern ghat

48.

Which one is not an example of alien species?

a)

Parathenium

b)

Eichhornia

c)

Clarias gariepinus

d)

Wheat

49.

In ‘Rivet popper hypothesis’ (Paul Ehrlich) rivet indicates:-

a)

Ecosystem

b)

Biosphere

c)

Organism

d)

Species

50.

Which of the conservation mode is odd one among following?

a)

Scared groves

b)

Botanical garden

c)

National park

d)

Biodiversity Hotspot

51.

Botanical gardens mainly serves the purpose of providing:-

a)

Beautiful area for recreation

b)

Reservoir for tropical plants

c)

Ex-situ conservation of germplasm

d)

Natural habitat for wild life

52.

The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to :-

a)

Increased number of predatory birds

b)

Over exploitation

c)

Non- availability of the food

d)

Disease in pigeon

53.

Select the mismatch pair:-

a)

Biosphere Reserves = 14

b)

National park = 90

c)

Sanctuaries = 448

d)

Hot spots = 5

54.

Which of the following is not an Alien/Exotic species introduced in India?

a)

Lantana camara

b)

Shorea robusta

c)

Eicchornia crassipes

d)

Parthenium

55.

Wild life protection act in india introduced in

a)

1972

b)

1974

c)

1988

d)

1986

56.

‘Agenda – 21’ is Related with:-

a) “The earth summit” Held in Rio – de Janerio

b) The word summitr on sustainable development

c) Biodiversity conservation

d) Conference on Human environment stockholm

a)

a, b and c are correct

b)

a and b are correct

c)

b and d are correct

d)

a and c are correct

57.

The conservation on biological diversity held in Rio de Janerio in 1992 is known as?

a)

CITES convention

b)

The earth summit

c)

G – 16 summit

d)

MAB programme

58.

Which of the following is not the reason of high biodiversity in tropics?

a)

Undisturbed climate for million of years

b)

Less seasonal variations

c)

Both 1 and 2

d)

Less solar energy

59.

teps taken by the government of india to control air pollution include:-

a)

Compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel.

b)

Compulsory PUC (Pollution under control) certification of petrol driven vehicles only, which tests fore carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons.

c)

Permission to use only pure diesel with a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for vehicles.

d)

Use of non-polluting compressed Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses for public transport in New Delhi.

60.

Given diagram represents the greenhouse effect.Select the correct statement form the following:-(I) Greenhouse gases absorb infrared radiation from the earth. The absorbed radiations again come to earth’s surface and heat it up.

(II) CO₂, CH₄, CFC_s and N₂O are the gases responsible for greenhouse effect.

(III) Increase in the level of greenhouse gases results considerable heating of earth leading to global warming

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

I and III

d)

I, II and III

61.

It is Estimated that out of the total global warming the relative contribution of CO₂, CH₄, CFC_S and N₂O are found Respectively as:-

a)

60%, 20%, 14% and 6%

b)

6%, 14%, 20% and 60%

c)

20%, 60%, 14% and 6%

d)

20%, 14%, 60% and 6%

62.

The thickness of ozone layer is measured in which unit?

a)

Bel

b)

Dobson

c)

Decibel

d)

PPT

63.

Which of the following is correct pair for green house gases:-

a)

Methane 20%, N₂O 18%

b)

CFC 14%, Methane 20%

c)

CO₂ 40%, CFC 30%

d)

N₂O 6%, CO₂ 86%

64.

If there is no greenhouse effect, the average temperature at surface of Earth would have been:-

a)

15⁰C

b)

-18⁰C

c)

-6⁰C

d)

0⁰C

65.

The specific intensity of Noise, which may damage ear drums and causes permanently impairing hearing ability is?

a)

Equal and less than 150 dB

b)

Equal and more than 150 dB

c)

More than 200 dB

d)

More than 100 dB

66.

PM_2.5 refers to particulate matter having average diameter less than or equal to ?

a)

2.5 nm

b)

2.5 μm

c)

2.5 mm

d)

2.5 cm

67.

____________ inhibits or stops photolysis of water:-

a)

O₃

b)

Mist

c)

Los angeles smog

d)

London smog

68.

What is the ratio of HNO₃ and H₂SO₄ in acid rain composition?

a)

7:3

b)

3:7

c)

1:3

d)

1:7

69.

Observe the diagram given below and select the resources of emission of gases A, B, C and D respectively from the option given after the diagram.

a)

Paddy field, Fertilisers, Refrigerator, Burning of fossil fuel.

b)

Fertilisers, Refrigerator, Burning of fossil fuel, paddy field

c)

Burning of fossil fuel, paddy field, Refrigerator, Fertilisers

d)

Refrigerator, paddy field, Burning of fossil fuel, fertilisers.

70.

Presence of large amounts of Nutrients in water cause excessive growth of planktonic algae, which gives a distinct colour to water, This phenomenon is called as:

a)

Eutrophication

b)

Algal bloom

c)

Biomagnification

d)

Algal magnification

71.

. The famous book “silent spring” related to pesticide pollution is written by?

a)

Jim Corbet

b)

Edward wilson

c)

Rachel Carson

d)

Rajendra Pachauri

72.

There are four major causes of accelerated rates of species extinction, which are collectively called as ‘the evil quartet’. Which one of the following is not included in ‘the evil quartet’?

a)

Over exploitation

b)

Pollution

c)

Co-extinctions

d)

Aliens species invasions

73.

. Presence of E.coli in water indicates

a)

Air pollution

b)

Water pollution

c)

3) Soil pollution

d)

Clean water

74.

A water body in which water is highly polluted its represents:-

a)

High value of DO

b)

High value of BOD

c)

Low value of BOD

d)

Slow rate of decompositions

75.

Pollutants from man’s activities like effluents from industries and homes can radically accelerate the aging of lake that is known as-

a)

Biomagnification

b)

Eutrophication

c)

Sedimentation

d)

lake fertilization

76.

Increases in concentration of toxicant at successive trophic level in aquatic food chain shows:-

a) Non bio degradable substances present in water.

b) That number of organism is also increased at successive trophic level.

c) Biomagnification

d) That BOD of water is increased and D.O is decreased

a)

a, b, c

b)

a, c

c)

b, c

d)

a, b, c, d

77.

In water treatment plant ozone gas and U.V. is used in:-

a)

Primary treatment

b)

Secondary treatment

c)

Tertiary treatment

d)

Aeration tank

78.

Flood, drought and monsoon damage in India are the cause of :-

a)

Albedo effect

b)

Elnino effect

c)

Green house effect

d)

Ozone depletion

79.

Which is solution for the treatment of E – wastes in an Environment friendly manner?

a)

Buring in landfils

b)

Incineration

c)

Both (1) & (2)

d)

Recycling

80.

The water prevention and control of pollution act passed in india?

a)

1986

b)

1974

c)

1968

d)

1981

81.

The figure is showing relative contribution of various green house gases to total global warming:In above diagram find out correct gaseous contribution:

a)

CH₄

b)

CO₂

c)

N ₂O

d)

CFC_S

82.

. Green house gases SO₂, CFC and N₂O are Responsible for:

a) Global warming

b) Ozone depletion

c) CO₂ fertilization effect

d) Deforestation

a)

a, b, c

b)

Only a

c)

a, b, d

d)

a, b

83.

In a declining population of a country:-

a)

Number of Pre-Reproductive is more than Reproductive.

b)

Number of Pre-Reproductive is less than Reproductive.

c)

Number of Pre-Reproductive is equal to Reproductive.

d)

Reproductive are less than Post – Reproductive.

84.

In an area a single banyan tree overshadows 200 parthenium grass. Which of the following is a more meaningful measure of population density?

a)

Detritus percent

b)

Standing crop percent

c)

Total number per unit area

d)

Standing state percent

85.

. If a population growing Exponentially, Double in size in 3 years then what is the intrinsic rate of increase (r) of the population:-

a)

2.303

b)

0.3

c)

0.1

d)

0.231

86.

If in a pond there are 40 lotus plants last year and through reproduction 10 new plants are added, taking the current population to 50. The birth rate is as:-

a)

0.25 offspring per lotus per year

b)

0.25 offspring per lotus per day

c)

0.25 offspring per total population per year

d)

0.5 offspring per total population per year

biology

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

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