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LPN Elimination

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 6hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When we take food into our mouth, what step of the digestion process are we undergoing?

a)

Absorption

b)

Mechanical Breakdown

c)

Propulsion

d)

Ingestion

2.

Which type of propulsion is involuntary?

a)

Peristalsis

b)

Mechanical

c)

Chemical

d)

Swallowing

3.

The mouth is made up of which type of tissue?

a)

Simple Columnar Epithelial

b)

Simple Cuboidal Epithelial

c)

Stratified Squamous Epithelial

d)

Simple Squamous Epithelial

4.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: The roof of the buccal cavity is formed by which structures?

a)

Salivary gland

b)

Hard palate

c)

Soft palate

d)

Uvula

5.

How much material can the stomach hold?

a)

1-3 L

b)

2-4 L

c)

3-5 L

d)

4-6 L

6.

What type of tissue makes up the esophagus?

a)

Stratified Squamous Epithelial

b)

Simple Cuboidal Epithelial

c)

Stratified Suboidal Epithelial

d)

Simple Columnar Epithelial

7.

What type of muscle was specifically mentioned as making up the esophagus?

a)

Cardiac

b)

Skeletal

c)

Involuntary

d)

Smooth

8.

What type of tissue makes up the stomach?

a)

Simple Cuboidal Epithelial

b)

Simple Columnar Epithelial

c)

Stratified Cuboidal Epithelial

d)

Stratified Squamous Epithelial

9.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What changes are made to the stomach's layers vs the rest of the digestive system?

a)

Muscularis includes an extra layer of smooth muscle

b)

There is an additional layer altogether called the subserosa

c)

The stomach lining is the same as the digestive system as a whole

d)

The inner mucosal layer is made mostly of mucosal cells

10.

What type of tissue makes up the small intestine?

a)

Simple columnar epithelial

b)

Stratified squamous epithelial

c)

Stratified cuboidal epithelial

d)

Simple cuboidal epithelial

11.

What fluid do the small intestine and the large intestine both produce?

a)

Saliva

b)

Mucus

c)

Hydrochloric acid

d)

Gastrin

12.

What type of tissue makes up the large intestine?

a)

Stratified squamous epithelial

b)

Stratified columnar epithelial

c)

Simple squamous epithelial

d)

Simple columnar epithelial

13.

What sort of tissue is the anus made of?

a)

Stratified columnar epithelial

b)

Simple squamous epithelial

c)

Stratified squamous epithelial

d)

Simple cuboidal epithelial

14.

What is the reason we produce mucus in the digestive system?

a)

To keep food well lubricated to slide through intestines

b)

To protect cells from being digested by enzymes

c)

To protect the stomach from collapsing in on itself

d)

Breaks food down much faster

15.

What is the innermost layer of the intestines?

a)

Mucosal Layer

b)

Submucous layer

c)

Muscularis externa layer

d)

Serosa

16.

What is the outermost layer of the intestines?

a)

Mucosal layer

b)

Submucosal layer

c)

Muscularis Externa layer

d)

Serosa

17.

How many teeth do adults have?

a)

32

b)

23

c)

40

d)

12

18.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are the three layers that make up the mucosal layer?

a)

Muscularis mucosae

b)

Lamina Propria

c)

Epithelium

d)

Serosa

19.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which are salivary glands?

a)

Parotid gland

b)

Sublingual gland

c)

Submandibular gland

d)

Hypermandibular gland

20.

How much saliva do the salivary glands make each day?

a)

0.5 L

b)

1 L

c)

1.5 L

d)

2 L

21.

After we chew food, what is the new name for it?

a)

Chyme

b)

Bolus

c)

Food

d)

Mash

22.

After our food pases through the stomach, what is the new name for it?

a)

Bolus

b)

Chyme

c)

Food

d)

Mash

23.

What is the pH range of saliva?

a)

5.75-6

b)

6-6.25

c)

6.25-6.5

d)

6.75-7

24.

What do it mean to micturate?

a)

To vomit

b)

To poo

c)

To cry

d)

To pee

25.

When it comes to urination pain is _____ indicative of a problem.

a)

Never

b)

Sometimes

c)

Always

26.

TRUE/FALSE: Urination is always a voluntary act - from infancy to elder adulthood.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

How much urine does the bladder hold before an average healthy patient has the urge to pee?

a)

100-200mls

b)

200-300mls

c)

300-400mls

d)

400-500mls

28.

TRUE/FALSE: The internal sphincter of the bladder is involuntary.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

When does voluntary control of the bladder start?

a)

10-16 monthes

b)

12-18 months

c)

18-24 months

d)

20-26 months

30.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some signs that a child is ready to be toilet trained?

a)

Can hold urine for 1-2 hours

b)

Can recognize a full bladder and urge to urinate

c)

Can say the word "toilet" without issues

d)

Can communicate need to go and control urine until seated on a toilet

31.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some physiologic changes to our bladder as we age?

a)

Decrease ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine

b)

Decrease bladder muscle tone

c)

Decreased bladder contractability

d)

Our urine starts to turn brown

32.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following fluid and foods have a diuretic effect on our body or make us pee larger amounts?

a)

Fluid overload

b)

Dehydration

c)

Caffeine

d)

Alcohol

e)

Fruits/Veggies

33.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: You have a patient on bedrest, what are some physiologic changes you expect to see related to their bladder?

a)

Increased urgency

b)

Decreased bladder and sphincter control

c)

Decreased control or stasis

d)

Decrease in concentration of urine

34.

A patient you are taking care of has a fever of 100.2. Looking in their chart, you noticed they haven't peed for several hours. This...

a)

Causes you concern, fevers should make you expel more urine

b)

Causes you concern, a patient should be peeing about every hour

c)

Isn't an immediate cause for concern, fevers cause a decrease in urine formation

d)

Isn't an immediate cause for concern, the patient doesn't have to pee more than once a day

35.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some nephrotoxic medications?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Aspirin

c)

Diuretics

d)

Cholinergics

36.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What things can cause your urine to have an odor?

a)

Elavil

b)

B Complex Vitamins

c)

Onions

d)

Carotene

e)

Asparagus

37.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following makes urine look red?

a)

Beets

b)

Rifampin

c)

Blackberries

d)

Sulfonamides

e)

Anticoagulants

38.

What effects does Pyridium have on urine?

a)

Turns in black

b)

Turns it pink

c)

Turns it orange

d)

Gives it a sour smell

39.

Iron or levadopa does what to urine?

a)

Turns it black or brown

b)

Turns it grey

c)

Gives it a sweet smell

d)

Makes it bloody

40.

Diuretics have what effect on urine COCA?

a)

Turns it a pink color

b)

Gives it a sulfur like smell

c)

Makes the consistency like jelly

d)

Turns it a pale-yellow color.

41.

TRUE/FALSE: You should be able to palpate an empty bladder.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are normal results when examining the feces of a 2 month who is exclusively breastfed?

a)

Loose stools

b)

Yellow Color

c)

Strong Odor

d)

BMs 2-10 times a day

43.

TRUE/FALSE: Infants gain control of their urination abilities faster than their bowel abilites?

a)

True

b)

False

44.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following are effects of aging that affect our bowel habits?

a)

Decreased activity

b)

Decreased food intake

c)

Decreased muscle tone

d)

Increased absorption of liquids

e)

Laxative abuse

45.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which foods cause us to have more bowel movements?

a)

Vegetables

b)

Spicy foods

c)

Coffee

d)

Cheese

e)

Prunes

46.

Unless contraindicated, how much fluid should be encouraged in patients for them to have good bowel movements?

a)

1-2 L

b)

2-3 L

c)

3-4 L

d)

4-5 L

47.

How do hot beverages increase peristalsis?

a)

They act as vasodilators

b)

They make the poop increase in temperature and we want to get it out fast

c)

They don't

d)

The hot temperature liquifies feces more

48.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Adequate muscle tone in which muscles in essential for having bowel movements?

a)

Gluteus maximus

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Abdominal muscles

d)

Perineal muscles

49.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which emotions have a diarrheal effect?

a)

Depression

b)

Fear

c)

Angry

d)

Anxious

50.

TRUE/FALSE: Laxatives accelerate defecation.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Your patient has C-Diff and has been given an intense round of antibiotics. They are asking for an antidiarrheal to decrease the number of times they have a bowel movement. What is a proper response to this request?

a)

"I cannot give you that, if we do we risk the c-diff bacteria staying inside you and killing off your normal bacteria."

b)

"Sure thing, let me go ask the doctor for a prescription."

c)

"No, that will cause your antibiotics to kill every bacteria in your body, even the normal ones."

d)

"I cannot give that to you, it's not ordered for you."

52.

Your patient just underwent an X-Ray, they ingested barium beforehand to make their intestines more visible. What is an appropriate nursing intervention after the x-ray?

a)

Withhold water, they may need another x-ray

b)

There is nothing to do besides general monitoring after barium x-ray

c)

Wait for the results to come back from the x-ray before doing anything.

d)

Encourage water intake to flush the barium out.

53.

When placing a patient on a bedpan, what is the minimum the bed should be at?

a)

0 degrees

b)

15 degrees

c)

30 degrees

d)

45 degrees

54.

If a patient is telling you they have white bowels, what is that indicative of?

a)

Too much iron

b)

No bile

c)

They eat a lot of veggies

d)

They are on ducolax

55.

What is the name of the chart to document stool consistency?

a)

MEWS

b)

Glasgow

c)

Norton

d)

Bristol

56.

You take your patient in 322 to the bathroom, when they are done they tell you they had a bowel movement. Looking in the toilet, you see small hard lumps about nut size. How would you chart their bowel movement consistency using the Bristol Stool Chart?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

c)

Type 4

d)

Type 7

57.

Your incontinent patient had a bowel movement and needs to be changed. While you are changing them, you note the stool is all liquid with no solid pieces. How would you chart that bowel consistency using the Bristol Stool Chart?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 4

c)

Type 5

d)

Type 7

58.

Any procedure that allows for a direct visualization is what?

a)

Endoscopy

b)

Cystoscopy

c)

Giscopy

d)

Analscopy

59.

A patient who has to receive an EGD should be NPO for how long prior to the study?

a)

8 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

16 hours

d)

24 hours

60.

TRUE/FALSE: A patient undergoing an EGD is under conscious sedation.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

What is a proper nursing intervention after a patient undergoes an EGD?

a)

Stick a sterile q tip up their anal cavity to check for bleeding

b)

Ask the patient to rate their pain on a scale of 1-10

c)

Have patient drink plenty of fluids to alleviate dry mouth

d)

Assess gag reflex before letting patient begin eating or drinking

62.

An EGD is done to visual what?

a)

The upper digestive tract.

b)

The lower digestive tract.

c)

The anal canal.

d)

The bladder.

63.

A colonoscopy is done to visualize what?

a)

The upper digestive tract

b)

The lower digestive tract

c)

The anal canal

d)

The bladder

64.

What sort of preparation needs to be done for a patient to undergo a colonoscopy?

a)

The patient must not have had a bowel movement within 24 hours of the procedure

b)

The patient is not allowed to eat within 24 hours of the procedure

c)

The patient is to drink 3 L of fluid before a colonoscopy

d)

The patient is to make sure their colon is clean and free of stool by ingesting cathartics

65.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some side effects of a colonoscopy?

a)

Bloating for 12 hours after

b)

Bloating for 1 hour after

c)

Minimal bleeding

d)

Patient will complain of itchy anal cavity

66.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What can be viewed in a proctoscope?

a)

Descending colon

b)

Sigmoid colon

c)

Rectum

d)

Anal canal

67.

TRUE/FALSE: Unlike a GRD or Colonoscopy, a proctosigmoidoscopy uses a rigid instrument to view inside a patient.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

When a barium study is done, what color does the barium appear on the x-ray?

a)

White

b)

Blue

c)

Black

d)

Gray

69.

TRUE/FALSE: A barium milkshake is given to a patient undergoing an upper GI x-ray.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Within how many days should barium take to remove itself from the system?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

71.

Select the correct order for a patient to undergo the following procedures. 1 is first, 2 is second, 3 is third.

a)

1. Stool Sample

2. Endoscopy

3. Barium Studies

b)

1. Stool Sample

2. Barium Studies

3. Endoscopy

c)

1. Endoscopy

2. Barium Studies

3. Stool Sample

d)

1. Barium Studies

2. Endoscopy

3. Stool Sample

72.

How many mLs of urine do you need for a culture?

a)

1 mL

b)

2 mLs

c)

3 mLs

d)

4 mLs

73.

How many organisms should a culture come back with?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3+

d)

It depends on how sick the patient is

74.

An ultrasound is done to do what?

a)

Measure the concentration of the bladder

b)

Visualize the patient's prostate

c)

Examine the patient's urethra

d)

Visualize the kidneys and renal blood vessels

75.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: A cystoscopy allows you to have direct visualization of what body parts?

a)

Bladder

b)

Urethra

c)

Urethral Orifices

d)

Kidneys

76.

What french is the cystoscope?

a)

16

b)

18

c)

20

d)

22

77.

TRUE/FALSE: The cystoscopy is done under no anesthesia.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: A patient of yours is undergoing a cystoscopy tomorrow. What can you tell them to expect?

a)

Small amount of blood for the first 24 hours

b)

A mild burning for the first 24 hours

c)

Drink a lot of fluids after

d)

A prescription of antibiotics

79.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What sort of things can be detected on a IVP?

a)

Kidney stones

b)

Enlarged prostate

c)

Tumor

d)

Enlarged bladder

80.

TRUE/FALSE: If your patient is having a procedure where Iodine is involved, you should always check for an allergy.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Mr. Smith is having an IVP done tomorrow at 10am. When should he start his NPO status?

a)

10am today

b)

10pm tonight

c)

12am tomorrow

d)

2am tomorrow

82.

How often should a patient have a soft formed BM without discomfort?

a)

Every day

b)

Every 1-3 days

c)

Every 1-5 days

d)

Once a week

83.

When is the ideal time to have a bowel movement?

a)

In the morning

b)

In the evening

c)

One hour before meals

d)

One hour after meals

84.

What is a great tip to ensure the privacy of a patient while they are trying to have a bowel movement?

a)

Be within earshot of the patient at all times

b)

Closing the bathroom door but reminding them that you'll be right outside

c)

Cracking the door open so you can see them

d)

Unless they're weak, debilitated or can't be trusted, leave them alone

85.

When trying to have a bowel movement on a commode or toilet, what is the ideal position to have one in?

a)

Lean forward

b)

Sit up straight

c)

Lift your legs up onto the seat

d)

Spread your legs open wide

86.

TRUE/FALSE: If you increase fiber you need to increase fluid.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following patients have an increased risk of constipation?

a)

Scott, a 34 year old fitness coach who is recovering from a broken wrist and is only taking tylenol

b)

Tatyana, a 56 year old who says "life isn't worth living anymore" and prefers to sleep all day

c)

Hanna, a 34 year old who is on bedrest after both her legs were broken in a car accident

d)

Rapheal, a 72 year old with dementia who thinks that he is still fighting in the Vietnam war

e)

Charlene, a 48 year old woman hospitalized for bradycardia and is currently on atropine

88.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Increased risks for hemorrhoids include:

a)

Obesity

b)

Stress

c)

An office job

d)

Eating too much fiber

e)

Straining to defecate

89.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Treatments for anal fissures include?

a)

Increase in fiber

b)

Stool softener

c)

Ointment to the affected area

d)

Avoiding BMs to not infect area with feces

90.

What happens with a rectal prolapse?

a)

Part of the large intestine slips out of the anal cavity

b)

The veins around the anal cavity swell due to pressure

c)

The anus becomes so stretched from passing large BMs, it does not close back up

d)

A tear occurs in the skin around the anus

91.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some side effects of fecal impaction?

a)

Diminution of abdomen

b)

Inability to pass stool

c)

Watery diarrhea

d)

Anorexia

e)

Abdominal cramping

92.

Why do you need a physician's order to do a digital removal of fecal impaction?

a)

Can cause a syncopal episode in cardiac patients

b)

Breaching the anus is the responsibility of the doctor

c)

Since most nurses are women, they will probably puncture the anal cavity with their nail

d)

It is considered a procedure and nurses cannot do procedures

93.

When doing a digital removal of fecal impaction, what position should your patient be in?

a)

Sim's position

b)

Prone

c)

Dorsal recumbent

d)

Knee-chest

94.

Where does a suppository go?

a)

Down the mouth

b)

Inserted beyond the internal sphincter

c)

On the skin

d)

As far up the anal canal as you can get it

95.

To get a formal diagnosis of diarrhea, how often at minimum do you have to have loose, watery stool?

a)

Once a day

b)

3 times a day

c)

5 times a day

d)

7 times a day

96.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some causes of diarrhea?

a)

Anxiety

b)

Food intolerance

c)

Medications

d)

Depression

e)

Infection

97.

For someone who has chronic diarrhea, what electrolyte are they most at risk of having an imbalance of?

a)

Calcium

b)

Chloride

c)

Magnesium

d)

Potassium

98.

What food is not a BRAT food?

a)

Toast

b)

Radishes

c)

Rice

d)

Applesauce

e)

Bananas

99.

When it comes to pinworms, where do the females live in the body?

a)

Ileum

b)

Jejunum

c)

Cecum

d)

Sigmoid colon

100.

How long can pinworms survive on clothing, bedding, or other objects?

a)

2 days

b)

7 days

c)

2 weeks

d)

1 month

101.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: When is the best time to get a pinworm sample?

a)

During the middle of the day

b)

Right before bed

c)

Few hours after bed

d)

Early in the morning, before anything else

102.

TRUE/FALSE: Partial incontinence is the inability to control gas or prevent minor soiling.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some goals of bowel training?

a)

To be able to use a toilet every single time to have a BM

b)

Regain control of bowel movements

c)

Develop a regular pattern of elimination

d)

To be dependent on laxatives to have a BM

104.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What descriptors match that of a healthy stoma?

a)

Pink/red

b)

Soft

c)

Moist

d)

No feeling

e)

Less than 5cm

105.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following ostomies have constant drainage?

a)

Ileostomy

b)

Ascending colostomy

c)

Transverse colostomy

d)

Descending colostomy

e)

Sigmoid colostomy

106.

How soon can drainage appear in an ileostomy?

a)

24-48 hours

b)

2-3 days

c)

3-5 days

d)

after 7 days

107.

Which ostomy has the strongest smelling fecal matter?

a)

Ileostomy

b)

Ascending colostomy

c)

Transverse colostomy

d)

Descending colostomy

e)

Sigmoid colostomy

108.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What descriptors would apply to fecal matter draining out of a transverse ostomy?

a)

Malodorous

b)

Mushy drainage

c)

Constant drainage

d)

Drainage is always green

109.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: On which kind of ostomies can stoma caps be used?

a)

Ileostomy

b)

Ascending colostomy

c)

Transverse colostomy

d)

Descending colostomy

e)

Sigmoid colostomy

110.

How full can an ostomy appliance get before it needs to be changed?

a)

1/4th

b)

1/2th

c)

3/4th

d)

all the way full

111.

What could an ostomy that is pale mean?

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Anemia

c)

Healthy ostomy

d)

An ostomy that needs to be burped

112.

How long does it take an ostomy to stabilize?

a)

4-6 weeks

b)

6-8 weeks

c)

8-10 weeks

d)

10-12 weeks

113.

What happens if you don't burp the ostomy bag?

a)

The bag can go flying off

b)

The ostomy reabsorbs the fecal matter

c)

The ostomy loses blood flow

d)

The ostomy becomes swollen

114.

What does a decrease in ostomy output mean?

a)

It is healing

b)

There could be an obstruction

c)

The patient had a lot of gas in the way

d)

The bag isn't the right size

115.

How much skin is acceptable to be between the stoma and the ostomy appliance ring?

a)

1/8th inch

b)

1/4th inch

c)

1/2 inch

d)

1 inch

116.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which ostomy is it ok to irrigate?

a)

Ileostomy

b)

Ascending ostomy

c)

Transverse ostomy

d)

Descending ostomy

e)

Sigmoid ostomy

117.

What is a good sign the patient is accepting of their ostomy?

a)

When they want to take a picture of it to post on facebook

b)

When they sign the consent form

c)

When they want to participate in their ostomy care

d)

When they tell you nothing is wrong

118.

How many L of flatus does a person expel throughout the day?

a)

0.5-1.5 L

b)

1-2 L

c)

1.5-2.5 L

d)

2-3 L

119.

Excess flatulence is dangerous because?

a)

It expands the intestines so much they can rip apart

b)

It puts so much pressure on the anal canal that it can cause anal prolapse

c)

It can push on the diaphragm, decrease lung expansion and cause shortness of breath

d)

It makes people smell horrendous having all that gas stored in them

120.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some things that make flatulence worse?

a)

Chewing gum

b)

Anxiety

c)

Eating slow

d)

Straws

e)

Postnasal drip

121.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What foods cause flatulence?

a)

Nuts

b)

Cabbage

c)

Zucchini

d)

Radishes

e)

Carbonated beverages

122.

TRUE/FALSE: Antiflatulents have no change on gas production.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

What position are rectal tubes and enemas placed in?

a)

Prone

b)

Knee-Chest

c)

Dorsal recumbent

d)

Sims

124.

When using a rectal tube to relieve flatulence, how long is the tube left in place?

a)

5 min

b)

10 min

c)

15 min

d)

20 min

125.

What is an example of a hypotonic solution that can be used in an enema?

a)

Normal Saline

b)

Tap Water

c)

Fleets

d)

D5

126.

What size are cleansing enemas typically?

a)

100-300 mL

b)

200-400 mL

c)

500-1000 mL

d)

1000-2000 mL

127.

What patient should you not do a cleansing enema on?

a)

Margaret, a 65 year old female here for diabetic ketoacidosis

b)

Emanuel, a 46 year old male with a weakened intestinal wall

c)

Vincete, a 25 year old male here for a L BKA

d)

Johanna, a 91 year old female here for stroke recovery

128.

What is the main goal of oil retention enema?

a)

To soften stool

b)

To relieve gas

c)

Insert medication

d)

To repair intestinal lining

129.

How much solution is typically in an oil retention enema?

a)

50-100 mL

b)

100-150 mL

c)

150-200 mL

d)

200-250 mL

130.

What is the purpose of a carminative enema?

a)

To relieve gas

b)

To soften stool

c)

To insert meds

d)

To empty the colon

131.

How long is a carminative enema retained?

a)

5 minutes

b)

10 minutes

c)

15 minutes

d)

20 minutes

132.

How much solution is given in a carminative enema?

a)

100-120 mL

b)

150-180 mL

c)

130-170 mL

d)

100-200 mL

133.

How is an enema delivered?

a)

By squeeze bottle

b)

Gravity drain

c)

Pump

134.

Where are the kidneys located?

a)

In the abdominal cavity

b)

In the pubic bone

c)

Retroperitoneal

d)

On top of the stomach

135.

What is the outer layer of the kidneys called?

a)

Pyramids

b)

Pelvis

c)

Medulla

d)

Cortex

136.

What type of tissue is the proximal convoluted tubule made of?

a)

Cuboidal epithelial cells

b)

Transitional epithelial

c)

Simple squamous epithelial

d)

Stratified columnar epithelial

137.

What comes out of the descending nephron loop?

a)

Salts

b)

Water

c)

Potassium

d)

Nitrate

138.

In what portion of the brain is the urination center controlled?

a)

Medulla

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Pons

d)

Cerebellum

139.

Which of the urinary sphincters is voluntary?

a)

Internal

b)

External

c)

Posterior

d)

Central

140.

TRUE/FALSE: The urine moves through the ureters through gravity?

a)

True

b)

False

141.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some good ways to stimulate urination in your patient?

a)

Run water

b)

Warm bedpan

c)

Pour warm water over fingers

d)

Stare at your patient

e)

Peppermint oil on a 2x2 inserted into bedpan

142.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What do we count in intake?

a)

Amount of food in approximate mLs

b)

Fluids taken by mouth

c)

IV fluids

d)

Tube feedings

143.

Your nurse preceptor tells you to apply a texas cath to a patient in 412. What kind of catheter are you applying?

a)

Condom catheter

b)

Purewick

c)

Intermittent cath

d)

Indwelling catheter

144.

On which patient is a pure wick appropriate to place?

a)

Cori, a 12 year old girl here for a broken ankle

b)

Gertruda, a 76 year old woman who has total incontinence and has a stage 2 pressure injury on her bottom

c)

Johnathan, a 57 year old male who is here for a traumatic brain injury

d)

Diego, a 83 year old male here for a stroke

145.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of these conditions make a patient more susceptible to a UTI?

a)

Sexually active female

b)

Never having had a UTI before

c)

Diabetes

d)

Straight cath

e)

Post menopause woman

146.

TRUE/FALSE: You spot a nurse assistant providing toileting care to a female patient. The NA wipes the patient from back to front. This is an acceptable way to provide post-toileting hygiene.

a)

True

b)

False

147.

TRUE/FALSE: Eating 1 pound of cranberries a day will cure any UTI.

a)

True

b)

False

148.

You are doing a bladder scan on a patient. Which result would prompt you to call the provider?

a)

<500ml

b)

<50ml

c)

>200ml

d)

>600ml

149.

TRUE/FALSE: Incontinence is a normal part of the aging process.

a)

True

b)

False

150.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some management techniques for incontinence?

a)

Kegel exercises

b)

Just giving up and only wearing attends from now on

c)

Collagen injections

d)

Pessary

e)

Surgery

151.

Your patient complains of having "dribbling" during the daytime. Doing a bladder scan, you find 893ml in his bladder. What type of incontinence does your patient have?

a)

Stress

b)

Total

c)

Overflow

d)

Functional

152.

You and your patient are talking when you crack a joke to which she laughs. She then says she has wet her attends. What type of incontinence does she have?

a)

Overflow

b)

Mixed

c)

Urge

d)

Stress

153.

Your patient is room 103-1 calls out saying he has to pee right now. You enter his room a minute later and he tells you he has wet the bed. What type of incontinence does your patient have?

a)

Urge

b)

Stress

c)

Mixed

d)

Reflex

154.

Going over your patient's history she tells you earlier this year she had some brief incontinence issues that suddenly went away. What kind of incontinence would you chart her as having?

a)

Functional

b)

Reflex

c)

Mixed

d)

Transient

155.

Your patient in 560 has issues reaching the toilet due to her poor walker ambulation skills slowing her down. What kind of incontinence would you say she has?

a)

Urge

b)

Stress

c)

Functional

d)

Reflex

156.

You are performing a bed bath on a patient when you see they have voided on themselves. Talking to your patient, they tell you they did not feel the need to pee or that they peed. What kind of incontinence do they have?

a)

Transient

b)

Mixed

c)

Functional

d)

Reflex

157.

TRUE/FALSE: You can perform bladder training on a patient with an indwelling catheter.

a)

True

b)

False

158.

Which surgical treatment of incontinence requires a patient to wear a stoma device constantly?

a)

Pessary

b)

Urological stent

c)

Ileal conduit

d)

Continent

159.

TRUE/FALSE: Your bladder is sterile but your urethra is not.

a)

True

b)

False

160.

What is the maximum amount of urine you can empty from a patient's foley bag?

a)

As much til the bag is empty

b)

1L

c)

750ml

d)

500ml

161.

TRUE/FALSE: A straight cath is always a clean procedure.

a)

True

b)

False

162.

Which kind of catheter is curved at the end for an enlarged prostate gland?

a)

Straight cath

b)

Double lumen

c)

Triple lumen

d)

Coude

163.

Which french catheter will drain the slowest?

a)

5 french

b)

7 french

c)

16 french

d)

22 french

164.

How often at minimum should you do foley/peri care?

a)

Once a day

b)

Twice a day

c)

Every hour

d)

Every 4 hours

165.

Irrigation of a foley requires which type of catheter?

a)

Coude

b)

Double lumen

c)

Triple lumen

d)

Single lumen

166.

How much bilirubin is normal in urine?

a)

None

b)

1ml

c)

2ml

d)

3ml

167.

What is a normal result of urobilinogen in a UA?

a)

None

b)

0.2-1.0

c)

0.5-1.5

d)

1-2

168.

What do bilirubin and urobilinogen indicate in a UA?

a)

Heart failure

b)

Kidney failure

c)

Liver failure

d)

Pancreas failure

169.

What is a normal level of nitrate in a UA?

a)

None

b)

<0.3

c)

<0.6

d)

<0.9

170.

What does a positive nitrate result on a UA mean?

a)

Infection of gram negative bacteria

b)

Infection of gram positive bacteria

c)

Liver failure

d)

Dehydration

171.

What do WBC/leukocytes in a UA result mean?

a)

Possible infection

b)

Possible liver failure

c)

Possible dehydration

d)

Possible heart failure

172.

How many ketones should be present in a healthy UA?

a)

None

b)

<0.2

c)

<0.5

d)

<1

173.

What does a positive result of ketones in the UA mean?

a)

UTI

b)

Liver failure

c)

Infection of any kind

d)

Fat is being burned for energy

174.

If your UA result comes back with having high epithelial cell count, what does that indicate?

a)

Infection

b)

Dehydration

c)

Fat is being burned for energy

d)

Heart failure

175.

What is the normal amount of specific gravity on a UA?

a)

0.010-0.025

b)

1.010-1.025

c)

2.010-2.025

d)

3.010-3.025

176.

TRUE/FALSE: High specific gravity means overhydration.

a)

True

b)

False

177.

TRUE/FALSE: a 24 hour specimen needs to be placed in hot water to kill bacteria.

a)

True

b)

False

178.

Where can you obtain a sterile specimen on a catheter?

a)

The port

b)

The bag

c)

The irrigation lumen

d)

The balloon lumen

179.

You assign a NA to take a fecal sample for a patient. They do it but leave it on the sink. It's been sitting there for three hours now. What do you do with it?

a)

Send it to lab with a note, they can still test it if you inform them

b)

Send it to lab, they can still test it for 24 hours after collection

c)

Throw it away

d)

Yell at your NA

180.

What color is a positive on an occult blood testing?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Yellow