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Reproductive system

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The function of the male reproductive system is to produce sperm and transfer them to the female reproductive tract.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

The paired ovaries are a crucial component in this process, as they produce both sperm and androgens, the hormones that support male reproductive physiology.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

What is the most important male androgen in humans?

a)

Progesterone

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Testosterone

d)

Estrogen

4.

Several accessory organs and ducts aid the process of sperm maturation and transport the sperm and other seminal components to the penis, which delivers sperm to the female reproductive tract.

a)

False

b)

True

5.

What male structure produces testosterone?

a)

Ovaries

b)

Vagina

c)

Testes

d)

Penis

6.

The sac of skin that surrounds and covers the testes.

a)

Epicardium

b)

Scrotum

c)

Testes

d)

Ovaries

7.

The structure that divides the testes.

a)

Ovaries

b)

Sulci

c)

Scrotal septum

d)

Gyri

8.

The male body has to maintain the right temperature for sperm production, if too hot, this process will be halted.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The dartos muscle makes up the subcutaneous muscle layer of the scrotum & continues internally to make up the scrotal septum, a wall that divides the scrotum into two compartments, each housing one testis.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

The raised medial thickening on the surface of the scrotum.

a)

Testes

b)

Raphae

c)

Sulcus

d)

Nephrons

11.

The male gonads

a)

Vagina

b)

Ovaries

c)

Testes

d)

Penis

12.

The testes are surrounded by two distinct layers of protective connective tissue: the outer tunica vaginalis and the tunica albuginea.

a)

False

b)

True

13.

Sperm develops in structures called seminiferous tubules.

a)

False

b)

True

14.

The functions of the male gonads (testes) stay the same throughout life.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Men are viable throughout life (the ability to produce sperm and make babies), whereas women are not.

a)

False

b)

True

16.

About what length are the testes?

a)

4-5 cm

b)

5-6 cm

c)

7-8 cm

d)

2-3 cm

17.

The ductus deferens is AKA the vas deferens.

a)

False

b)

True

18.

What are the 2 protective layers of the testes?

a)

Tunica vaginalis

b)

Tunica albuginea

c)

Dermis

d)

Epidermis

19.

Cells that secrete signaling molecules that promote sperm production and can control whether germ cells live or die.

a)

Estrogen cells

b)

Islets of Langerhans

c)

Sertoli cells

d)

Acinar cells

20.

The order of the germ cells (5) goes from spermatogonia -> primary spermatocytes -> secondary spermatocytes -> spermatids -> sperm

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules.

a)

False

b)

True

22.

Identify the 1st step in spermatogenesis.

a)

Two identical diploid cells result from spermatogonia mitosis

b)

One of these cells remains a spermatogonium, and the other becomes a primary spermatocyte

c)

Meiosis I results in secondary spermatocytes, each with only half the number of chromosomes

d)

Meiosis II results in secondary spermatocytes

23.

Identify the 2nd step in spermatogenesis.

a)

Meiosis II results in secondary spermatocytes

b)

Spermiogenesis transforms early spermatids, reducing the cytoplasm, and beginning the formation of the parts of a true sperm

c)

One of the diploid cells remains a spermatogonium, and the other becomes a primary spermatocyte

d)

Meiosis I results in secondary spermatocytes, each with only half the number of chromosomes

24.

Identify the 3rd step in spermatogenesis.

a)

Meiosis II results in secondary spermatocytes

b)

Meiosis I results in secondary spermatocytes, each with only half the number of chromosomes

c)

Spermiogenesis transforms early spermatids, reducing the cytoplasm, and beginning the formation of the parts of a true sperm

d)

Two identical diploid cells result from spermatogonia mitosis

25.

Identify the 4th step in spermatogenesis.

a)

Meiosis I results in secondary spermatocytes, each with only half the number of chromosomes

b)

Spermiogenesis transforms early spermatids, reducing the cytoplasm, and beginning the formation of the parts of a true sperm

c)

Two identical diploid cells result from spermatogonia mitosis

d)

Meiosis II results in secondary spermatocytes

26.

Identify the 5th step in spermatogenesis.

a)

Spermiogenesis transforms early spermatids, reducing the cytoplasm, and beginning the formation of the parts of a true sperm

b)

Two identical diploid cells result from spermatogonia mitosis

c)

One of these cells remains a spermatogonium, and the other becomes a primary spermatocyte

d)

Meiosis II results in secondary spermatocytes

27.

Identify the 6th step in spermatogenesis (the end result).

a)

Two identical diploid cells result from spermatogonia mitosis

b)

Meiosis I results in secondary spermatocytes, each with only half the number of chromosomes

c)

Meiosis II results in secondary spermatocytes

d)

Spermatozoa, or formed sperm

28.

Men constantly make sperm in a day even without ejaculation.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Sperm have a distinctive head, mid-piece, and tail region.

a)

False

b)

True

30.

The structure that covers most of the head of the sperm cell as a "cap".

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Cytosome

c)

Acrosome

d)

Capsule

31.

Tightly packed mitochondria fill the mid-piece of the sperm.

a)

False

b)

True

32.

The Acrosome cap that covers the head of the sperm contains enzymes that protect it from being destroyed by the female reproductive system.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

The mitochondria in the mid-piece of the sperm provides energy for the tail movement.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

The female body has normal/natural defenses to prevent ongoing pregnancy.

a)

False

b)

True

35.

What structures make up the duct system?

a)

Ductus deferens

b)

Seminal vesicles

c)

Prostate gland

d)

Bulbourethral gland

36.

The ductus deferens (vas deferens) is what gets snipped in a vasectomy.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Secretes milky fluid that helps thicken materials (semen).

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Prostatic urethra

c)

Seminal vesicles

d)

Ductus deferens

38.

The prostate gland in males doubles in size after puberty.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Only 5% of ejaculate is sperm.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

By age 60 about 40% of men will have prostate cancer.

a)

False

b)

True

41.

By age 80, there's an 80% chance of a male having prostate cancer.

a)

False

b)

True

42.

Prostate cancer is the 2nd most common cancer in men.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

The seminal vesicles make up about 60% of fluid and contains fructose that is used to make energy.

a)

False

b)

True

44.

About what size is the prostate gland?

a)

A pear

b)

A walnut

c)

A fist

d)

A coin

45.

Releases thick salty fluid; lubricates the end of the urethra for males; helps clean penile urethra of any remaining urine; lubricates the end of urethra for males; releases semen as men get aroused, prior to ejaculation.

a)

Ductus deferens

b)

Bulbourethral glands

c)

Seminal vesicles

d)

Prostate gland

46.

The erectile tissue of the penis causes it to fill with blood which then causes an erection.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

The shaft of the penis surrounds the urethra.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

The shaft of the penis is composed of three column-like chambers of erectile tissue that span the length of the shaft, what are they?

a)

-Corpora cavernosa (2)

-Corpus spongiosum (1)

b)

Smooth muscle chambers

c)

Striated muscle chambers

d)

Cardiac muscle

49.

The end of the penis, called the glans penis, has a high concentration of nerve endings.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

The skin from the shaft extends down over the glans and forms a collar called the prepuce (or foreskin).

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Erections are the result of vasocongestion.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Viagra only works for those who need it, it is ineffective for those who don't.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

A steroid hormone produced by Leydig cells.

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Testosterone

c)

Estrogen

d)

Progesterone

54.

Testosterone is not necessary to keep the male reproductive system working properly.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

The hypothalamus and the pituitary gland in the brain integrate external and internal signals to control testosterone synthesis and secretion.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Once puberty occurs, testosterone levels fall.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

The female reproductive system functions to produce gametes and reproductive hormones, just like the male reproductive system.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Has the additional task of supporting the developing fetus and delivering it to the outside world.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Female reproductive system

c)

Meiosis

d)

Male reproductive system

59.

The female reproductive system is located primarily inside the pelvic cavity.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

The female gonads

a)

Scrotum

b)

Ovaries

c)

Testes

d)

Pelvis

61.

Female sex cells

a)

Islet cells

b)

Gametes

c)

Oocytes

d)

Islets of langerhans

62.

All the external female reproductive structures.

a)

Penis

b)

Vulva

c)

Clitoris

d)

Vagina

63.

The pad of fat that covers the pubic bone.

a)

Hymen

b)

Labia minora

c)

Mons pubis

d)

Labia majora

64.

The Folds that surround the external genitalia of the vagina.

a)

Mons pubis

b)

Labia majora

c)

Labia minora

d)

Clitoris

65.

The thinner and more pigmented part of the vagina that protects the urethra and is the opening to the vagina.

a)

Labia minora

b)

Hymen

c)

Clitoris

d)

Vaginal opening

66.

Comes from the same cells as the glans penis, and is a huge congregation of nerve endings (75%).

a)

Clitoris

b)

Labia majora

c)

Labia minora

d)

Hymen

67.

The piece of tissue in a female that is partially torn from birth.

a)

Labia minora

b)

Clitoris

c)

Hymen

d)

Prepuce

68.

Part of the vagina found between the urethra and anus.

a)

Glans penis

b)

Clitoris

c)

Hymen

d)

Vagina opening

69.

A muscular canal (approximately 10 cm long) that serves as the entrance to the reproductive tract.

a)

Anus

b)

Penis

c)

Vagina

d)

Prepuce

70.

The vagina serves as the exit from the uterus during menses and childbirth.

a)

False

b)

True

71.

The vagina is home to a normal population of microorganisms that help to protect against infection by pathogenic bacteria, yeast, or other organisms that can enter the vagina.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Female douching isn't good because it kills microorganisms and destroys acidity.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

The ovaries are the female gonads.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Oocytes develop within the outer layer of the ovaries, each surrounded by supporting cells.

a)

False

b)

True

75.

The ovarian cycle is a set of predictable changes in a female’s oocytes and ovarian follicles.

a)

False

b)

True

76.

Identify the 1st step in oogenesis

a)

Even though oogenesis produces up to four cells, only one survives

b)

The process begins with the ovarian stem cells, or oogonia, which are formed during fetal development, and divide through mitosis

c)

Prior to ovulation, a surge of luteinizing hormone triggers the resumption of meiosis in a primary oocyte that initiates the transition from primary to secondary oocyte

d)

The cytoplasm is divided unequally, and one daughter cell is much larger than the other

77.

Identify the 2nd step in oogenesis

a)

Even though oogenesis produces up to four cells, only one survives

b)

Meiosis of a secondary oocyte is completed only if a sperm succeeds in penetrating its barriers and meiosis II then resumes

c)

The process begins with the ovarian stem cells, or oogonia, which are formed during fetal development, and divide through mitosis

d)

Primary oocytes are arrested in stage of meiosis I before birth, only to resume it years later, beginning at puberty and continuing until the woman is near menopause

78.

Identify the 3rd step in oogenesis

a)

The cytoplasm is divided unequally, and one daughter cell is much larger than the other

b)

The process begins with the ovarian stem cells, or oogonia, which are formed during fetal development, and divide through mitosis

c)

Prior to ovulation, a surge of luteinizing hormone triggers the resumption of meiosis in a primary oocyte that initiates the transition from primary to secondary oocyte

d)

Even though oogenesis produces up to four cells, only one survives

79.

Identify the 4th step in oogenesis

a)

The cytoplasm is divided unequally, and one daughter cell is much larger than the other

b)

Even though oogenesis produces up to four cells, only one survives

c)

Meiosis of a secondary oocyte is completed only if a sperm succeeds in penetrating its barriers and meiosis II then resumes

d)

The process begins with the ovarian stem cells, or oogonia, which are formed during fetal development, and divide through mitosis

80.

Identify the 5th step in oogenesis

a)

This larger cell, the secondary oocyte, eventually leaves the ovary during ovulation and the smaller cell, called the first polar body, may or may not complete meiosis and produce second polar bodies; in either case, it eventually disintegrates

b)

Prior to ovulation, a surge of luteinizing hormone triggers the resumption of meiosis in a primary oocyte that initiates the transition from primary to secondary oocyte

c)

The process begins with the ovarian stem cells, or oogonia, which are formed during fetal development, and divide through mitosis

d)

Even though oogenesis produces up to four cells, only one survives

81.

Identify the 6th step in oogenesis

a)

The process begins with the ovarian stem cells, or oogonia, which are formed during fetal development, and divide through mitosis

b)

This larger cell, the secondary oocyte, eventually leaves the ovary during ovulation and the smaller cell, called the first polar body, may or may not complete meiosis and produce second polar bodies; in either case, it eventually disintegrates

c)

Prior to ovulation, a surge of luteinizing hormone triggers the resumption of meiosis in a primary oocyte that initiates the transition from primary to secondary oocyte

d)

Even though oogenesis produces up to four cells, only one survives

82.

Identify the 7th step in oogenesis

a)

Meiosis of a secondary oocyte is completed only if a sperm succeeds in penetrating its barriers and meiosis II then resumes

b)

Even though oogenesis produces up to four cells, only one survives

c)

This larger cell, the secondary oocyte, eventually leaves the ovary during ovulation and the smaller cell, called the first polar body, may or may not complete meiosis and produce second polar bodies; in either case, it eventually disintegrates

d)

The cytoplasm is divided unequally, and one daughter cell is much larger than the other

83.

A process in which ovarian follicles (oocytes) and their supporting cells grow and develop.

a)

Folliculogenesis

b)

Erthropotioten

c)

Menstruation

d)

Puberty

84.

In the process of folliculogenesis, follicles progress from primordial, to primary, to secondary and tertiary stages prior to ovulation—with the oocyte inside the follicle remaining as a primary oocyte until right before ovulation.

a)

False

b)

True

85.

As in men, the hypothalamus produces GnRH, a hormone that signals the anterior pituitary gland to produce the gonadotropins FSH and LH.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

The hormone that stimulates the follicles to grow.

a)

Follicle-stimulating hormone

b)

Luteinizing hormone

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Renin

87.

A large burst of LH (called the LH surge) leads to ovulation of the dominant follicle.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

The uterine tubes (also called fallopian tubes or oviducts) serve as the conduit of the oocyte from the ovary to the uterus.

a)

False

b)

True

89.

Following ovulation, the secondary oocyte surrounded by a few granulosa cells is released into the peritoneal cavity.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

If the oocyte is successfully fertilized, the resulting zygote will begin to divide into two cells, then four, and so on, as it makes its way through the uterine tube and into the uterus.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

The muscular organ that nourishes and supports the growing embryo.

a)

Penis

b)

Testes

c)

Uterus

d)

Scrotum

92.

The wall of the cervix is made up of 3 layers, what are they?

a)

Endometrium

b)

Serosa

c)

Myometrium

d)

Perimetrium

93.

the series of changes in which the uterine lining is shed, rebuilds, and prepares for implantation.

a)

The menstrual cycle

b)

Ovulation

c)

Puberty

d)

Birth

94.

There are 3 phases of the menstrual cycle.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

The lining is shed

a)

The proliferative phase

b)

The menses phase

c)

The secretory phase

d)

The ovulation phase

96.

Once menstrual flow ceases, the endometrium begins to proliferate again.

a)

The secretory phase

b)

The menses phase

c)

The proliferative phase

d)

The ovulation phase

97.

The endometrial lining prepares for implantation.

a)

The menses phase

b)

The proliferative phase

c)

The ovulation phase

d)

The secretory phase

98.

Functions to supply milk to infants in a process called lactation.

a)

Uterus

b)

Breats

c)

Nipples

d)

Estrogen

99.

The external features of the breast include a nipple surrounded by a pigmented circular areola.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

Produced by the mammary glands (which are modified sweat glands).

a)

Water

b)

Semen

c)

Breast milk

d)

Urine

101.

The lactiferous ducts each extend to a lactiferous sinus that connects to a glandular lobe within the breast itself that contains groups of milk-secreting cells in clusters called alveoli.

a)

False

b)

True

102.

They work by providing a constant level of both estrogen and progesterone, which negatively feeds back onto the hypothalamus and pituitary, thus preventing the release of FSH and LH.

a)

Hormonal birth control

b)

Condoms

c)

Vasectomy

d)

Viagra

103.

Without FSH, the follicles do not mature, and without the LH surge, ovulation does not occur.

a)

False

b)

True

104.

Although the estrogen in birth control pills does stimulate some thickening of the endometrial wall, it is reduced compared with a normal cycle and is less likely to support implantation.

a)

False

b)

True

105.

To become a male, an individual must be exposed to the cascade of factors initiated by a single gene on the male Y chromosome. This is called the SRY (Sexdetermining Region of the Y chromosome). Because females do not have a Y chromosome, they do not have the SRY gene. Without a functional SRYgene, an individual will be female.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

The SRY gene actively recruits other genes that begin to develop the testes, and suppresses genes that are important in female development.

a)

False

b)

True

107.

A concerted release of hormones from the hypothalamus (GnRH), the anterior pituitary (LH and FSH), and the gonads (either testosterone or estrogen) is responsible for the maturation of the reproductive systems and the development of secondary sex characteristics, which are physical changes that serve auxiliary roles in reproduction.

a)

True

b)

False

108.

In addition to age, multiple factors can affect the age of onset of puberty, including genetics, environment, and psychological stress.

a)

False

b)

True

109.

Sexually transmitted infections (STIs), are also known as sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) or general diseases (VDs).

a)

True

b)

False

110.

The single most important cause of reproductive disorders.

a)

Fetal alcohol syndrome

b)

STIs

c)

Enemas

d)

Genetics

111.

Bacterial infection of mucosae of reproductive and urinary tracts.

a)

Genital herpes

b)

HIV

c)

Gonorrhea

d)

Syphilis

112.

Identify the signs/symptoms of gonorrhea in males

a)

Urethritis

b)

Painful urination

c)

Polyuria

d)

Discharge of pus

113.

Identify the signs/symptoms of gonorrhea in females

a)

Abdominal discomfort, vaginal discharge, or abnormal uterine bleeding

b)

20% of females display no signs or symptoms

c)

Jaundice

d)

Pelvic inflammatory disease and sterility

114.

Gonorrhea can be treated with antibiotics, however, resistant strains are becoming prevalent.

a)

False

b)

True

115.

Bacterial infection transmitted sexually or contracted congenitally.

a)

HIV

b)

Chlamydia

c)

Syphilis

d)

Herpes

116.

When a person has syphilis, symptoms are asymptomatic for 2-3 weeks.

a)

True

b)

False

117.

If untreated, secondary signs appear several weeks later for 3–12 weeks, and then disappear: pink skin rash, fever, and joint pain.

a)

Syphilis

b)

HIV

c)

Chlamydia

d)

Herpes

118.

The latent period of syphilis may or may not progress to tertiary syphilis, characterized by gummas (lesions of the CNS, blood vessels, bones, and skin).

a)

False

b)

True

119.

A rash is a symptom of secondary syphilis. The skin rash in secondary syphilis can form on the trunk, arms, and even plans or soles. The rash does not hurt or itch, and can persist for months.

a)

True

b)

False

120.

The pathology of latent or tertiary syphilis is a ring-shaped erosive gumma that appears on the nose of patients. Other gummas can be internal.

a)

False

b)

True

121.

The most common bacterial STI in the united states.

a)

Chlamydia

b)

HIV

c)

Syphilis

d)

Herpes

122.

Responsible for 25–50% of all diagnosed cases of pelvic inflammatory disease.

a)

Syphilis

b)

Aids

c)

Chlamydia

d)

Herpes

123.

Chlamydia can cause arthritis and urinary tract infections in men, and sterility in women.

a)

True

b)

False

124.

Caused by human papillomavirus (HPV)

a)

Genital warts

b)

Chlamydia

c)

Syphilis

d)

HIV

125.

The second most common STI in the united states.

a)

HIV

b)

Herpes

c)

Genital warts

d)

Chlamydia

126.

Caused by human herpes virus type 2

a)

Genital herpes

b)

Genital warts

c)

HIV

d)

Chlamydia

127.

Sex disease characterized by latent periods and flare-ups

a)

Genital herpes

b)

Genital warts

c)

HIV

d)

Chlamydia

128.

Congenital herpes can cause malformations in a fetus.

a)

True

b)

False

129.

Vesicles start out separate but become confluent and ulcerate into painful red erosions so tender that inspection can be difficult.

a)

Syphilis

b)

AIDS

c)

Genital herpes

d)

Chlamydia

130.

Caused by infections with the herpes simplex virus (the cold sore virus), these painful deep-set vesicles can become inflamed and necrotic and are difficult to treat. They occur most frequently in dental and medical personnel or people who carelessly touch lesions on themselves or others.

a)

Genital warts

b)

Edema

c)

Herpetic whitlows

d)

Genital herpes