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Development and inheritance

Total questions: 124

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Occurs when a sperm and oocyte (egg) combine and their nuclei fuse

a)

Menstruation

b)

Fertilization

c)

Implantation

d)

Birth

2.

There are several barriers for sperm.

a)

False

b)

True

3.

Fluids in the female reproductive tract prepare the sperm for fertilization through a process called capacitation.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Contact between the sperm and oocyte

a)

Pregnancy

b)

Menstruation

c)

Ovulation

d)

Birth

5.

Sperm penetrates 2 protective layers

a)

False

b)

True

6.

A typical In vitro fertilization (IVF) procedure begins with egg collection.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

The period of time required for the full development of a fetus in utero.

a)

Gestation

b)

Menstruation

c)

The fetal period

d)

Birth

8.

Following fertilization, the zygote and its associated membranes, together referred to as the conceptus.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Approximately 3 days after fertilization, a 16-cell conceptus reaches the uterus.

a)

False

b)

True

10.

Once inside the uterus, the conceptus floats freely for several more days. It continues to divide, creating a ball of approximately 100 cells, and consuming nutritive endometrial secretions called uterine milk while the uterine lining thickens.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

At the end of the first week, the blastocyst comes in contact with the uterine wall and adheres to it, embedding itself in the uterine lining via the trophoblast cells beginning the process of implantation.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

The blastocyst typically implants in the fundus of the uterus or on the posterior wall.

a)

False

b)

True

13.

A significant percentage (50–75 percent) of blastocysts fail to implant; when this occurs, the blastocyst is shed with the endometrium during menses.

a)

False

b)

True

14.

When implantation succeeds and the blastocyst adheres to the endometrium, the superficial cells of the trophoblast fuse with each other, forming the syncytiotrophoblast, a multinucleated body that digests endometrial cells to firmly secure the blastocyst to the uterine wall.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

The trophoblast secrets what hormone?

a)

Human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)

b)

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Luteinizing hormone

16.

If the embryo implants in the inferior portion of the uterus, the placenta can potentially grow over the opening of the cervix, a condition call placenta previa.

a)

False

b)

True

17.

In the vast majority of ectopic pregnancies, the embryo does not complete its journey to the uterus and implants in the uterine tube, referred to as a tubal pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

During the second week of development, with the embryo implanted in the uterus, cells within the blastocyst start to organize into layers.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

The embryo, which takes the shape of an oval-shaped disc, forms an indentation called the primitive streak along the dorsal surface of the epiblast.

a)

Meiosis

b)

Embryogenesis

c)

Menstruation

d)

Mitosis

20.

In embryogenesis, cells migrate toward and through the primitive streak and then move laterally to create two new layers of cells.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Identify the 1st layer of cells in embryogenesis

a)

Myometrium

b)

Endoderm-a sheet of cells that displaces the hypoblast and lies adjacent to the yolk sac

c)

Mesoderm-this layer of cells fills in as the middle layer

d)

Ectoderm-the cells of the epiblast that remain (not having migrated through the primitive streak)

22.

Identify the 2nd layer of cells in embryogenesis

a)

Ectoderm-the cells of the epiblast that remain (not having migrated through the primitive streak)

b)

Pericardium

c)

Mesoderm-this layer of cells fills in as the middle layer

d)

Endoderm-a sheet of cells that displaces the hypoblast and lies adjacent to the yolk sac

23.

Identify the 3rd layer of cells in embryogenesis

a)

Mesoderm-this layer of cells fills in as the middle layer

b)

Ectoderm-the cells of the epiblast that remain (not having migrated through the primitive streak)

c)

Myocardium

d)

Muscularis

24.

Whereas the ectoderm and endoderm form tightly connected epithelial sheets, the mesodermal cells are less organized and exist as a loosely connected cell community.

a)

False

b)

True

25.

This germ layer gives rise to cell lineages that differentiate to become the central and peripheral nervous systems, sensory organs, epidermis, hair, and nails.

a)

Serosa

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Endoderm

26.

Mesodermal cells ultimately become the skeleton, muscles, connective tissue, heart, blood vessels, and kidneys.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

This germ layer goes on to form the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal tract, liver, and pancreas, as well as the lungs.

a)

Endoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Pendoderm

28.

During prenatal weeks 4–12, the developing placenta gradually takes over the role of feeding the embryo.

a)

False

b)

True

29.

The mature placenta is composed of tissues derived from the embryo, as well as maternal tissues of the endometrium.

a)

False

b)

True

30.

The placenta connects to the conceptus via the umbilical cord, which carries deoxygenated blood and wastes from the fetus through two umbilical arteries; nutrients and oxygen are carried from the mother to the fetus through the single umbilical vein.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

The umbilical cord is surrounded by the amnion, and the spaces within the cord around the blood vessels are filled with Wharton’s jelly, a mucous connective tissue.

a)

False

b)

True

32.

Identify the ways the placenta functions in nutrition and digestion.

a)

Mediates diffusion of maternal glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, vitamins, and minerals

b)

Stores nutrients during early pregnancy to accommodate increased fetal demand later in pregnancy

c)

Regulates movement of food through the small intestine

d)

Excretes and filters fetal nitrogenous wastes into maternal blood

33.

How does the placenta function in respiration?

a)

Mediates diffusion of maternal glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, vitamins, and minerals

b)

Mediates the transmission of maternal hormones into fetal blood and vice versa

c)

Mediates maternal-to-fetal oxygen transport and fetal-tomaternal carbon dioxide transport

d)

Excretes and filters fetal nitrogenous wastes into maternal blood

34.

Identify the ways the placenta functions in edocrine

a)

Secretes several hormones, including hCG, estrogens, and progesterone, to maintain the pregnancy and stimulate maternal and fetal development

b)

Mediates maternal-to-fetal oxygen transport and fetal-tomaternal carbon dioxide transport

c)

Excretes and filters fetal nitrogenous wastes into maternal blood

d)

Mediates the transmission of maternal hormones into fetal blood and vice versa

35.

What is the correct order of organogenesis?

a)

1) Neurulation

2) Neural plate

3) Neural fold

4) Neural tube

5)Notochord

6) Somites

b)

1) Somites

2) Notochord

3) Neural tube

4) Neural fold

5) Neural plate

6) Neurulation

c)

1) Neural plate

2) Neural tube

3) Somites

4) Notochord

5) Neurulation

6) Neural fold

d)

1) Neural fold

2) Somites

3) Neurulation

4) Neural tube

5) Neural plate

6) Notochord

36.

The embryo folds laterally and again at either end, forming a C-shape with distinct head and tail ends.

a)

False

b)

True

37.

The folding of the embryo essentially creates a tube, called the primitive gut, that is lined by the endoderm.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

In the first few weeks of life, organogenesis begins to take place.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

The heart begins beating

a)

6th week of organogenesis

b)

4th week of organogenesis

c)

7th week of organogenesis

d)

5th week of organogenesis

40.

The eye pits form, limb buds become apparent, and the rudiments of the pulmonary system are formed

a)

4th-5th week of organogenesis

b)

6th week of organogenesis

c)

7th week of organgoenesis

d)

8th week of organogenesis

41.

Uncontrolled fetal limb movements begin to occur

a)

5th week of organogenesis

b)

6th week of organogenesis

c)

8th week of organogenesis

d)

8th week of organogenesis

42.

The facial structure is more complex and includes nostrils, outer ears, and lenses

a)

4th week of organogenesis

b)

7th week of organogenesis

c)

8th week of organogenesis

d)

5th week of organogenesis

43.

The head is nearly as large as the rest of the embryo's body, and all major brain structures are in place and the external genitalia are apparent, but at this point, male and female embryos are indistinguishable

a)

8th week of organogenesis

b)

7th week of organogenesis

c)

4th week of organogenesis

d)

5th week of organogenesis

44.

Bone begins to replace cartilage in the embryonic skeleton through the process of ossification.

a)

False

b)

True

45.

Sexual differentiation does not begin until the fetal period, during weeks 9–12.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Gonads can develop into male or female sexual organs, and are connected to a central cavity called the cloaca via Müllerian ducts and Wolffian ducts

a)

False

b)

True

47.

During male fetal development, the gonads become the testes and associated epididymis, the Müllerian ducts degenerate, the Wolffian ducts become the vas deferens, and the cloaca becomes the urethra and rectum.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

During female fetal development, the gonads develop into ovaries, the Wolffian ducts degenerate, the Müllerian ducts become the uterine tubes and uterus, and the cloaca divides and develops into a vagina, a urethra, and a rectum.

a)

False

b)

True

49.

The fetal circulatory system is integrated with the placenta via the umbilical cord so that the fetus receives both oxygen and nutrients from the placenta.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Identify the structures of the fetal circulatory system

a)

Umbilical vein

b)

Ductus venosus

c)

Foramen ovale

d)

Ductus arteriosus

e)

Umbilical arteries

51.

The brain continues to expand, the body elongates, and ossification continues

a)

week 21-30 of fetal development

b)

week 16-20 of fetal development

c)

week 9-12 of fetal development

d)

week 13-16 of fetal development

52.

Marked by sensory organ development

a)

week 21-30 of fetal development

b)

week 13-16 of fetal development

c)

week 9-12 of fetal development

d)

week 31 of fetal development

53.

As the fetus grows and limb movements become more powerful, the mother begins to feel quickening, or fetal movements.

a)

week 16-20 of fetal development

b)

week 31 of fetal development

c)

weeks 9-12 of fetal development

d)

week 13-16 of fetal development

54.

Characterized by rapid weight gain, which is important for maintaining a stable body temperature after birth

a)

week 9-12 of fetal development

b)

week 31 of fetal development

c)

week 21-30 of fetal development

d)

week 13-16 of fetal development

55.

The fetus continues to lay down subcutaneous fat from week 31 until birth.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

How long does a full-term pregnancy last from conception to birth?

a)

270 days (38.5 weeks)

b)

300 days

c)

365 days

d)

200 days

57.

Because it is easier to remember the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP) than to estimate the date of conception, obstetricians set the due date as 284 days (40.5 weeks) from the LMP.

a)

False

b)

True

58.

The 40 weeks of an average pregnancy are usually discussed in terms of three trimesters, each approximately 13 weeks.

a)

False

b)

True

59.

During the second and third trimesters, the pre-pregnancy uterus grows dramatically to contain the fetus, causing a number of anatomical changes in the mother.

a)

False

b)

True

60.

Virtually all of the effects of pregnancy can be attributed in some way to the influence of hormones—particularly estrogens, progesterone, and hCG.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

During weeks 7–12 from the LMP, the pregnancy hormones are primarily generated by the corpus luteum.

a)

False

b)

True

62.

As the placenta develops and the corpus luteum degenerates during weeks 12–17, the placenta gradually takes over as the endocrine organ of pregnancy.

a)

False

b)

True

63.

A hormone secreted by the corpus luteum and the placenta that helps prepare the mother's body for childbirth.

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Angiotensin ll

c)

Relaxin

d)

Renin

64.

The anterior pituitary enlarges and ramps up its hormone production during pregnancy, raising the levels of thyrotropin, prolactin, and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

a)

False

b)

True

65.

What are the most obvious anatomical signs of pregnancy?

a)

Dramatic enlargement of the abdominal region

b)

Maternal weight gain

c)

Maternal weight loss

d)

Oliguria

66.

What factors cause weight gain in pregnant mothers?

a)

Growing fetus

b)

Enlarged uterus

c)

Amniotic fluid

d)

Placenta

67.

Additional breast tissue and dramatically increased blood volume also contribute to weight gain.

a)

False

b)

True

68.

During the first trimester, the mother does not need to consume additional calories to maintain a healthy pregnancy.

a)

False

b)

True

69.

About how much weight does a pregnant mother gain per month?

a)

1 lb.

b)

2 lb.

c)

5 lb.

d)

3 lb.

70.

Morning sickness is nausea and vomiting during pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

The source of pregnancy nausea is thought to be the increased circulation of pregnancy-related hormones, specifically circulating estrogen, progesterone, and hCG.

a)

False

b)

True

72.

A common gastrointestinal complaint during the later stages of pregnancy is gastric reflux, or heartburn, which results from the upward, constrictive pressure of the growing uterus on the stomach.

a)

False

b)

True

73.

The downward pressure of the uterus also compresses the urinary bladder, leading to frequent urination.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Blood volume increases substantially during pregnancy, so that by childbirth, it exceeds its preconception volume by 30 percent, or approximately 1–2 liters.

a)

False

b)

True

75.

As the fetus grows, the uterus compresses underlying pelvic blood vessels, hampering venous return from the legs and pelvic region, which can result in many pregnant women developing varicose veins or hemorrhoids.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

During the second half of pregnancy, the respiratory minute volume (volume of gas inhaled or exhaled by the lungs per minute) increases by how much?

a)

50%

b)

75%

c)

0%

d)

12%

77.

The growing uterus exerts upward pressure on the diaphragm.

a)

False

b)

True

78.

During the last several weeks of pregnancy, the pelvis becomes more elastic.

a)

False

b)

True

79.

The dermis of the skin stretches extensively to accommodate the growing uterus, breast tissue, and fat deposits on the thighs and hips.

a)

False

b)

True

80.

Striae

a)

Cushing's syndrome

b)

Cellulite

c)

Stretch marks

d)

Addison's disease

81.

An increase in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone, in conjunction with estrogens, darkens the areolae and creates a line of pigment from the umbilicus to the pubis called the linea nigra.

a)

False

b)

True

82.

As the pregnancy enters its 7th month, progesterone levels plateau & then drop.

a)

False

b)

True

83.

These levels rise in maternal circulation

a)

Prolactin

b)

Estrogen

c)

Testosterone

d)

ADH

84.

The increasing ratio of estrogen to progesterone makes the myometrium more sensitive to stimuli that promote contractions.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

In the 8th month of pregnancy, fetal cortisol rises, which boosts estrogen secretion by the placenta and further overpowers the uterine-calming effects of progesterone.

a)

False

b)

True

86.

The common sign that labor will be short is called what?

a)

"Bloody show"

b)

Uterine contractions

c)

Fast heart rate

d)

Increased BP

87.

During labor, this area of the brain boosts its secretion of oxytocin (a hormone that stimulates the contractions of labor).

a)

Pituitary gland

b)

Posterior pituitary

c)

Anterior pituitary

d)

Pineal gland

88.

As labor nears, oxytocin begins to stimulate stronger, more painful uterine contractions.

a)

False

b)

True

89.

Finally, stretching of the myometrium and cervix by a full-term fetus in the vertex (head-down) position is regarded as a stimulant to uterine contractions.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

For vaginal birth to occur, the cervix must dilate fully to how many centimeters?

a)

12 cm

b)

5 cm

c)

7 cm

d)

10 cm

91.

True labor progresses in a positive feedback loop in which uterine contractions stretch the cervix, causing it to dilate and efface, or become thinner.

a)

False

b)

True

92.

Begins when the fetal head enters the birth canal and ends with birth of the newborn

a)

Contraction stage

b)

Expulsion stage

c)

Birth stage

d)

Menstruation stage

93.

The most common vertex presentation associated with the greatest ease of vaginal birth

a)

Occiput anterior vertex

b)

Parietal anterior vertex

c)

Ventral dorsalis

d)

Posterior vertex

94.

The fetus faces the maternal spinal cord and the smallest part of the head (the posterior aspect called the occiput) exits the birth canal first.

a)

False

b)

True

95.

The delivery of the placenta and associated membranes commonly referred to as the afterbirth

a)

The final stage of childbirth

b)

The initial stage of childbirth

c)

2 hours after childbirth

d)

1 year before childbirth

96.

Marks the beginning of the postpartum period— the period of approximately 6 weeks immediately following childbirth during which the mother’s body gradually returns to a non-pregnant state

a)

The period after a c-section

b)

The period after the cervix dilates

c)

Delivery of the placenta

d)

Delivery of the baby

97.

During gestation, the partially collapsed lungs are filled with amniotic fluid and exhibit very little metabolic activity

a)

False

b)

True

98.

Several factors stimulate newborns to take their first breath at birth

a)

True

b)

False

99.

First, labor contractions temporarily constrict umbilical blood vessels, reducing oxygenated blood flow to the fetus and elevating carbon dioxide levels in the blood

a)

True

b)

False

100.

High carbon dioxide levels cause acidosis and stimulate the respiratory center in the brain, triggering the newborn to take a breath

a)

False

b)

True

101.

The first breath of a baby is typically taken within how many seconds of birth?

a)

25 seconds

b)

20 seconds

c)

10 seconds

d)

15 seconds

102.

The process of clamping and cutting the umbilical cord collapses the umbilical blood vessels

a)

False

b)

True

103.

The ductus venosus degenerates to become the ligamentum venosum beneath the liver

a)

True

b)

False

104.

Flow of blood temporarily reverses direction through the foramen ovale, moving from the left to the right atrium, and blocking the shunt with two flaps of tissue

a)

True

b)

False

105.

The ductus arteriosus constricts as a result of increased oxygen concentration, and becomes the ligamentum arteriosum

a)

False

b)

True

106.

The first consumption of breast milk or formula floods the neonatal gastrointestinal tract with beneficial bacteria that begin to establish the bacterial flora

a)

True

b)

False

107.

The fetal kidneys filter blood and produce urine, but the neonatal kidneys are still immature and inefficient at concentrating urine

a)

False

b)

True

108.

Newborns produce very dilute urine, making it particularly important for infants to obtain sufficient fluids from breast milk or formula

a)

True

b)

False

109.

The Apgar score was introduced in 1952 by the anesthesiologist Dr. Virginia Apgar as a method to assess the effects on the newborn of anesthesia given to the laboring mother

a)

False

b)

True

110.

What is the five criteria of the APGAR?

a)

Skin color

b)

Heart rate

c)

Reflex muscle tone

d)

Respiration

111.

APGAR scores are taken at 1 minute after birth and again at 5 minutes after birth

a)

False

b)

True

112.

High APGAR scores (out of a possible 10) indicate the baby has made the transition from the womb well, whereas lower scores indicate that the baby may be in distress

a)

False

b)

True

113.

The process by which milk is synthesized and secreted from the mammary glands of the postpartum female breast in response to an infant sucking at the nipple

a)

Expansion

b)

Secretion

c)

Lactation

d)

Dilation

114.

The mammary gland is composed of milk-transporting lactiferous ducts

a)

False

b)

True

115.

Balloon-like structures lined with milk-secreting cuboidal cells, or lactocytes, that are surrounded by a net of contractile myoepithelial cells.

a)

Breast alveoli

b)

Oocytes

c)

Sperm

d)

Epipdymis

116.

Clusters of alveoli that drain to a common duct

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

Lobules

c)

Lungs

d)

Leydig cells

117.

The lactating female has 12–20 lobules organized radially around the nipple

a)

True

b)

False

118.

Milk drains from lactiferous ducts into lactiferous sinuses that meet at 4 to 18 perforations in the nipple, called nipple pores

a)

False

b)

True

119.

The pituitary hormone that is instrumental in the establishment and maintenance of breast milk supply

a)

FSH

b)

Prolactin

c)

Oxytocin

d)

ADH

120.

Near the fifth week of pregnancy, the level of circulating prolactin begins to increase, eventually rising to approximately 10–20 times the pre-pregnancy concentration

a)

True

b)

False

121.

After childbirth, the baseline prolactin level drops sharply, but it is restored for a 1-hour spike during each feeding to stimulate the production of milk for the next feeding

a)

True

b)

False

122.

When the infant suckles, sensory nerve fibers in the areola trigger a neuroendocrine reflex that results in milk secretion from lactocytes into the alveoli

a)

True

b)

False

123.

Releases oxytocin which stimulates myoepithelial cells to squeeze milk from the alveoli

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Posterior pituitary

c)

Anterior pituitary

d)

Pons

124.

It takes less than 1 minute from the time when an infant begins suckling (the latent period) until milk is secreted (the let-down)

a)

False

b)

True