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AICE MARINE EXTRA Exam REVIEW PT 1

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a controlled variable?

a)

Coral Growth

b)

Temperature

c)

Light

d)

Butterfly Fish

e)

All of these choices are control variables

2.

The scientists concluded that coral growth is negatively impacted by the presence of butterfly fish. Was their conclusion supported by the data?

a)

YES

b)

NO

3.

Which of the following could impact the validity of conclusions made in this experiment?

a)

a. The study needed more controlled variables.

b)

b. Measurement of the coral was conducted by different people.

c)

c. The measurement device was inaccurate

d)

A and C only

e)

A, B and C

4.

Which of the following changes would improve the validity of this experiment?

a)

a. Increasing the measurements to once a day, for one week.

b)

b. Increasing the measurements to every hour, for 24 hours.

c)

c. Increasing the number of times the samples were tested.

d)

A and C only

e)

A, B, and C

5.

How many controlled variables need to be discussed in the AICE Exam?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

8

6.

How many independent variables were tested in this study?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

8

7.

You are asked to design an experiment to test the hypothesis that the rate of photosynthesis of an aquatic plant increases as light intensity increases. Identify which of the following variables are controlled, dependent, or independent:


TEMPERATURE

a)

Controlled Variable

b)

Dependent Variable

c)

Independent Variable

8.

You are asked to design an experiment to test the hypothesis that the rate of photosynthesis of an aquatic plant increases as light intensity increases. Identify which of the following variables are controlled, dependent, or independent:


LIGHT DURATION

a)

Controlled Variable

b)

Dependent Variable

c)

Independent Variable

9.

You are asked to design an experiment to test the hypothesis that the rate of photosynthesis of an aquatic plant increases as light intensity increases. Identify which of the following variables are controlled, dependent, or independent:


WAVELENGTH OF LIGHT

a)

Controlled Variable

b)

Dependent Variable

c)

Independent Variable

10.

You are asked to design an experiment to test the hypothesis that the rate of photosynthesis of an aquatic plant increases as light intensity increases.

Identify which of the following variables are controlled, dependent, or independent:


LIGHT INTENSITY

a)

Controlled Variable

b)

Dependent Variable

c)

Independent Variable

11.

You are asked to design an experiment to test the hypothesis that the rate of photosynthesis of an aquatic plant increases as light intensity increases.

Identify which of the following variables are controlled, dependent, or independent:


SPECIES OF PLANT

a)

Controlled Variable

b)

Dependent Variable

c)

Independent Variable

12.

You are asked to design an experiment to test the hypothesis that the rate of photosynthesis of an aquatic plant increases as light intensity increases.

Identify which of the following variables are controlled, dependent, or independent:


SALINITY

a)

Controlled Variable

b)

Dependent Variable

c)

Independent Variable

13.

You are asked to design an experiment to test the hypothesis that the rate of photosynthesis of an aquatic plant increases as light intensity increases.

Identify which of the following variables are controlled, dependent, or independent:


DO of the water

a)

Controlled Variable

b)

Dependent Variable

c)

Independent Variable

14.

You are asked to design an experiment to test the hypothesis that the rate of photosynthesis of an aquatic plant increases as light intensity increases.

Identify which of the following variables are controlled, dependent, or independent:


LEVEL OF NUTRIENTS

a)

Controlled Variable

b)

Dependent Variable

c)

Independent Variable

15.

Why might a theory or scientific law change after it has reached general acceptance?

a)

A theory or scientific law can never be changed.

b)

One scientist may become jealous of another’s success.

c)

Further scientific research may lead to conflicting information.

d)

Peer reviewers might find fault with the theory prior to publication.

16.

What is a hypothesis?

a)

the same thing as an unproven theory

b)

a tentative explanation that can be tested and is falsifiable

c)

a verifiable observation sensed directly, or sensed indirectly with the aid of scientific instrumentation

d)

a fact based on qualitative data that is testable

e)

a fact based on quantitative data that is falsifiable

17.

Why is it important that an experiment include a control group?

a)

The control group is the group that the researcher is in control of; it is the group in which the researcher predetermines the nature of the results.

b)

The control group provides a reserve of experimental

subjects.

c)

A control group is required for the development of an "if, then" statement.

d)

A control group assures that an experiment will be repeatable.

e)

Without a control group, there is no basis for knowing if a particular result is due to the variable being tested or to some other factor.

18.

Hypotheses are refined through which of the following:

a)

Comparison to a hypothesis of a previous scientist.

b)

Further education of the pertinent topics.

c)

Further observation.

d)

Scrutiny from the general public.

19.

All of the following can be considered definitions of “theory” except:

a)

a theory is an explanation of scientific laws

b)

a theory is an integrated explanation of numerous hypotheses, each supported by a large body of observations and experiments

c)

a theory is a condensation and simplification of many data that previously appeared unrelated

d)

a theory is a prediction for new data suggesting new relationships among a range of natural phenomena

e)

a theory is an ethical principle based on a religious foundation

20.

In this experiment, Group 1 is your:

a)

Variable Group

b)

Control Group

c)

Replication Group

d)

Hypothesis Group

e)

Experimental Group

21.

Which of the following represents the hypothesis that you are testing with this experiment?

a)

Lionfish will eventually invade all 20 reefs.

b)

Lionfish will kill off the wrasse populations of a recently invaded reef

c)

Lionfish should be removed from coral reefs because they are killing the small reef fish.

d)

Lionfish are negatively affecting populations of reef fish in the Bahamas.

e)

None of these is an appropriate hypothesis for your study.

22.

Based solely on the data represented in the associated table, what can you report to the NOAA research team that contracted you to do this study?

a)

Lionfish eat the zooxanthellae in coral and are limiting the amount of habitat available for new reef fish to inhabit.

b)

The reef fish are unaffected by the presence of the lionfish.

c)

Fewer individuals of the reef fish settle in coral reefs with the presence of lionfish when compared to areas without.

d)

It will be impossible to remove lionfish from the coral reefs because they are too aggressive and poisonous.

e)

Lionfish reproduce much faster than native reef fish and will dominate all of the reefs in the Bahamas within a decade.

23.

Your study is ultimately deemed to be unsuccessful. One possible reason is:

a)

The hypothesis was refuted by the data collected, and therefore deemed inconclusive by the research team.

b)

Each person that conducted the surveys of reef fish had a different method for surveying the fish populations.

c)

The data suggested that lionfish will not impact reef fish and does not support the common belief that lionfish are a detrimental non-native species.

d)

One population of fish did not behave as expected and therefore disrupted the results of the experiment.

24.

An effective independent variable would be:

a)

The number of fish added to each tank.

b)

The number of eggs that mature into adulthood.

c)

The amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the water.

d)

The amount of salt dissolved in the water.

25.

All of the following are effective controls except:

a)

pH

b)

Salinity

c)

Temperature

d)

Species

26.

In order for your hypothesis to be substantiated by your results, you must observe the following trend:

a)

As pH increases, the number of offspring decreases.

b)

As pH decreases, the number of offspring decreases.

c)

The higher the salinity, the lower the number of offspring.

d)

The lower the salinity, the higher the number of offspring.

27.

In conjunction with the experiment on fish larvae, you design an experiment to study the effects of ocean acidification on adult sardines. An effective control is:

a)

a group of sardines in saltwater with a pH of 3, the projected pH of the ocean.

b)

a group of sardines in saltwater with a pH of 8.2, the average pH of the ocean.

c)

a group of sardines in saltwater with a pH of 7, neutral acidity.

d)

a group of herring in saltwater of normal pH and salinity.

28.

An effective dependent variable would be:

a)

The number of fish that die.

b)

The pH of the solution.

c)

The amount of energy transferred throughout the tank.

d)

The amount of food given to each fish.

29.

Your ocean acidification studies are widely accepted by the scientific community. However, a fellow marine biologist states that, "While the data in your study appears to support that ocean acidification negatively impacts marine life, there are two reasons why your conclusions could be invalid." The two possible reasons are:

a)

The variability of the data collected and the inaccuracy of your measurements.

b)

Inaccurate measurements and using the wrong species of fish.

c)

Comparing fish at different developmental stages and not conducting experiments in a lab could lead to invalid conclusions

d)

The marine biologist is misinformed. Your conclusions are valid.

30.

Dr. McKee wondered if the temperature of the seawater in his aquaria would affect the growth of his coral specimens. He predicted that warmer temperatures will increase coral growth. He set each of his 5 aquaria at different temperatures and measured his coral growth after six months.


Was Dr. McKee’s hypothesis supported or rejected by the data?

a)

Supported

b)

Rejected

31.

What is the correct sequence of steps in the scientific method?

I. State the problem

II. Analyze and interpret the data

III. Develop a hypothesis

IV. Share the results with other scientists

V. Design and perform an experiment to test the hypothesis

a)

I- II – III – IV - V

b)

III – I – V – II - IV

c)

I – III – V – II - IV

d)

V – IV- III – II - I

e)

V – II – I – III – IV

32.

Which axis does the independent variable go on?

a)

y-axis

b)

x-axis

c)

a-axis

d)

b-axis

e)

c-axis

33.

How many independent variables should there be in an experiment?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

34.

When designing an experiment on the AICE Marine Science test, where should it be located?

a)

in a swimming pool

b)

in the ocean

c)

in a laboratory

d)

in a hot tub

35.

What kind of data should be referenced to/collected in your designed experiment?

a)

Made up data

b)

Qualitative data

c)

Controlled data

d)

Quantitative data

36.

"Fixation" means

a)

the spaying or neutering of marine mammals to prevent overpopulation

b)

binding an atom into a larger molecule

c)

adding carbon dioxide to a compound

d)

adding nitrogen to a compound

e)

removing oxygen from a large molecule

37.

The zone of lighted ocean in which marine autotrophs tap more energy than they use to stay alive are called:

a)

the photic zone

b)

the euphotic zone

c)

the abyssal zone

d)

the mesopelagic zone

e)

the hadal zone

38.

The 2 main inorganic nutrients necessary for the success of marine autotrophs are:

a)

carbon dioxide and carbohydrates.

b)

glucose and oxygen.

c)

nitrates and phosphates

d)

nitrates and carbohydrates

e)

phosphates and carbohydrates.

39.

The more efficient photosynthesizers of the two algae listed:

a)

diatom

b)

dinoflagellate

c)

both

d)

neither

40.

What is produced in primary productivity?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

cold, blue light

c)

carbohydrates

d)

gametes

e)

carbon atoms

41.

The organisms that consume autotrophs are called:

a)

primary producers.

b)

heterotrophs.

c)

secondary producers.

d)

secondary consumers.

e)

top carnivores.

42.

Organisms that can exist with light as an energy source and an inorganic form of carbon and other raw materials:

a)

are called photoautotrophs.

b)

do not exist in nature.

c)

are called heterotrophs.

d)

are best classified as decomposers.

43.

Check all that apply


Which type of organism obtains energy by metabolizing molecules produced by other organisms?

a)

autotrophs

b)

heterotrophs

c)

decomposers

44.

A plant has a unique photosynthetic pigment. The leaves of this plant appear to be reddish yellow. What wavelengths of visible light are not being absorbed by this pigment?

a)

red and yellow

b)

blue and violet

c)

green and yellow

d)

blue, green, and red

e)

reen, blue, and violet

45.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between photosynthesis and respiration?

a)

Photosynthesis is the reversal of the biochemical pathways of chemosynthesis.

b)

Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules, while respiration releases it

c)

Photosynthesis occurs only in plants and respiration occurs only in animals.

d)

Photosynthesis and chemosynthesis allow for autotrophs to harness energy from the sun and fixate the energy into ecosystems.

e)

Gross primary productivity is determined by the different between photosynthesis and cellular respiration.

46.

During an experiment, a scientist observed prokaryotes that lived near volcanic vents deep in the ocean. The scientist MOST likely observed:

a)

photoautotrophs.

b)

chemoautotrophs.

c)

heterotrophs.

d)

photoheterotrophs.

47.

What would be a direct consequence of the disappearance of nitrogen-fixing prokaryotes?

a)

Dead organisms would not break down

b)

Nutrients such as carbon would not be recycled.

c)

Food chains that depend on these producers for food would collapse.

d)

Organisms would not be able to get the nutrients they need to make proteins.

48.

What is the term for each step in the transfer of energy and matter within a food web?

a)

energy path

b)

food chain

c)

trophic level

d)

food pyramid

49.

What goes in Box 5 of the food web in the picture?

a)

herbivores

b)

scavengers

c)

carnivores

d)

decomposers

50.

What are the three kinds of ecological pyramids?

a)

producer, consumer, and decomposer

b)

energy, nutrient, and trophic

c)

energy, biomass, and numbers

d)

biotic, abiotic, and nutrient

51.

Matter can recycle through the biosphere because:

a)

matter does not change into new compounds.

b)

matter is assembled into chemical compounds.

c)

biological systems do not use up matter, they transform it.

d)

biological systems use only carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen.

52.

Nitrogen fixation is carried out primarily by:

a)

humans

b)

plants

c)

bacteria

d)

consumers

53.

The movements of energy and nutrients through living systems are different because:

a)

energy flows in one direction, and nutrients recycle.

b)

energy is limited in the biosphere, and nutrients are always available

c)

nutrients flow in one direction, and energy recycles.

d)

energy forms chemical compounds, and nutrients are lost as heat.

54.

Phosphorus is very important for living things because living organisms need phosphorus to:

a)

make carbohydrates

b)

form DNA and RNA.

c)

perform transpiration.

d)

cycle energy.

55.

Carbohydrates are not:

a)

stored potential energy

b)

made mostly of nitrogen and carbon

c)

broken down by cellular respiration

d)

made by producers

e)

used by decomposers

56.

The ultimate source of energy for communities associated with hydrothermal vents is:

a)

chemicals contained in hot seawater

b)

sinking detritus from the surface waters

c)

energy derived from photosynthesis, as in almost all other communities

d)

chemical synthesis of organic molecules by bacteria

e)

algae

57.

Which of the following organisms are producers in hydrothermal vent communities?

a)

bacteria

b)

algae

c)

fungi

d)

moss

e)

none of these

58.

in the Antarctic food web the second level of the food chain is occupied by:

a)

krill

b)

minnows

c)

algae

d)

tuna

e)

deep-sea bacteria

59.

The chemical energy stored in a plant is an example of:

a)

kinetic energy

b)

nuclear energy

c)

solar energy

d)

potential energy

e)

radiant energy

60.

The First Law of Thermodynamics states that:

a)

energy can be created or destroyed by physical processes

b)

entropy always increases

c)

energy cannot be created or destroyed

d)

the organization of the universe is steadily increasing

e)

energy transfer between organisms is inefficient and much energy is lost

61.

The correct, chemically balanced equation for photosynthesis is:

a)

12CO2 + 6H2O + RADIANT ENERGY -> C6H12O6 + 12O2

b)

6CO2 + 12H2O + RADIANT ENERGY -> C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2

c)

12O + C6H12O6 + 6H2O ® 6CO2 +12H2O + ENERGY

d)

12O2 + C6H12O6 + 12H2O ® 6CO2 + 12H2O + ENERGY

e)

6O2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O ® 6CO2 + 12H2O + ENERGY

62.

Check all that apply


Which of the following organisms are capable of cellular respiration?

a)

green plants

b)

bacteria

c)

carnivores

d)

algae

63.

A secondary consumer would eat:

a)

tertiary consumers

b)

dinoflagellates, the protists associated with red-tide

c)

bacteria

d)

herbivores

e)

phytoplankton

64.

In a pyramid of biomass, the trophic level of which organism would have the least biomass?

Phytoplankton, are eaten by copepods, which are eaten by squid, which are eaten by sea turtles.

a)

Phytoplankton

b)

Copepods

c)

Squid

d)

Sea turtles

e)

none of these, all trophic levels would be of equal biomass

65.

Check all that apply


Primary productivity can be represented by:

a)

phytoplankton growth per unit area per unit time

b)

carbohydrates produced per unit area per unit time

c)

the energy available from producers to herbivores

d)

amount of biomass found in excess of that broken down by a plant's cellular respiration

66.

The nitrogen cycle is one of the most important and complex of the biogeochemical cycles. It is important

because nitrogen:

a)

is a greenhouse gas

b)

is an essential part of biological molecules such as proteins and nucleic acids (DNA)

c)

is the most toxic element to living organisms

d)

dilutes the oxygen in the atmosphere causing respiratory problems

e)

is a crucial part of the process of photosynthesis

67.

During photosynthesis, plants, algae, and certain bacteria remove CO2 from the air and fix it into chemical compounds such as ______.

a)

water

b)

sugar

c)

salt

d)

acids

e)

ammonia

68.

The energy input into a food chain where kelp is the producer is which of the following:

a)

electricity

b)

the sun

c)

hydrogen sulfide

d)

the moon

e)

heat

69.

The biological need for magnesium is:

a)

to make bone

b)

to make teeth

c)

to make shells

d)

to make protein

e)

to make chlorophyll

70.

The equation to find net primary productivity is:

a)

GPP = R + NPP

b)

R = NPP – GPP

c)

NPP = GPP - R

d)

NPP = GPP + R

e)

GPP = NPP – R

71.

Check all that apply


The amount of oxygen that seawater can hold in solution will be greater:

a)

in colder, deeper water.

b)

in warmer, surface water.

c)

in turbid water.

d)

under less pressure

72.

The most abundant gaseous components of the Earth's atmosphere are:

a)

carbon dioxide and oxygen.

b)

nitrogen and hydrogen.

c)

nitrogen and carbon dioxide.

d)

nitrogen and oxygen.

e)

oxygen and carbon dioxide.

73.

The term "salinity" refers to

a)

the total amount of dissolved salts in the ocean.

b)

the total amount of silt dissolved in seawater.

c)

the total amount of chlorine in the water.

d)

the total amount of chloride ion in the water

e)

the total amount of sodium in the water

74.

Check all that apply


Which of the following is needed for a hurricane to develop?

a)

low pressure

b)

evaporation

c)

condensation

d)

spiral or cyclic winds

75.

Check all that apply


Sources of dissolved ions in seawater include:

a)

volcanoes

b)

hydrothermal vents

c)

runoff from land

76.

Which layer of the ocean experiences a large change in temperature with depth?

a)

halocline

b)

thermocline

c)

pycnocline

d)

photic zone

e)

 aphotic zone

77.

Seasonal changes in wind direction associated with large landmasses & adjacent water bodies are called

a)

polar fronts

b)

jet streams

c)

monsoons

d)

trade winds

e)

hurricanes

78.

A spring tide is higher than a neap tide, and only occurs during the spring and summer months in each hemisphere.

a)

true

b)

false

79.

The primary force(s) that cause(s) tides in the sea is (are):

a)

coastal earthquakes and landslides.

b)

wind and storms at sea.

c)

the gravitational attraction of the moon and the sun.

d)

the gravitational attraction of Mars and Venus

e)

the rotation of the moon on its axis.

80.

Hurricane Andrew, the most costly natural disaster to strike the United States, was a violent example of

a)

an extratropical cyclone.

b)

a monsoon.

c)

a tropical cyclone.

d)

a tornado.

e)

a frontal storm.

81.

Where does an El Nino occur?

a)

South Equatorial Pacific Ocean

b)

Arctic Ocean

c)

South Equatorial Atlantic Ocean

d)

North Equatorial Atlantic Ocean

e)

South Equatorial Indian Ocean

82.

Other than the hydrogen and oxygen atoms themselves, the two most abundant elements (ions) dissolved in seawater are:

a)

fluorine and iodine.

b)

gold and silver.

c)

bromine and boron.

d)

sodium and chloride

e)

carbonate and sulfate.

83.

During an El Niño event:

a)

the trade winds strengthen.

b)

the central eastern Pacific ocean becomes cooler.

c)

sea level falls in the central eastern Pacific ocean.

d)

the trade winds weaken or reverse

e)

upwelling along Peru increases

84.

The ocean tends to become more dense with increasing depth:

a)

True

b)

False

85.

Which body has the most profound influence on ocean tides?

a)

Sun

b)

Moon

c)

Jupiter

d)

Venus

86.

The main gases found in seawater are:

a)

methane, carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide

b)

methane, sulfur dioxide, carbon monoxide

c)

carbon dioxide, nitrogen, carbon monoxide

d)

carbon dioxide, nitrogen, oxygen

e)

oxygen, carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide

87.

The most dense water in ocean currents is the:

a)

warmest and saltiest.

b)

coldest and saltiest.

c)

warmest and freshest.

d)

coldest and freshest.

e)

the surface water

88.

The smallest daily tidal range occurs during which type of tide?

a)

full tide

b)

spring tide

c)

small tide

d)

neap tide

e)

empty tide

89.

The ocean is slow to heat and slow to cool. This is related to a property of water known as:

a)

density.

b)

high heat capacity.

c)

low heat capacity.

d)

residence time.

e)

boiling point.

90.

Which of the following is NOT a process that decreases the salinity of seawater?

a)

runoff from land

b)

icebergs melting

c)

precipitation

d)

evaporation

e)

glaciers melting

91.

When the sun and moon are in a line with Earth, the

a)

gravitational attraction will be less

b)

difference between high and low tides will be minimal.

c)

arrival of high tide will be delayed.

d)

highest high and lowest low tides will occur.

e)

no tide will occur

92.

The power for tropical cyclones comes from

a)

static electricity.

b)

the condensation of warm, dry air.

c)

the Coriolis effect.

d)

the condensation of warm, moist air.

e)

the U. S. Department of Energy.

93.

Which layer of the ocean experiences a large change in salinity with depth?

a)

a halocline.

b)

a thermocline.

c)

a pycnocline.

d)

a metacline.

e)

a paracline.

94.

The most pronounced thermoclines exist in:

a)

the temperate zones.

b)

the polar regions.

c)

the tropics.

d)

anywhere -- it depends on water salinity.

e)

anywhere -- it depends on water clarity.

95.

The main source of most of the energy for surface ocean currents is:

a)

weather.

b)

wind.

c)

the moon

d)

the tides.

e)

hurricanes

96.

The Coriolis effect is due to the ________ of Earth & causes water to move to the _______ in the northern hemisphere & to the _______ in the southern hemisphere.

a)

rotation, right, left

b)

rotation, left, right

c)

tilt, left, right

d)

tilt, right, left

e)

albedo, right, left

97.

In the summer, large landmasses like India, develop a seasonal:

a)

high pressure system

b)

system of trade winds

c)

no pressure

d)

low pressure system

e)

front

98.

The major source of carbon dioxide in seawater is:

a)

from photosynthesis by marine plants.

b)

from rain falling into the ocean.

c)

from the respiration of marine animals and other organisms.

d)

from seafloor sediments.

e)

runoff from land

99.

Oxygen enters seawater mainly:

a)

through the respiration of animals

b)

as a byproduct of photosynthesis.

c)

as a result of decomposition of plant and animal remains.

d)

through the oxidation of metal ions in seawater.

e)

by decomposition of decomposers

100.

Check all that apply:


The ocean is stratified with respect to:

a)

density

b)

temperature

c)

salinity

d)

organisms

101.

Which way do winds blow from during a summer monsoon?

a)

northwest

b)

northeast

c)

southwest

d)

southeast

e)

all the answers are correct

102.

When is the daily tidal range the greatest?

a)

spring tide, when the sun, Earth, & moon are at a 90 degree angle

b)

spring tide, when the sun, Earth, & moon are at a 180 degree angle

c)

neap tide, when the sun, Earth, & moon are at a 90 degree angle

d)

neap tide, when the sun, Earth, & moon are at a 180 degree angle

e)

neap tide, when the sun, Earth, & moon are at a 145 degree angle

103.

The highest salinity would be found in which of the following areas?

a)

an area with high rates of precipitation

b)

an area with high rates of evaporation

c)

an area with plenty of river runoff

d)

an area with high rates of glaciers & ice caps melting

104.

Tropical cyclones are also called

a)

willi-willis.

b)

typhoons.

c)

hurricanes.

d)

tornadoes

105.

The densest seawater is the

a)

coldest

b)

saltiest

c)

warmest

d)

freshest

e)

coldest and saltiest

106.

The average salinity of the world ocean is closest to which of the following:

a)

3.5 o /oo

b)

21.5 o /oo

c)

35 o /oo

d)

52 o /oo

e)

96.5 o /oo

107.

Winds are labeled according to which of the following?

a)

whether they originate on land or water

b)

the direction from which the blow

c)

the region in which they can be found

d)

the direction to which they are blowing to

108.

Check all that apply


The depth to which light can penetrate the ocean depends on:

a)

The dust, cloud cover, and gases in the atmosphere

b)

The angle of the sun above the horizon.

c)

The smoothness or roughness of the sea surface.

d)

The amount of suspended material in the water.

109.

One benefit of hurricanes reaching land is:

a)

storm surge

b)

damage to mangroves

c)

depositing of nutrients to coastal lands

d)

loss of property

e)

damage to infrastructure

110.

The minimum surface water temperature needed for hurricane development is:

a)

35 degrees C

b)

30 degrees C

c)

26 degrees C

d)

20 degrees C

e)

15 degrees C