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Virology Final Exam Review

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements are true of all viruses?

a)

They all have a protein capsid that encases their genetic material

b)

All of the answers are correct

c)

They are all enveloped

d)

They all possess the same type of nucleic acid

2.

For which virus was the first deliberately attenuated viral vaccine developed?

a)

Rabies virus

b)

Smallpox virus

c)

Herpes virus

d)

Vaccina virus

3.

Influenza virus was discovered before the first oncogenic virus was discovered

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Prolate is a viral shape variant found in

a)

Mammalian viruses

b)

Plant viruses

c)

Human viruses

d)

Bacteriophages

5.

The ability of viruses to grow and replicate outside of their host cells is a characteristic that makes them highly infectious and is important for transmission.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

A virus that is integrated into the host genome is called a ________

a)

Provirus

b)

Super infection

c)

silent virus

d)

integron

7.

Which DNA genome, upon entry into the cell, can be immediately copied into mRNA?

a)

Gapped dsDNA

b)

Linear ssDNA

c)

dsDNA

d)

all types of DNA can be immediately copied to mRNA

8.

There are some viruses that only encode 1 viral protein.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Which of the following are a known viral genome structure?  Check all that apply

a)

Segmented

b)

Circular

c)

Duplicitous

d)

Ambisense

10.

A resistant cell has a viral receptor but will not support viral replication.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Which statement about viral RNA genomes is correct?

a)

dsRNA genomes can be directly translated to make viral protein

b)

Copying of (+)ssRNA during virus replication does not require a (–) strand intermediate

c)

(+)ssRNA genomes may be translated to make viral protein

d)

RNA genomes can be copied by host cell RdRp

12.

Only a few enveloped viruses have viral proteins protruding from the envelope.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

The lowering of internal pH is a major difference between endosomes and caveosomes.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Which of the following must occur in order for viral envelopes to fuse with cellular membrane during entry? Check all that apply.

a)

The fusion protein must undergo a conformational change

b)

The virus must bind it's host cellular receptor

c)

The viral and cellular membranes must be pulled together

d)

  The cellular membrane must ruffle.

15.

Both carbohydrate and protein receptors on host cells can be used by viruses as attachment receptors.

Correct!

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Once in the lysogenic cycle, bacteriophage can never switch back to the lytic cycle.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

The initial adherence of viruses to host cells are guided by electrostatic forces and are extremely specific.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

For ss (+) RNA viruses, which protein is responsible for copying the genome?

a)

The RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RdRp)

b)

The ribosome

c)

DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

d)

The Reverse Transcriptase

19.

Which of the following contribute to antibody dependent enhancement of Dengue infections?  Check all that apply.

a)

  An increased number of infected cells

b)

  Suppression of the antiviral immune response

c)

  Increased virus production

d)

Being infected multiple times with the exact same strain of Dengue

20.

Which of the following are characteristic of the persistent phase of norovirus infection?

a)

Lasts up to 2 months

b)

asymptomatic infection

c)

high viral titers in the stool

21.

Which of the following statements is TRUE.

a)

flaviviruses generate individual mRNAs for translation

b)

cellular enzymes are responsible for cleaving the polyproteins of Flaviviruses

c)

viral enzymes are responsible for cleaving the polyproteins of Flaviviruses

22.

The term for the one long protein that results from the translation of the picornavirus genome is...

a)

none of the answer choices are correct

b)

a pre-cleaved protein

c)

a polyprotein

d)

a poly-cistronic message

23.

Of the emergent Coronaviruses, which one is primarily transmitted by camels? 

a)

  SARS-CoV-1

b)

  SARS-CoV-2

c)

MERS

24.

Which of the following characteristics of Measles do NOT contribute to the highly contagious nature of the virus? 

a)

Measles can survive up to 2 hrs in the air and on surfaces

b)

Measles infects both epithelial and immune cells

c)

Measles is spread through airborne transmission

25.

Of the choices below, how does translation of VSV differ from translation of Poliovirus? 

a)

VSV uses viral enzymes to cleave its polyprotein, which poliovirus uses cellular enzymes

b)

Translation of proteins for VSV and Poliovirus are not different.

c)

Translation for VSV occurs in the cytoplasm, while translation for Poliovirus occurs in the nucleus.

d)

VSV translates each protein sequence individually while Poliovirus translates one long polyprotein that is ultimately cleaved by viral proteases.

26.

What molecule on the host cell does Influenza virus bind to?

a)

gp120

b)

CD4

c)

vp40

d)

sialic acid

27.

Which characteristic of Measles infection is linked to development of immune amnesia?

a)

destruction of memory immune cells

b)

ability to spread to the brain

c)

enhanced infection resulting from vaccination

d)

use of hemagglutinin as an attachment receptor

28.

Which ss(-) RNA virus has a 100% mortality rate?

a)

Ebola Virus

b)

Influenza virus

c)

Mumps virus

d)

Rabies virus

29.

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of Influenza replication in comparison to other RNA viruses?

a)

Influenza RNA remains in the cytoplasm for transcription.

b)

Influenza is taken up by endocytosis.

c)

Influenza RNA goes into the nucleus for transcription

d)

Influenza mRNAs can't be directly copied to make full length genome.

30.

Which of the following are unique characteristics of Reovirus replication compared to the replication of other RNA viruses?

a)

The virus enters through receptor mediated endocytosis

b)

The mRNA serves a the template for genome production

c)

The virus remains in the endosome until it has fused with the lysosome

31.

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of Reoviruseses compared to other RNA viruses discussed in this course? 

a)

They have a segmented genome

b)

They have two concentric shells

c)

They replicate in the cytoplasm

d)

They package their RdRp

32.

Which Bluetongue virus proteins form a complex found at regular intervals along the inside of the viral core?

a)

VP4, VP3 and VP7

b)

VP3, VP7 and VP5

c)

VP2, VP5, and VP7

d)

VP1, VP4 and VP6

33.

One day you find yourself sick with both diarrhea and vomiting. Since you've taken Virology, you know that you are likely infected with either Norovirus or Rotavirus.  Which aspect of your illness or symptoms would give a good indication of which virus you were infected with? 

a)

Rotavirus is a pediatric disease, so I most likely have a Norovirus infection

b)

It's impossible to make an educated guess about which virus I have based on symptoms or pattern of infection.

c)

Rotovirus does not induce vomiting, so it must be Norovirus.

d)

Children are immunized with vaccines against Norovirus, so I must be infected with Rotavirus.

34.

Which Bluetongue virus protein it primarily involved in cellular attachment?

Correct!

a)

VP2

b)

VP6

c)

VP5

d)

VP4

35.

Why must dsRNA viruses package an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RdRp) inside their viral capsid?

a)

Because all RNA viruses package an RdRp.

b)

Because the (+) of RNA in their genome cannot function as mRNA

c)

Because the RdRp converts the RNA to DNA so it can be translated by host ribosomes.

d)

dsRNA viruses don't actually package an RdRp

36.

Which of the following is a distinct step in the reverse transcription of retroviral RNA? Check all that apply.

a)

  nicking of the template RNA

b)

  Initiation of (+) DNA synthesis

c)

  Initiation of synthesis of new template RNAs

d)

  template exchange

37.

What is the most common mode of transmission for HIV?

a)

  IV drug use

b)

  Blood Transfusions

c)

  Sexual contact or intercourse

d)

  Transfer from mother to child

38.

In which way is the retrovirus HIV, unlike other single stranded (+) RNA viruses

a)

  Retroviruses are smaller than all other ss(+) RNA viruses

b)

  Retroviruses are enveloped while other ss(+) RNA viruses are not

c)

  Retrovirus RNA gets transcribed in the cytoplasm

d)

  Retroviruses encode an RNA transcriptase (RT) to convert their RNA to DNA

39.

Which activity of the polymerase is responsible for degrading the pre-genomic RNA during Hepatitis B DNA replication?

a)

  Priming activity

b)

  the pre-genomic RNA does not get degraded

c)

  Replication activity

d)

  RNase H activity

40.

Which of the following are signs of viral hepatitis? Check all that apply.

a)

  Increase levels of transaminases in the blood

b)

  diarrhea

c)

  jaundice

d)

  atypical lymphocytes

41.

Which HIV protein is used to bind to the CD4 receptor?

a)

  Heparin sulfate

b)

  Hemaglutinin

c)

CCR5

d)

gp120

42.

AAV uses sialic acid as its cellular receptor.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Inverted terminal repeats form which important structures of linear ssDNA molecules?

a)

  Hairpin structures

b)

Priming site to allow for DNA polymerase binding

c)

Cleavage site to initiate genome replicaiton

d)

Inverted terminal repeats are not a feature of ssDNA genomes

44.

During rolling circle replication cellular enzymes will repeatedly sit down on the newly synthesized strand of DNA to make the second strand of the dsDNA genome. This process is termed.....

a)

discontinuous DNA synthesis

b)

continuous DNA synthesis

c)

asynchronous DNA synthesis

d)

halting DNA synthesis

45.

All herpes virus tegument proteins remain in the cytoplasm after uncoating of the virus.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Why are parvovirus infections in animals commonly lethal? 

a)

  Because the viruses infect vital organs.

b)

  None of the answer choices are correct.

c)

  Because animals have weak immune responses.

d)

  Because infections result in dehydration which can lead to death.

47.

The coordinated regulation of herpes virus infection is controlled by host proteins in response to the production of VP16.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

In general, HSV 2 tends to infect and cause symptoms below the waist.

Correct!

a)

True

b)

False

49.

The primary infection of oral herpes often results in disease symptoms that are more severe than the symptoms of recurrent infections.

Correct!

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Shingles is an example of which type of infection?

a)

  Slow infection

b)

  Reactivated latent infection

c)

  Acute Infection

d)

  Chronic infection

51.

Which of the choices best describes the course of a chronic infection?

a)

  High virus levels during the initial infection followed by low or undetectable levels of virus with occasional periods of reactivation when virus levels mimic the initial acute infection.

b)

  Rapid increase in virus concentrations after infection that remain high throughout the life of the host.

c)

  Initial infection results in low levels of virus concentration which increase gradually overtime and peak towards the end of life of the host.

d)

  Initial infection characterized by high levels of detectable virus after which the virus is completely cleared from the host.

52.

Herpes simplex virus can only be spread by symptomatic patients.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

During chicken pox infection, skin lesions result from the primary viremia. 

a)

True

b)

False

54.

A cancer's spread is called

a)

metastasis

b)

carcinogenesis

c)

oncogenesis

d)

malignancy

55.

A(n) _______ is a type of cancer-causing gene that promotes cancer by activating cell division at an inappropriate time or place

a)

apoptotic

b)

  proto-oncogene

c)

  DNA repair gene

d)

  tumor suppressor gene

56.

All types of HPV are equally capable of resulting in cancer formation.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Which of the following stimulates cell cycle events?

a)

  beta amyloid

b)

  tumor suppressor protein

c)

  a growth factor

d)

  BRCA 1/2

58.

Infection by certain viruses can lead to cancer but don't directly cause cancer.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Which of the following are a human oncogenic virus? Check all that apply.

a)

Poliovirus

b)

  Epstein-Barr Virus

c)

  Zika virus

d)

  Hepatitis B virus

60.

Which of the following are disadvantages to retroviruses as gene therapy vectors? Check all that apply.

a)

  High infection efficiency

b)

  Low inflammatory response

c)

  Low capsid stability

d)

  Integration can lead to transformation

61.

Of the viruses used in gene therapy discussed in the lecture, which can be easily grown in cell culture?

a)

  Retroviruses

b)

Adenoviruses

c)

AAV

62.

Which of the following characteristics of gene therapy viruses, allows scientists to overcome the issue of immune responses developed against a virus? 

a)

  Availability of multiple serotypes.

b)

  Genome capacity

c)

Pathogenicity

d)

Immunogenicity

63.

What property of cells, particularly stem cells, makes cell based delivery possible for viral vectors?

a)

  they can grow in cell culture

b)

  their specific cell receptors

c)

  their homing properties

64.

Which of the following viruses are used as vectors for gene therapy treatments?  Check all that apply.

a)

Retroviruses

b)

Reoviruses

c)

Adenoviruses

d)

Noroviruses

65.

Adeno-associated virus (AAV) is being explored as a vector for gene therapy in part because of it's large genome capacity.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Which Hepatitis C genotype had the lowest response rate to interferon and Ribovirin?

a)

  Genotype 2

b)

  Genotype 3

c)

  Genotype 1

d)

  Genotype 4

67.

Waning of herd immunity has resulted in a resurgence of which of the following viruses?

a)

Polio

b)

Measles

c)

Rabies

d)

Smallpox

68.

Why are adjuvants sometimes added to vaccines?

a)

None of the answer choices are correct.

b)

To help enhance the immune response against the antigen found in the vaccine

c)

To specifically activate the protective arm of the immune response.

d)

To serve as a preservative and make the vaccines more stable.

69.

The T cell arm of protective immunity is the easiest for viral vaccines to activate. 

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Which of the following viral functions (i.e. steps of viral infection) can be targeted by HIV antiviral drugs?  Check all that apply.

a)

Attachment

b)

  mRNA synthesis

c)

  DNA/RNA replication

d)

  Penetration and uncoating

e)

Assembly

71.

Which of the following Influenza components are targeted by anti-viral drugs? Check all that apply.

a)

  M2 ion channels

b)

  sialic acid

c)

hemmaglutanin

d)

neuraminidase

72.

To date, there have been no associations between the virome and human disease.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Eukaryotic viruses are the first viruses to establish the human virome.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

16s rRNA sequencing can be used to:

a)

  study the biodiversity of bacterial in a complex environmental sample

b)

  determine the evolutionary relationships among community members of a virome

c)

  determine the function of members of a microbial ecosystem

75.

Which of the following has the greatest impact on the microbiome?

You Answered

a)

medication

b)

diet

c)

genetics

d)

geography

76.

Which of the following are a mode of infection for bacteriophage?

a)

latent

b)

persistent

c)

lysogenic

d)

acute

77.

One of the most straightforward aspects of studying the virome is separating viruses from other microbes in the sample. 

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Chronic or latent viral infection is linked to which of the following disorders. Check all that apply.

Correct!

a)

  Alzheimer's Disease

b)

  Inflammatory Bowel Disease

c)

  Type I Diabetes

d)

  Type II Diabetes

79.

Intestinal bacteria can control infection for which of the following viruses? 

a)

  Measles Virus

b)

  SARS-CoV-2 virus

c)

Rotavirus

d)

  Influenza virus

80.

Which Herpesvirus is thought to induce Alzheimer's Disease because it reduces expression of amyloid-beta peptide degrading enzymes?

a)

  Varicella Zoster Virus

b)

  Herpes Simplex Virus

c)

Cytomegalovirus

d)

  Human Herpes Virus 5

81.

Commensal bacteria alter norovirus infection by ____________.

a)

  regulating Type III IFN responses

b)

  controlling antibody production

c)

  enhancing attachment to the host cell receptor

82.

Aggregation of which of the following proteins causes Parkinson's Disease?

a)

  alpha-synuclein protein

b)

  hyperphosphorylated tau protein

c)

  amyloid-beta peptide

d)

  Herpes Simplex Virus Glycoprotein B

83.

Chronic infection with which of the following RNA viruses is linked to development of Alzheimer's disease?

a)

Hepatitis C

b)

SARS-CoV-2

c)

Influenza